MMR (RNA Viruses) Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

How is the measles virus different from the other Paramyxoviruses?

A

It lacks a neuraminidase activity (has an H protein rather than an HN) and it forms intracellular inclusion bodies.

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2
Q

What phase of life is Measles associated with and how is it spread?

A

Childhood; respiratory route

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3
Q

What is the latent period of Measles?

A

10-14 days

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4
Q

What are the symptoms of Measles?

A

2-3 prodrome of fever, cough, and conjunctivitis followed by a characteristic maculopapular rash

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5
Q

What does the rash coincide with in Measles?

A

T-Cell response (CD8) and virus clearance

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6
Q

What is the clinical definition of Measles?

A

Generalized rash (>3 days), Temperature >38.3 C, Cough, +/- Rhinorrhea, +/- conjunctivitis

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7
Q

Where is replication of Measles initially limited to? Where does it spread to after that?

A

Initially in trachea and bronchial epithelium, after 2-4 days to lymph nodes

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8
Q

What does replication of Measles in lymphoid tissue result in?

A

The appearance of lymphoid or reticuloendothelial giant cells (Warthin-Finkeldey Cells)

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9
Q

When do symptoms occur in Measles?

A

Soon after the onset of viremia

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10
Q

When is the patient infectious in Measles?

A

1-2 days BEFORE symptoms occur (10-20 days post exposure)

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11
Q

What are the two characteristic symptoms of Measles?

A

Maculopapular (morbilliform) rash and Koplik spots

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12
Q

What is the adverse effect that occurs during a Measles virus infection that will lead to suppression of delayed type HS skin test responses? What else is impaired?

A

Immunosuppression; Ab and cellular immune responses to new antigens

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13
Q

According to the timeframe given in the handout, what is the first Measles complication and when does it occur?

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM) or postinfectious encephalomyelitis (PIE); Occurs about 10-30 days after an infection.

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14
Q

What is ADEM/PIE? (no…. not just what does it stand for…) What does it do to you?

A

It is a autoimmune demyelinating disease associated with an immune response to myelin basic protein. Induction is unknown and not restricted to measles. Good prognosis

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15
Q

According to the timeframe in the handout, what is the second Measles complication and when does it occur?

A

Measles Inclusion Body Encephalitis (MIBE); occurs 1-9 months post infection

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16
Q

According to the timeframe in the handout, what is the third Measles complication and when does it occur?

A

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephaliits (SSPE); occurs 3-12 years after (more detailed chart says 6-10 years)

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17
Q

What are MIBE and SSPE resultant from?

A

Result from the establishment of persistent infections of the brain; mechanism of entry to CNS unknown, are fatal within years

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18
Q

What is the main method of prevention of Measles?

A

MMR; live-attenuated measles vaccine is effective and safe; administered in the trivalent (with mumps and rubella) at 12-15 mo. and again at 4-6 years

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19
Q

Why are both mumps and measles so easy to vaccinate against?

A

They both are antigenically stable monotype viruses; so once someone recovers they are immune for life

20
Q

Are there different strains of measles and mumps? Does it matter?

A

Yes there are, defined by AA differences in H and HN proteins but it doesn’t matter because neutralizing Ab to one protects against all known strains

21
Q

Why are Measles and Mumps good candidates for “eradication”

A

Only one serotype, most cases clinically identifiable, no animal reservoir, and “herd immunity” (98%) can be achieved with vaccine

22
Q

What are the factors limiting the MMR vaccine?

A

Pregnancy and Immune status

23
Q

What genus is Measles a part of?

A

morbillivirus genus of Paramyxoviridae

24
Q

What genus is Mumps a part of?

A

Rubalavirus genus of parayxoviridae

25
What do the mumps initially infect? what is its incubation peroid? where does it spread? and where is it shed from for how long?
Nasal mucosa and URT epithelium; incubated for 18 days; spreads to draining lymph nodes; shed in saliva for 6 days before clinical disease
26
What are the first clinical signs of the mumps?
Infection of the parotid gland (95% of cases)
27
What are the complications of the mumps?
CNS involvement = aseptic meningitis and deafness
28
What are some other mumps complications?
Symptomatic gonad involvement in post-pubertal men; correlation with T1 insulin dependent diabetes; myocardial invasion (rather frequently); and fetal wastage = spontaneous abortion in first trimester
29
What are the prevention and control measures of Mumps?
Usually directed at prevention; live attenuated vaccine is safe and effective
30
What type of virus is Rubella virus?
Small, enveloped, non segmented, + strand RNA' member of Togaviridae
31
How is Rubella virus (Ribiviruses) distinguished from Alphavirus?
Limited host range (humans)
32
How does the rubella virus enter the host?
Via receptor-mediated endocytosis, viral envelopes fuse via pH dependent mechanism
33
The genome of Rubella serves as what in translation of viral polymerase?
mRNA
34
The polymerase of Rubella synthesizes what?
- sense strand antigenome
35
What does the antigenome of Rubella do?
Template for synthesis of subgenomic mRNA for viral capsid and envelope and more full length strand genomic RNA
36
How is Rubella transmitted and where does it replicate?
Aerosols and in the mucosa of URT/Nasopharyngeal lymph nodes
37
What does Rubella cause (disease wise)?
A mild disease with low grade fever, occasional conjunctivitis, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and morbilliform rash that starts on face and spreads to body
38
What is the incubation period for Rubella?
7-9 days before virus in serum
39
Where can rubella virus be shed from and isolated?
Nasopharynx and isolated from nasopharynx and stool
40
When does the rash of rubella start?
Day 16-21 post exposure
41
How long can the Rubella virus continue to be shed after rash disappears?
Up to a month post exposure
42
What are the most devastating effects of rubella?
In fetuses = congenital defects (Congenital rubella syndrome)
43
When is the highest risk of pregnancy in regards to rubella?
first and second trimseter (typically 3rd is fine)
44
What does infection with rubella during the first month of pregnancy usually result in? What happens if the baby makes it to term?
Spontaneous abortion; mental retardation, motor disabilities, hearing loss, congenital heart disease, cataracts
45
What has the goal of the Rubella vaccine been?
To protect fetuses from infection
46
What is the antiviral treatment for Rubella?
There is none, actual disease is mild; incidence low since vaccine in 1969