Mock 1 Flashcards

(52 cards)

1
Q

Frontal syndromes

A

o Medial prefrontal syndrome poverty of speech, paucity of spontaneous behaviour
o Orbitofrontal : poor impulse control, explosive outburst
o Dorsolateral: executive dysfunction, diminished planning.

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2
Q

Regarding trail making tests

A

trial making B has numbers and letters, A just numbers.

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3
Q

How does TdP present

A

o Torsades does not necessitate collapse. However is rarely asymptomatic.
risk significantly increased above Qtc 500ms

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4
Q

Cube Towers

A

15 months Tower of 2 cubes

18 months Tower of 3-4 cubes

2 years Tower of 6 cubes

3 years Tower of 8-9 cubes

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5
Q

Shapes copying

A

1- scribble
2- line
3- circle
4- square
5 triangle

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6
Q

Dementia drugs MoA:

A

o Donepezil – selective and reversible ACHEI
o Rivastigmine – pseudoirreversible ACHEI, butrylcholinesterase inhibitor
o Galantamine - Nicotinic R modulator, selective and reversible ACHEI
o Memantine - non-competitive NMDAR, 5Ht3 antagonist

only galantamine is COMPETITIVE of the ACHEIs

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7
Q

Antidepressant switching rules

A

tranylcypromine - stop and wait 2 weeks
mecoblomide - stop and wait 24h
Taper TCAs to half and then cross taper
otherwise for the most part cross taper cautiously and start new drug low
switching to mirtazapine just cross taper

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8
Q

Read the question?

A

read the question

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9
Q

abnormal neurological findings and dementia with normal MRI and CSF

A

CJD

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10
Q

Startle response in neurological disease

A

CJD

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11
Q

Underdeveloped area in ASD

A

cerebellar vermis

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12
Q

Brain area in thermal regulation

A

pre-optic area (hypothal)

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13
Q

Which 5HTR is involved in auto-regulation/somatodendritic inhibition and where does this happen?

A

5HT1A (a for autoreceptor) in Raphe N.

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14
Q

5HTRs inhibitory/excitatory?

A

5HT1 - Gi (decrease cAMP) inhibitory
5HT2 - Gq (increase IP3) excitatory
5HT3 - ligand gated ion channel
5HT4 - Gs (increase cAMP) excitatory
5HT5 - Gi (decrease cAMP) inhibitory
5HT6 - Gs (increase cAMP) excitatory
5HT7 Gs (increase cAMP) excitatory

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15
Q

HIV which cell type not infected?

A

neurons

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16
Q

HIV which CNS cell types most infected?

A

macrophage, microglia

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17
Q

Brain perfusion in schizophrenia

A

o Hypoperfusion – frontal lobes, PFC, cingulate gyri, parietal lobes
o Hyperperfusion – cerebellum, brainstem, thalamus

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18
Q

which disease is hypothesised as an absence of cerebral torque? and by whom?

A

psychosis, torque is L-R asymmetry, by Crow

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19
Q

What has a glucocorticoid R antagonist effect?

A

mifepristone

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20
Q

EEG findings in seizure types
Absence
atypical absence
Focal
Myoclonic
generalised TC
Atonic

A

Typical absence (aka petit mal) Generalised 3 Hz spike-wave
Atypical absence Slow (<2.5 Hz) generalized spike-and-wave
Focal (previously known as partial) Focal spikes
Myoclonic Generalized 3-6 Hz polyspike and wave discharge
Generalised tonic-clonic EEG often obscured by artifact (movement). Generalized fast rhythmic spikes are seen in the tonic stage. Bursts of spikes and after-coming slow waves are synchronous with clonic jerks. A postictal period of irregular slow activity follows
Atonic (drop attack) Generalized spike-and-wave is typical, with atonia at the time of the slow wave

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21
Q

Which ion is highest in axon terminal before depolarisation

22
Q

REM in psychiatric disorders?

A

REM latency typically shortened in ALL disorders
medications can ‘suppress’ REM latency meaning longer time to REM and less intense REM
Rebound effects when stopping can be seen

23
Q

myocarditis symptoms

A

fever, chest pain, SOB
do a trop for clozapine (although this is obviously useless and bad medicine)

24
Q

When does NMS present?

A

90% within 10d

25
Valproate malformations
neural tube hypospadias cardiac orofacial (worst of all mood stabilisers for this)
26
what side effect do SSRIs NOT cause?
hypertension
27
what side effects can SSRIs cause?
photosens galactorrhoea akathisia hallucination
28
clozapine risk of seizure?
RR 1.1
29
Which dementia drug does not have hepatic metabolism?
rivastigmine
30
How is rivastigmine broken down?
by cholinesterase
31
Phenelzine is what class? and which disorder does it do particularly well in?
MOAi and social phobia
32
How to reduce lithium tremor?
small, less frequent dose
33
which other mood stabiliser increases toxic effect of lamotrigine?
valproate, inhibits breakdown and increases risk of rash
34
rapid cycling bipolar - how often? what association?
4 episodes of mood disturbance in one year, a/w HYPOthyroid
35
Treatment for Korsakoffs?
SIKE you cant treat it. It is irreversible.
36
Acute intermittent porphyria: inheritance pattern, symptoms, treatment?
AD abdo pain (NOT rash), neuropsychiatric heamin is treatment, avoid low carb diet in longer term
37
what test for personality change after brain injury?
MMPI
38
How many days for mania? Hypomania?
mania - one week hypomania - several days (4 in ICD 10)
39
IQ ranges for LD
Mild 70-50 Mod 49-35 Sev 34-20 Prof <20
40
Which of the 'PD's in DSM is not in ICD PD?
schizotypal - is in schizophrenia section of ICD 10 +11
41
Histrionic PD
Dramatic Self indulgent Shallow Continually seek approval
42
What is incentive salience?
attentional bias toward objects of dead person
43
Formal Thought disorders and characteristics
Asyndesis - lack of causal link derailment - sudden change of topic (train off rails) either partly or unrelated Drivelling - disordered intermixture of constituent parts of complex thought (has part of thoughts without all the glue)
44
what is chaining?
breaking down complex multi-step behaviour into smaller steps which serve as cue for next step
45
hawthorne?
temporary increase in work when observed
46
shown words, shown another list and asked to pick out the first words - what is this?
recognition
47
diffusion or dissolution of responsibility in a crowd when someone needs help?
diffusion
48
most likely to lead to group disintegreation?
equality between members
49
high expressed emotion in schizophrenia
NO difference in male vs female relapse rate over 50% of carers of schz patients have HEE
50
defence mechanism in AN
denial, rationalisation
51
what level of DM is supression?
mature
52