MLS Flashcards
(251 cards)
1
Q
analytes
A
substance or constituent in which the laboratory conducts testing?
2
Q
chelation of calcium in the EDTA tube?
A
Prevents coagulation by inhibiting coagulation
3
Q
common application of the polarized light microscope in the clinical laboratory do?
A
Study crystals in urine and in cells
4
Q
The rate at which a glucose molecule attaches to hemoglobin to form a ketoamine is **directly/indirectly **proportional to the glucose concentration in the plasma.
A
Directly proportional
5
Q
What characteristics/functions do calibrators have?
A
Contains a known amount of analyte being tested
6
Q
Calibrators are used to establish a correlation between the measurement response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is being measured by the test procedure.
A
Contains a known amount of analyte being tested
7
Q
Chemiluminescence
A
immunoassay methodology is **the emission of light by molecules **in an excited state with a limited amount of heat as the result of a chemical reaction?
8
Q
Biosafety level of 2+ or 3
serious or potentially lethal dz with respiratory transmission
A
Biosafety level laboratory operate to handle TB sputum and TM materials?
9
Q
Absorbance can be calculated easily from percent transmission using which calculation?
A
2 – log10 %T
10
Q
What refers to the reproducibility of test results?
A
Precision
11
Q
Class B fire extinguishers used for?
A
.
Flammable liquid
12
Q
formula is used to convert Celsius to Kelvin?
A
.
Celsius plus 273
13
Q
organization requires training in chemical hazards and infectious materials for new testing personnel?
A
OSHA
14
Q
nearest degree, what is 40° Fahrenheit converted to Celsius?
A
4° C
15
Q
Why do laboratories record temperature and humidity levels daily?
A
Out-of-control conditions could be caused by changes in temperature and humidity
16
Q
the name of the substance in which solute is dissolved in?
A
Solvent
17
Q
Which type of microscope objective should never be used with oil?
A
40x objective
18
Q
How many milliliters (mL) of 0.25 M NaOH are needed to make 100 mL of a 0.05 M solution of NaOH?
A
20 mL
19
Q
What process helps monitor the accuracy and reproducibility of results using controlled specimens?
A
Quality control
20
Q
In the calculation of MCV = HCT x 10/___?
A
RBC
21
Q
Category B,
Bioterorism agents category: moderate
A
(suffering from the disease) with low mortality (death) rates.
22
Q
How do you convert Celsius to Fahrenheit?
A
F=(Celsius degrees number x 9/5) + 32
23
Q
Lipemic
A
milky-white plasma or serum may interfere with chemical determinations, such as triglyceride or nephelometric assays?
24
Q
A microscope should never be left with the __________ in place.
A
oil-immersion objective
25
Which three veins are most frequently used for a venipuncture?
Cephalic, basilic, and median cubita
26
Which substance is employed to produce a chemical reaction?
Reagent
27
How many grams of sulfosalicylic acid (MW = 254) are required to prepare 1 L of a 3% (w/v) solution?
30
| 3 * 1000/100 = 3*10 = 30 grams
28
What can result from failing to apply sufficient pressure to a venipuncture site?
Hematoma
29
disorders requires the observation of oligoclonal immunoglobulin bands on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein electrophoresis?
Multiple sclerosis
30
Which analyte rises first in response to inflammation?
C-reactive protein
31
Which of the following is the most widely used tumor marker for colorectal cancer?
Carcinoembryonic antigen
32
determinations is used to assess the total body lead poisoning burden?
Whole blood lead
33
Which of the following associations of creatine kinase and disease condition is correct?
CK-MB and cardiac disorders
34
Which of the following levels do parathyroid glands either increase or decrease PTH secretion in response to changes?
Calcium
35
What does a biuret reaction for total protein analysis depend on?
Peptide bonds
36
Which of the following is primarily evaluated in an ALT assessment?
Hepatic disorders
37
Which of the following diseases or conditions results from an incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
38
How is the formation of HbA1c related to plasma glucose concentration?
Directly proportional
38
Which of the following is prolonged in tourniquet use cause?
Hyperkalemia
39
What is the function of the pituitary gland?
Stimulates the other glands to produce hormones as needed
40
In which organ are most plasma proteins synthesized?
Liver
41
Which tumor marker is an abundant serum protein and is normally synthesized by the fetal liver?
Alpha-fetoprotein
42
Which condition would most likely be the cause of an increased ALP level in an adult?
Liver disease
43
What is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas and is the major hormone that opposes the action of insulin, therefore increasing blood glucose by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver
Glucagon
44
Which of the following is one of the most common clinical applications of GC-MS analysis?
Drug testing
45
Which two hormones are produced by the thyroid gland from the trace mineral iodine and are responsible for the regulation of metabolic activities in all body cells?
Thyroxine and triiodothyronine
46
Which class does the enzyme, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), belong to?
Transferases
47
What are the two main groups of plasma proteins?
Albumin and globulin
48
What is a glycoprotein hormone that is secreted by the kidney and functions to increase the production of red blood cells?
Erythropoietin
49
Which is a condition involving the deposition of plaques in the blood vessels that has been proven to lead to coronary artery disease?
Atherosclerosis
50
What are the two most common aminotransferases measured in the clinical laboratory?
AST and ALT
51
The measurement of the decrease in intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods?
Turbidimetry
52
In what manner is the dye uptake by a sample following electrophoresis and staining related to the sample concentration?
Directly proportional
52
Which of the following are the two methods used to characterize monoclonal proteins?
1. Immunoelectrophoresis
2. immunofixation electrophoresis
53
Which of the following indicates a borderline triglyceride range?
150 – 199 mg/dL
54
Which tissue is richest in acid phosphatase?
Prostate
55
The nephrons of the kidneys have five basic parts. Which part is also referred to as the Bowman’s capsule?
Glomerulus
56
Which of the following is a non-insulin dependent diabetes, is characterized by insulin resistance and progressive hyperglycemia, and is called “adult-onset diabetes”?
Type 2
57
What is an inflammation-sensitive protein that can be measured by immunoassays?
C-reactive protein (CRP)
58
Brain isoenzyme
Creatinine kinase can be separated into three distinct molecular forms. CK-BB is mainly indicated by which tissue?
58
Which of the following gives serum its characteristic milky appearance (lipemia) when blood is drawn after a meal?
Chylomicrons
59
What is the term for the mathematical modeling of drug concentration in circulation, which helps assist in establishing a dosage regimen?
Pharmacokinetics
60
What tumor marker is most useful in the diagnosis of ovarian and endometrial carcinomas?
CA 125
61
Elevation of which enzymes are found in hepatocellular disorders?
AST, ALT
62
What is the yellow discoloration of the plasma, skin, and mucous membranes that is caused by the abnormal metabolism, accumulation, or retention of bilirubin called?
Jaundice
63
What is derived from the iron-containing heme portion of hemoglobin, which is released from the breakdown of RBCs?
Bilirubin
64
Which is the key membrane component for a potassium selective electrode?
Valinomycin
64
Which term refers to the mathematical difference between the anions (CL- and HCO3-) and the cations (Na+ and K+)?
Anion gap
65
Which enzyme may be elevated for up to 48 hours after mild to strenuous activity or exercise?
CK
66
What does a manual reticulocyte count do?
d.
Uses a vital stain which can be a biological hazard
66
What is indicated by a large red cell distribution curve on an automated blood count?
Abnormal red cell size variation
67
What causes patients on radiation and chemotherapy to develop bleeding problems?
Decrease in thrombocytes
68
Which leukocyte responds to bacterial infections?
Neutrophil
69
What hematological disease/disorder has an increased number of immature cells?
Acute leukemia
70
Formalin
is used as a fixative to fix bone marrow particles from core biopsy specimen?
71
What is a Hematology stain that is used to make white blood cell differential smears?
Wright stain
72
Which of the following is an immature granulocyte with a non-segmented nucleus?
Band neutrophil
73
Which cellular constituent of blood contains the vital protein hemoglobin?
Erythrocytes
74
Which term refers to an abnormal distribution pattern of red blood cells, in which cells stick together or are aligned in aggregates resembling stacks of coins?
Rouleaux
75
In most infections, there is some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions?
Chorea and undulant fever
76
Who developed the rule that is ***used in quality control*** to evaluate results when two or more levels of control material are used?
Westgard
77
As the neutrophil matures, which neutrophil has **reddish-purple primary granules** that help to identify the cell?
Promyelocyte
78
When performing a bone marrow differential count, which cell is NOT included?
Megakaryocytes
79
What type of cell does the monocyte transition into once it leaves the blood and enters the tissue?
Macrophage
79
What cells differentiate further in the bone marrow while encountering an antigen?
B lymphocytes
80
What is used to evaluate size distribution curve of leukocyte data and allows visualization of subpopulation of cells based on their relative sizes?
Histogram
| graph that display continous numeric values
80
What color top can the additive EDTA be found in?
Lavender top
81
Which macrocytic anemias are the results of vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency, or a combination of both?
Megaloblastic anemias
82
What is the name of nucleated red blood cells or reticulocytes in the peripheral blood?
Shift cells
| Shift cells are nucleated red blood cells or polychromatic macrocytes
83
Which erythrocyte index indicates whether the red blood cells will appear microcytic, normocytic, or macrocytic?
MCV
84
What are erythrocytes referred to that are larger in size?
Macrocytes
85
What is the rate at which red blood cells settle to the bottom of a test tube?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
86
Which automated blood cell counting principle is based on i***ncreased resistance*** that occurs when a blood cell with poor conductivity passes through an electrical field?
Impedance
87
When performing the ***Westergren method***, fresh anticoagulated blood collected in sodium citrate is the preferred anticoagulant. What is the ***ratio of blood to sodium citrate?***
4 vol of blood to 1 vol of sodium citrate
| 4:1
88
What is the process in which a cell engulfs and digests foreign material?
Phagocytosis
89
What is a white blood cell known as in human blood?
Leukocyte
90
What is the hematology orderable test that consists of analytes such as hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood cell count with morphology, white blood cell count with differential, and platelet estimate?
| ***counting everything***
Complete blood count
91
Morphologically, what are anemias generally classified as?
Normochromic-normocytic,
macrocytic,
hypochromic-microcytic
92
Which term is used to describe a red blood cell with a normal shape?
Discocyte
93
When evaluating an*** erythrocyte histogram, a shift to the left*** of the erythrocyte series should correspond to which type of erythrocytes?
Microcytes
94
Which stain helps precipitate residual ribosomal RNA within reticulocytes?
New methylene blue
94
After the PM check, you run quality control (QC) for prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). ***The QC for the aPTT is within 2 SD but the PT control is outside of 6 SD***. In troubleshooting, what might the problem be?
The ISI value that is currently in the instrument was set back to zero after maintenance and needs to be re-entered before patient testing is resumed.
95
What is the process of stopping blood loss through ruptured blood veins, arteries, and capillaries called?
Hemostasis
96
What is the appropriate ***ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a sodium citrate tube drawn*** for routine coagulation studies?
9:1
97
You are running at prothrombin time (PT)....The specimen was in a 3.2% sodium citrate tube that was received into the lab 20 minutes after it was collected and spun immediately upon arrival. What may be the cause of the failure to clot?
The specimen had a clot in it that was not detected upon arrival in the lab.
97
The physician suspects a chronically malnourished patient has scurvy because of bleeding gums. The physician would order tests for
vitamin C.
98
The activity of Factor V in plasma deteriorates even when the plasma is frozen. Factor V is also known as
a labile coagulation factor.
99
What is synthesized by the liver through the action of vitamin K?
Prothrombin
100
Which test is not beneficial for evaluating a patient with suspected von Willebrand disease?
Platelet count
100
The activated partial thromboplastin time is used to monitor which drug therapy?
Heparin
101
Rapid plasma reagin (RPR)
| test for?
nontreponemal serological test?
102
SLE Latex Test
polystyrene latex particles coated with deoxyribonucleoprotein (DNP)?
103
***another antibody enhancement medium***
polyethylene glycol
104
Rabbit erythrocyte stroma
| ***function***
one method to remove reactivity from a cold antibody?
105
anti A/B pos group
AB
| type
106
What is the most significant indicator when you are working with a cold agglutin?
Panel cells react at room temperature
107
One unit of transfused red blood cells (RBCs) is
3%
108
zero anti A & pos anti B =
B
| type
109
Which immunohematology test is used to ***detect antibody bound to red cells in-vivo*** and uses the*** AHG reagent?***
Direct antiglobulin test
110
What is the source of antibody when performing a ***reverse grouping to detect ABO antibodies?***
Patient’s serum or plasma
111
What is the immunodominant sugar for the B antigen?
D-galactose
112
Approved anticoagulants
ACD, CPD, CP2D, and CPDA-1
| anticoagulant citrate dextrose solution (ACD), anticoagulant citrate pho
113
What is the leading cause of transfusion-related death reported to the FDA?
TACO (Transfusion-associated circulatory overload)
114
Red cells from donors are
| stability?
stable up to 42 days in additive solution.
115
blood is removed from the donor and separated into components and one or more components is retained and the other is returned to the patient.
| process?
Apheresis
116
Cryoprecipitated AHF is stable for one year frozen and can be use to
treat hypofibrinogenemia.
117
Which blood product is the ***cold insoluble precipitate*** that forms when a unit of FFP is thawed between 1 °C and 6 °C?
Cryoprecipitated AHF
118
Between 1 °C and 6 °C
| storage for
Red blood cells
119
***Pre-storage leukocyte reduction*** has been shown to reduce the transmission risk of _________.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
119
ABO-incompatible transfusion reactions
will lead to a severe or fatal reaction
120
streptococcal group test?
Particle agglutination
121
The isolate is swarming over the blood plate, produces hydrogen sulfide on TSIA, and hydrolyzes urea, ***indole negative*** and ornithine positive.
Proteus mirabilis
122
What is a disadvantage of the zinc sulfate flotation method for separating protozoan cysts and helminth eggs in fecal specimens?
Some helminth eggs do not concentrate well with this method
123
Which four groups can most bacteria be divided into based on gram stain results?
Gram pos bacilli,
gram neg bacilli,
gram pos cocci, and
gram neg cocci
124
identified with an optochin (P disk)?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
125
fungi can generally be divided into two broad groups based
Yeast and mold
126
screen feces for fat
| what test?
Sudan III stain
127
what cells do not have a nucleus, or any membrane bound organelles
Prokaryotes
128
Why are systemic mycoses historically grouped together?
They are shared characteristics, such as mode of transmission, dimorphism, and dissemination
129
using thick and thin blood smears that are made to allow for better detection of parasites found in blood
Plasmodium spp
129
What do specimens for parasitic identification include?
Stool, urine, blood, sputum, and tissue biopsies
130
hich specific bacteria, parasitic cysts and rare fungal forms ***contain mycolic*** acid in their cell wall and retain the basic dye despite acid alcohol rinsing?
Acid-fast positive organisms
131
Which of the following results for an analysis of ***synovial fluid*** would you expect to find for ***inflammatory joint disease***?
Cloudy yellow fluid, low viscosity, moderately high WBC count, neutrophils > 50%, normal glucose and high protein
132
Diazo reaction
reagent strip test is associated with a screening test for bilirubin?
133
what crystals are also seen with leucine crystals. Both are associated with severe liver disease.
tyrosine
| urine bilirubin
134
# what can be handled
At Biosafety level 2+/3
TB sputum
TM materials
135
What is a substance or constituent in which the laboratory conducts testing?
An analyte
136
ca++ in EDTA tube function
prevents coagulation by inhibiting coagulation
137
what contains a kwown amount of analyte being tested
calibrators
138
common application of polarized light microscope is
study crystals in urin and in cells
139
Absorbance can be calculated easily from percent transmission using which calculation?
2 -log10 %T
140
measurement of electromagnetic radiation, either absorbed or emitted, at different wavelengths?
Spectrophotometry
141
To the nearest degree, what is 40° Fahrenheit converted to Celsius
4 C
142
How is quality control between laboratories maintained?
Proficiency testing
143
what category are agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and arenaviruses classified as
| rare in the U.S.
Cat A
| rare in the U.S.
144
Used _________________flammable liquids
| extinguishers
class B
145
category of bioterrorism agents include pathogens that are ***moderately easy to disseminate, result in moderate and low morbidity rates***, and require specific enhancements of the CDC’s diagnostic capacity and enhanced disease surveillance?
CAT B
146
Which three veins are most frequently used for a venipuncture?
Cephalic, basilic, and median cubital
147
A microscope should never be left with the __________ in place.
oil-immersion objective
148
What process documents a specimen the moment it is collected, transported to the laboratory, analyzed, and reports the results?
Chain of custody
149
microscopic evaluation (i.e., wet mount, Potassium hydroxide preparation, fern test, etc.) by a physician in the office for their own patient?
Provider-Performed Microscopy (PPM)
149
How many milliliters can a 3% solution make if 6 grams of solute are available?
200 ml
| 1 g of solute = (100/3) mL
So, in 6 g of solute = (100/3) x 6 =200 mL
150
A 200-mg/dL solution was diluted 1:10. This diluted solution was then additionally diluted 1:5. What is the concentration of the final solution?
4mg/dL
| 200 mg/dL x 1/10 x1/5 = 200/50 = 4 mg/dL
151
Infectious waste are
blood and blood products, contaminated sharps, pathology waste products, and microbiological waste?
152
153
What is the order of draw for multiple evacuated tubes?
Blood culture (aerobic),
blood culture (anaerobic),
blue,
red,
green stopper,
lavender, and
gray
154
Class A fire extinguishers used for
Ordinary combustibles
155
# ```
```
How many grams of sulfosalicylic acid (MW = 254) are required to prepare 1 L of a 3% (w/v) solution?
30g
| 3 * 1000/100 = 3*10 = 30 grams
156
determinations total body lead poisoning burden?
Whole blood lead
157
Which of the following may prolonged tourniquet use cause?
Hyperkalemia
158
associations of creatine kinase and disease condition is correct?
CK-MB and cardiac disorders
159
# Peptide bonds
What does a ***biuret reaction*** for total protein analysis depend on?
Peptide bonds
160
How is the formation of HbA1c related to plasma glucose concentration?
Directly proportional
161
observation of oligoclonal immunoglobulin bands on cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein electrophoresis?
MS
162
PTH response to
Ca++
163
detect myocardial infarction
Troponin
163
lipoprotein is produced by the liver and transports excess cholesterol from the tissues to the liver?
HDL
164
two hormones are produced by the thyroid gland from the trace mineral iodine and are responsible for the regulation of metabolic activities in all body cells?
d.
Thyroxine and triiodothyronine
165
What are the two main groups of plasma proteins
Albumin and globulin
166
What do the Jendrassik-Grof or Evelyn-Malloy methods measure
Bilirubin
167
Which is the key membrane component for a potassium selective electrode
Valinomycin
168
... increasing blood glucose by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver?
Glucagon
169
The ***degree of wavelength isolatio***n is a function of the monochromator type and
width of entrance and exit slits.
170
regulate the growth, development, and functions for both the ovary and testis?
LH and FSH
171
What additional information is typically required to measure enzymatic activity in a 24-hour urine test?
Weight, height, and total volume of 24-hour collection
172
What tumor marker is most useful in the diagnosis of ovarian and endometrial carcinomas?
CA 125
173
instruments ionizes the target molecule then separates and measures the mass-to-charge ratio?
Mass spectrometer
174
following indicates a borderline triglyceride range?
150 – 199 mg/dL
175
Which part is also referred to as the Bowman’s capsule?
Glomerulus
176
What is the most common symptom of coronary artery disease?
Angina
177
stain that is used to make white blood cell differential smears
Wright stain
178
fixative to fix bone marrow particles from core biopsy specimen?
Formalin
179
What does a manual reticulocyte count do?
Uses a vital stain which can be a biological hazard
180
indicated by a large red cell distribution curve on an automated blood count?
Abnormal red cell size variation
181
patients on radiation and chemotherapy to develop bleeding problems?
Decrease in thrombocytes
182
Morphologically, what are anemias generally classified as?
Normochromic-normocytic, macrocytic, and hypochromic-microcytic
183
presence of structurally abnormal hemoglobin is considered to play an important role pathologically?
Hemoglobinopathies
184
Microcytes seen with
| shift?
left of the erythrocyte series
185
# [](http://)
increase iron storage in macrophages
| mononuclear phagocytic system
sideroblastic anemias
186
In most infections, there is some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions?
Chorea and undulant fever
187
decrease in the competence of blood to carry oxygen to tissues?
Anemia
188
where do you count platelets using the Unopette System
Large center square
189
increase in red color when cells progress through stages is due to?
Hemoglobin concentration
190
Evaluate the overall quality of the blood film, estimate the leukocyte count, and scan the blood film for abnormal cells and clumps of platelets.
| at what power setting of the microscope
low power examination
191
Auer rods
| causes DIC
Acute myelocytic leukemia
192
distinct layers of blood speciment
plasma, buffy coat,RBC
193
Shapes
Poikilocytosis
194
stain helps precipitate residual ribosomal RNA within reticulocytes
New methylene blue
195
microcytosis, hypochromasia, and basophilic stippling?
| HB disorders
Thalassemias
196
supravital stains bind, neutralize, and cross-link RNA?
New methylene blue method
197
evaluate **size distribution curve **of leukocyte data and allows **visualization** of subpopulation of cells based on their **relative sizes?**
Histogram
198
test monitors unfractionated heparin therapy
PTT
199
. The QC for the aPTT is within 2 SD but the PT control is outside of 6 SD.
| problem?
The ISI value that is currently in the instrument was set back to zero after maintenance and needs to be re-entered before patient testing is resumed.
200
appropriate ratio of blood to anticoagulant in a sodium citrate tube
9:1
201
Hemostasis
stopping blood loss through ruptured blood veins, arteries, and capillaries
202
group contains factors II, VII, IX, and X?
Prothrombin group
203
not beneficial for evaluating a patient with suspected von Willebrand disease?
platelet count
204
activation of factor 10
X to Xa
205
activity of fibrinogen in stage II and monitors coumarin therapy?
PT
206
specimen collection resulting in half tubes
Call and have the specimen recollected to obtain one full tube.
207
clot dissolution is termed
fibrinolysis
208
The activated partial thromboplastin time is used to monitor which drug therapy?
Heparin
209
pre-op testing speciment showing endpoint clotting time
| problem?
The specimen had a clot in it that was not detected upon arrival in the lab
210
The aPTT measures factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, V, II, and
fibrinogen
211
immunogens
Antigens that can induce antibody production
212
What is the study of molecules, cells, organs, and systems?
Immunology
213
# -0
What antibodies are heterogeneous and lack the specificity of mAbs?
Polyclonal antibodies
214
# ```
```
Solid-phase immunosorbent assay (SPIA)
215
passive immunization
hepatitis exposure, RhIG
216
What is used for testing during a major crossmatch for packed red blood cells?
Patient serum with donor cells
217
reverse grouping to detect ABO antibodies, what is the source of the antigen during the procedure?
A1 and B cells
218
Se allele and is considered a secretor?
H
219
if Anti-A is Pos
A type
220
immunoglobulin constitutes 80% of total immunoglobulin in serum and is bivalent?
IgG
221
if Anti-A/B are pos
AB type
222
Most antigens of the A group are of which subgroup?
A1
223
one method to remove reactivity from a cold antibody
Rabbit erythrocyte stroma
224
source of antibody when performing a reverse grouping to detect ABO antibodies?
Patient’s serum or plasma
225
source of antigen for performing the forward group ABO/D typing?
Patient cells
226
Elution
| process
IgG antibody complexes on red blood cells can be dissociated and placed in a solution to test specificity
227
Frozen plasma must be stored at what temperature?
-18 °C or colder
228
immune-mediated, acute adverse complications of blood transfusion?
Febrile non-hemolytic
229
Per the FDA, which of the following are approved anticoagulants for donor blood collection?
ACD, CPD, CP2D, and CPDA-1
230
leading cause of transfusion-related death reported to the FDA?
TACO (Transfusion-associated circulatory overload)
231
Red cells from donors are
stable up to 42 days in additive solution.
232
donor deferral time for incarceration in a correctional facility for more than 72 hours?
12 months
233
Cryoprecipitated AHF is stable for one year frozen and can be used
to treat hypofibrinogenemia
234
Red blood cells must be stored at what temperature?
Between 1 °C and 6 °C
| 35 days for whole bld in CPDA-1
235
streptococcal group test?
Particle agglutination
236
most common format for viral isolation?
Tube monolayer cell culture
237
an analysis of synovial fluid would you expect to find for inflammatory joint disease?
Cloudy yellow fluid, low viscosity, moderately high WBC count, neutrophils > 50%, normal glucose and high protein
