- inflammation of meninges membrane (covers brain and spinal cord) - due to infections via bloodstream, direct invasion via fractures, or underlying cause (otitis media, mastoiditis, paranasal sinusitis)

MLSCI340 Blood/ Fluids/ Anaerobes Flashcards by Tatjana Obias

Normal flora in blood and CSF

NONE; sterile sites

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List potential bacteria isolated in blood cultures

NOTE: may be a skin contaminant OR pathogen

S. aureus
S. pneumoniae (β strep)
Haemophilus sp.
Listeria monocytogenes
Bacteroides sp. (anaerobes)
Pseudomonas sp.
Enterococcus sp.
Campylobacter sp.
Enterobacteriaceae
Candida sp.

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Define bacterial endocarditis

disease resulting from bacterial invasion of heart valves
widespread inflammation and destructive changes
affects many organ systems

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What causes ACUTE bacterial endocarditis ?

develops within 2 months after implantation of prosthetic heart valve
S. aureus, S. epidermis**
S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, S. pyogenes, N. gonorrhoeae, P. aeruginosa, and Enterobacteriaceae sp.

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What causes SUB-ACUTE bacterial endocarditis ?

normally avirulent viridans group streptococci
enter bloodstream during dental procedure
colonize endothelial surfaces previously damaged by rheumatic disease or congenital cardiac malformation

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Differentiate septicemia vs bacteremia

Septicemia: systemic disease due to persistence of pathogenic organisms OR toxins in blood
Bacteremia: simply presence of bacteria in blood

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Define Pyrexia of Unknown Origin; “PUO”

investigation of cause for a fever

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List potential bacteria isolated in CSF cultures

N. meningiditis
S. agalactiae
S. aureus
K. pneumoniae and S. pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Listeria monocytogenes
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. coli
Cryptococcus neoformans

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T or F: handling of all lumbar puncture specimens is ALWAYS considered STAT

TRUE; due to seriousness of infections in the nervous system, handling of all lumbar puncture specimens is ALWAYS considered STAT

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Define meningitis

inflammation of meninges membrane (covers brain and spinal cord)
due to infections via bloodstream, direct invasion via fractures, or underlying cause (otitis media, mastoiditis, paranasal sinusitis)

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Define aseptic meningitis. What causes it ?

no bacteria can be isolated
viruses (Coxsackie A/B, echoviruses, mumps) are responsible
more common than bacterial pathogens

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Define granulomatous meningitis

Caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis OR Cryptococcus neoformans
subclinical course with definite remissions and relapses
granuloma formation**
spreads via bloodstream from infection in the lungs

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Define viral encephalitis. What causes it ?

localized or diffuse inflammatory processing involving the brain tissue = high mortality
herpes virus and arboviruses

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Define brain abscesses. What causes it ?

may follow traumatic head injury
brain becomes more susceptible to normal flora from middle ear, mastoids, nasal cavities…
abscesses occur when other infections from body spreads to brain via bloodstream
bacteroides sp. (anaerobes), CNS, S. pyogenes, Group D strep (S. bovis, enterococcus faecalis)

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List other sterile body fluids

amniotic fluid
pericardial fluid
peritoneal fluid
pleural fluid
synovial fluid
vitreous fluid

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Which pathogen is common in other sterile bodily fluids but NOT BLOOD OR CSF ?

N. gonorrhoeae

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Define pericardial fluid

The fibrous sac enclosing the heart, and the roots of the great vessels (pericardium)
Viral cases are most common.

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Define peritoneal fluid

Formed within the peritoneal cavity, which is bound by a serous membrane covering the abdominal cavity and organs.

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Define pleural effusion

abnormal collection of pleural fluid (produced in small amounts to lubricate surfaces of the pleura, the thin membrane that lines the chest cavity and surrounds the lungs)

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Define synovial fluid

The synovial membrane is the inner membrane of tissue that lines a joint.
Synovial fluid is secreted to lubricate the joint

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Define vitreous fluid

transparent substance that fill the eyeball between the lens and the retina

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Test Results to ID S. aureus

col morph= wop(h), gop(h)
%= gpc cl
cat= pos
slide/ tube coag= pos
DNAse= pos
TA= R

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Which KB disk differentiates MSSA vs MRSA ?

Cefoxitin (FOX)

MSSA= S
MRSA= R

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Test results for ID of S. pneumonia

col morph= (wet) alpha
%= gpc prs
TP= S
Bile Sol= pos

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Test results for ID of N. gonorrhoeae

col morph= shygy %= gndc Ox= pos CTA sugars: Dextrose= pos Maltose, Sucrose, Lactose= neg

Media for N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis

Thayer Martin in CO2, New York City Agar in CO2

Test results for ID of N. meningitidis

col morph= shygy %= gndc Ox= pos CTA sugars: Dextrose, Maltose= pos Sucrose, Lactose= neg NOTE: M for Maltose and Meningitidis

Test results for N. lactamica

col morph= shygy %= gndc Ox= pos CTA sugars: Dextrose, Maltose, Lactose = pos Sucrose= neg NOTE: L for Lactose and Lactamica

List the CTA sugars

Cystine Tryptic Agar: Base Dextrose Maltose Sucrose Lactose

How can M. catarrhalis be differentiated from Neisseria sp?

Butyrate esterase (catarrhalis disk)= pos CTA sugars= neg for all (dextrose, maltose, sucrose, lactose)

Test results to ID S. agalactiae

col morph= small beta %= gpc ch cat= neg PYR= neg Latex= B CAMP= pos TA= R NOTE: C for Camp and agalaCtiae

Test results to ID K. pneumoniae

MAC= pk HE= yel Orient= blu TSI= A/Ag Indole= neg Lysine= pos

Test results to ID E. coli

%= gnb MAC= pk HE= gn Orient= pk TSI= A/Ag Indole= pos Lys= pos

What is propionibacterium ?

Contaminating anaerobic flora

Test results to ID H. influenzae

%= gncb BAPss= sats ALA= neg

Test results to ID L. monocytogenes

col morph= beta %= gpb cat= pos BE= pos TSI= A/A sick RT Motility= tumbling 37°C Motility= neg Semi-solid Motility= umbrella pattern

Test results for ID of Cryptococcus neoformans

India Ink= negative stain of capsule

Test results to ID Enterococcus

col morph= ent %= gpc ch cat= neg/ wk+ PYR= pos BE= pos 6.5% NaCl= pos

Test results to ID P. aeruginosa

col morph= sheen %= gnb MAC= wh TSI= K/K Ox= pos Nitrate= pos Motility= pos 42°C =pos UV= pos

Test results to ID Campylobacter jejuni

Col morph= clr, flt, spr, drop-like %= gnb Cat= pos Ox= pos Motility= cork-screw

What is the correct additional media OR test to the microscopic morphology: GPCCL

Tube coagulase

What is the correct additional media OR test to the microscopic morphology: GPCCH

Ethyl hydrocupreine hydrocholride

What is the correct additional media OR test to the microscopic morphology: GNDC

New York city agar

What is the correct additional media OR test to the microscopic morphology: Box-square GPB

Egg yolk agar

Which of the following statements is true about the collection of blood culture specimens? a. If coagulase negative Staphylococci isolated it is due to poor collection technique b. Should be collected after the fever has subsided and the patient is feeling better c. Should always collect 2 sets; one with two anaerobic vials and the second set with one aerobic vial d. Collection should occur from 2 separate sites in case skin contamination occurs from one of the sites

d. Collection should occur from 2 separate sites in case skin contamination occurs from one of the sites

List the correct steps in viral replication: 1. Synthesis 2. Adsorption 3. Release 4. Maturation 5. Penetration Which of the following order of steps is correct?

2: Adsorption 5: Penetration 1: Synthesis 4: Maturation 3: Release

Which of the following organisms are susceptible to SPS? a. N. gonorrhoeae b. S. pneumoniae c. H. influenzae d. All of the above

a. N. gonorrhoeae

Which of the following tests confirm Hepatitis C infection? a. PCR b. ELISA c. MALDI-TOF MS d. DFA

a. PCR

Which of the following stains is used to examine for the presence of bacteria in a blood culture after the gram stain reveals no bacteria seen? a. Acridine Orange b. Auramine Rhodamine c. Ziehl-Neelsen d. Calcofluor White

a. Acridine Orange

Which of the following methods is / are useful for direct viral examination? Select all that apply: a. ELISA b. Western blot c. Polymerase chain reaction d. Electron microscopy

a. ELISA c. Polymerase chain reaction d. Electron microscopy

Which of the following terms best describe an organism which prefers an environment with oxygen present but which functions well without oxygen? a. Aerobe b. Microaerophilic c. Aerotolerant d. Facultative anaerobe

d. Facultative anaerobe

Which of the following organisms is associated with transient bacteremia? a. Coagulase negative staphylococci b. Diphtheroids c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

a. Coagulase negative staphylococci

Which of the following light sources is / are suitable for a fluorescence microscope? a. Xenon arc b. Mercury vapor c. Halogen quartz d. Tungsten filament

a. Xenon arc b. Mercury vapor c. Halogen quartz

The following results are recorded for a tissue specimen: Direct Smear Results: 4+ WBC 3+ RBC 3+ GPB Culture Results: BAPO2: no growth BAP*: large translucent colony with two zones of hemolysis MAC: no growth Which of the following descriptors would best match the Gram stain result? a. Thin Gram positive bacilli with terminal spore b. Thick Gram positive bacilli with blunt ends and no spores c. Short Gram positive bacilli, almost coccoid in shape d. Short Gram positive bacilli, palisading

b. Thick Gram positive bacilli with blunt ends and no spores NOTE: C. perfringens

The following results are recorded for a tissue specimen: Direct Smear Results: 4+ WBC 3+ RBC 3+ GPB Culture Results: BAPO2: no growth BAP*: large translucent colony with two zones of hemolysis MAC: no growth Which of the following terms best describe the atmospheric requirements of the organism? a. Facultative anaerobe b. Capnophilic organism c. Microaerophilic organism d. Obligate anaerobe

d. Obligate anaerobe

Which of the following organisms is resistant to kanamycin, vancomycin, and colistin? a. Peptostreptococcus sp b. Bacteroides fragilis c. Clostridium sp d. Veillonella sp

b. Bacteroides fragilis

Which of the following results best match the CSF from a patient with bacterial meningitis? a. PMNs, elevated glucose, elevated protein b. Lymphocytes, normal glucose, elevated protein c. PMNs, low glucose, elevated protein d. Lymphocytes, low glucose, elevated protein

c. PMNs, low glucose, elevated protein

A patient is diagnosed with peritonitis after bowel surgery. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be isolated in the peritoneal fluid? a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Shigella dysentariae c. Bacteroides fragilis d. Salmonella enterica Serovar typhi

c. Bacteroides fragilis

The following results are recorded for a tissue specimen: Direct Smear Results: 4+ WBC 3+ RBC 3+ GPB Culture Results: BAPO2: no growth BAP*: large translucent colony with two zones of hemolysis MAC: no growth Which of the following tests will help identify the pathogen? a. KVC disks b. SPS disk c. Room temperature motility d. Reverse CAMP

d. Reverse CAMP NOTE: C. perfringens = pos

The following results are recorded for a tissue specimen: Direct Smear Results: 4+ WBC 3+ RBC 3+ GPB Culture Results: BAPO2: no growth BAP*: large translucent colony with two zones of hemolysis MAC: no growth Which of the following conditions is often associated with this pathogen? a. Gas gangrene b. Otitis media c. Spontaneous abortion d. Pseudomembranous colitis

a. Gas gangrene

The following results are recorded for an isolate: Gram stain: GPB large Catalase: negative Egg Yolk: Lecithinase negative Lipase positive Reverse CAMP: negative Which of the following organisms best fit the results? a. Clostridium sporogenes b. Actinomyces israelii c. Bacillus cereus d. Clostridium perfringens

a. Clostridium sporogenes NOTE: Lipase positive, Reverse CAMP negative

The following results The following results are recorded for a CSF direct smear: 3+ WBC 1+RBC 4+ YST? (large round, yeast like organism? no budding or branching) Which of the following organisms is the most likely pathogen? a. Cryptosporidium parvum b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Echovirus d. Candida albicans

b. Cryptococcus neoformans

Which of the following organisms is considered a Risk Group III organism? a. Francisella tularensis b. Pasteurella multocida c. Bordetella pertussis d. Neisseria meningitidis

a. Francisella tularensis

Which of the following statements is / are true about eye wash stations? Select all that apply: a. Weekly cleaning and maintenance is required b. Water should be cold to decrease risk of burns c. Eyes must be flushed for a minimum of 5 minutes d. Remove contacts before using

a. Weekly cleaning and maintenance is required

Principle of Plate Bile Solubility. What is a positive result ?

Principle: Presence of bile salts accelerate activity of autolytic enzyme Positive: flattened/ dissolved colonies after 15 min

Bile Sol reagent

Sodium deoxycholate

Chemical name for TP

(Optochin)/ Ethyl hydrocupreine hydrochloride

Principle of PYR test. What is a positive result ?

Principle: Detects PYRase= hydrolyzes L-pyrrolidonyl-beta-beta-naphthylamide (PYR) Positive: pink color within 1 minute

PYR reagent

N,N-dimethyl-aminocinnamaldehyde

How to differentiate anaerobic GPB ?

L. monocytogenes = cat pos Clostridium sp = cat neg

KVC results for Fusobacterium

Kanamycin = S Vancomycin =R Colistin = S

Test to differentiate Micrococcus from S. aureus

Bacitracin/ TA: Micrococcus = S S. aureus = R

T or F: Tube coagulase detects free coag, while slide coag detects bound coagulase

TRUE; Tube coagulase detects free coagulase

Which is known as "clumping factor:" free or bound coag?

bound coagulase in slide coag

List HACEK group. What are they known for ?

Haemophilus Aggregatibacter Cardiobacterium Eiknella corrodens Kingella = ENDOCARDITIS

Ideal ratio of blood: media in BACTEC vials

1:5

MLSCI340 Blood/ Fluids/ Anaerobes Flashcards

(76 cards)