Mock Flashcards by Louise Tyler

vasovagal reaction

Faint

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This structure adheres to the bone surface, it contains osteoblasts and osteoclasts, which form and destroy bone matrix.

Inner (visceral) osteoblastic layer of the periosteum.

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This structure is made of fibrous connective tissue and contains fibroblasts, blood vessels and nerve fibres.

Outer (parietal) layer of the periosteum.

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Which cylindrical structures, consisting of concentric rings (lamellae) of matrix surrounding a central canal are a predominant feature of compact bone?

Osteon.

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These are channels which run through the core of each osteon in order to carry neurovascular structures.

Haversian canals

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In osteology, what channels which run perpendicular (at 90 degrees) to the central canal and connect them to the periosteum?

Volkmann canals

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This bone is harder and denser than spongy bone and forms the tough outer shell (cortex).

Compact bone

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This bone surface is formed by branching and anastomosing bars and plates of osseous tissue. The trabeculae are the main support structure of this bone.

Cancellous bone

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List three types of fracture.

Transverse

Oblique

Greenstick

Compound fracture

crushed fracture

Comminuted fracture

Spiral fracture

Closed fracture

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With reference to the structure of bone, explain what happens when a fracture occurs and how it heals.

Inflammatory / Reactive stage
When the fracture first occurs a blood clot forms around the fracture within the first 24 hours, this causes a large blood clot called a hematoma to form.
Then the necrosed cells that died due to the trauma (break) release cytokines (which are chemical signals) which will start the healing process as it means specialist cells will start to work.
Fibroblasts and chondroblasts begin the granulation process where granulation tissue will replace the hematoma which takes 3-10 days. The granulation tissue is a mesh of cartilage and fibrocartilage.
Osteoclasts will also remove necrotic tissue from bone.
Reparative phase
A soft callus is formed in the granulation phase, and it fills the gaps in the fracture fragments.
After a few weeks, capillaries grow in the soft callus to improve vascularisation and help with healing.
Then osteoblasts at the periosteum lay down soft and unorganized bone that will connect the bits of bone back together. It forms almost like a capsule around the affected area. This is called woven bone.
After this, the hard callus will start to form which is about 2- to 3 weeks after the fracture occurred. This works by the osteoblasts using minerals such as calcium and phosphate to make a hard callus starting at the edges of the soft callus and moving inwards once the outer edges have been filled. The woven bone is last until all the fragments of the fracture are put together by the new bone and this takes about 3-4 months after the fracture.

Bone remodeling phase.
This process can take several years, the hard callus will become a capsule over the fracture site meaning it looks enlarged to the rest of the bone.
The osteoblasts start to rebuild the bone but they do this randomly so in the next stage the osteoclasts remodel the new bone formed.
Over time any woven bone will be made into the lamellar of the bone and the medullary canal will return also.

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Sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses are three types of which joint classification?

Choose the correct answer from the following:
Select one:

a.
Synovial Joints

b.
Fibrous Joints

c.
Cartilaginous Joints

Fibrous Joints

Correct. These joints have very limited or no movement.

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1st carpometacarpal joints are what kind of joint?

a.
Ball and Socket

b.
Hinge

c.
Saddle

d.
Ellipisoid

e.
Plane

f.
Pivot

c. saddle
The articular surfaces are concave and convex and allow a wide range of movements. The 1st carpometacarpal joints are examples.

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1st meta-phalangeal joint is what
a.
Plane

b.
Ball and Socket

c.
Saddle

d.
Hinge

e.
Pivot

f.
Condylar / Ellipisoid

Condylar / Ellipisoid
Otherwise known as condyloid (knuckle-like, not to be mistaken for Condylar). They resemble saddle joints but have less movement.

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What joint is the articulation between the Atlas (C1) and Axis (C2) which also allows uniaxial rotation

Select one:
a.
Ellipisoid

b.
Saddle

c.
Hinge

d.
Ball and Socket

e.
Pivot

f.
Plane

e.
Pivot
Another example of this joint is the articulation between the Atlas (C1) and Axis (C2) which also allows uniaxial rotation.

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The articular surfaces are flat and allow gliding movements. Other examples are the intercarpal and intertarsal joints.
What kind of joint is this?
Select one:

a.
Plane

b.
Ellipisoid

c.
Ball and Socket

d.
Pivot

e.
Saddle

f.
Hinge

Plane

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Which type of synovial joint has been depicted? (1 mark)
Elbow joint?

Select one:
a.
Plane joint

b.
Hinge joint

c.
Pivot

d.
Ellipisoid

e.
Saddle

f.
Ball and Socket

Hinge joint

This joint allows uni-direction movement of flexion and extension only.

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What generic centring point should be used for radiographic examination of the Finger(s)? (1 mark)

Proximal Interphalangeal Joint of the affected digit.

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What centring point is used for an AP projection of the Humerus?

Midway between the Shoulder and Elbow joints.

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What is the correct centring point to use when imaging the Thumb? 1 mark

First metacarpo-phalangeal joint.

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The pharynx sits between C1 and C4

Select one:
True
False

False Correct

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The nose is lined with ciliated columnar epithelium

Select one:
True
False

True Correct

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One of the functions of the pharynx is to warm and humidify air

Select one:
True
False

True Correct

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The trachea divides into 2 at which vertebral level ?

a.
Thoracic vertebra 6

b.
Thoracic vertebra 5

c.
Thoracic vertebra 4

d.
Cervical vertebra 4

Thoracic vertebra 4

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The larynx is composed of 4 cartilages

Select one:
True
False

False - the larynx is composed of 5 cartilages

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Food is prevented from going down the trachea by the epiglottis Select one: True False

True Correct

The larynx sits inferiorly to the hyoid bone Select one: True False

True Correct

The left bronchus is shorter than the right one Select one: True False

False Correct

The intercostal muscles are found between the ribs Select one: True False

True

Fibrotic changes in the lungs have no affect on their compliance Select one: True False

False

The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm at T10 Select one: True False

True Correct

The stomach is a retroperitoneal structure Select one: True False

False

Your parotid salivary gland in found under your tongue Select one: True False

False | it sits in your cheek in front of your ear

Intrinsic factor combines with Vitamin B1 Select one: True False

False | its Vitamin B12

The muscularis consists of circular muscle fibres only Select one: True False

False it also has longitudinal fibres too

The pyloric sphincter sits in the superior part of the stomach Select one: True False

The pyloric sphincter sits in the superior part of the stomach Select one: False It sits in the distal part of the stomach

The epiglottis seals off the oesophagus when swallowing Select one: True False

Select one: False it seal off the trachea

The GI tract is lined with squamous cells Select one: True False

The GI tract is lined with squamous cells Select one: False

Chyme is found in the small intestine Select one: True False

Chyme is found in the small intestine Select one: False its found in the stomach

Gastric pits are found in the stomach Select one: True False

True

Salivary amylase is used in the digestion of proteins Select one: True False

Salivary amylase is used in the digestion of proteins Select one: False -its for the digestion of starch

The stomach sits superiorly to the transverse colon Select one: True False

True

The GI tract consists of 3 layers Select one: True False

The GI tract consists of 3 layers Select one: False there are 4

The peritoneum is the largest serous membrane of the body Select one: True False

The peritoneum is the largest serous membrane of the body Select one: True

The movement of food through the GI tract is via a process called peristalsis Select one: True False

The movement of food through the GI tract is via a process called peristalsis Select one: True Correct

The sphincter of Oddi is found in the stomach Select one: True False

The sphincter of Oddi is found in the stomach Select one: False -well done. Its found in the duodenum

Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by sulphuric acid Select one: True False

False

The stomach sits in the right hypochondriac region Select one: True False

The stomach sits in the right hypochondriac region Select one: False

The Oesophagus sits to the right of the sternum Select one: True False

False

The correct description for a very slim person is mesomorph Select one: True False

The correct description for a very slim person is mesomorph Select one: False Correct

Secretions from the pancreas entry the GI tract via the hepatopancreatic ampulla Select one: True False

Secretions from the pancreas entry the GI tract via the hepatopancreatic ampulla Select one: True

The tongue is supplied by the lobular artery Select one: True False

The tongue is supplied by the lobular artery Select one: False the correct answer is The Lingual artery

The lining of the stomach lies in large folds called haustra Select one: True False

False | They are called rugae

The Oropharynx sits superior to the laryngopharynx Select one: True False

True Correct

The papillae is the correct anatomical name for the taste buds Select one: True False

The papillae is the correct anatomical name for the taste buds Select one: True Correct

The parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal wall Select one: True False

The parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal wall Select one: True Correct

Bile salts are absorbed in the jejunum Select one: True False

Bile salts are absorbed in the jejunum Select one: False Correct

The appendix is full of good bacteria Select one: True False

The appendix is full of good bacteria Select one: True Correct

The plicae circulares slows down the passage of food Select one: True False

The plicae circulares slows down the passage of food Select one: True Correct

Haustrations are found in the large bowel Select one: True False

Haustrations are found in the large bowel Select one: True Correct

The caecum is found in the epigastric region Select one: True False

The caecum is found in the epigastric region Select one: False Correct

Pancreatic juice contain lipase Select one: True False

Pancreatic juice contain lipase Select one: True Correct

The ascending colon is a retroperitoneal structure Select one: True False

The ascending colon is a retroperitoneal structure Select one: True Correct

Peyer's patches are found in the duodenum Select one: True False

Peyer's patches are found in the duodenum Select one: False

The ascending colon is supplied by branches of the Superior Mesenteric Artery Select one: True False

The ascending colon is supplied by branches of the Superior Mesenteric Artery Select one: True Correct

The iliac forms parts of the small intestine Select one: True False

The iliac forms parts of the small intestine Select one: False its the ileum

Finger like projections in the wall of the bowel are called villi Select one: True False

Finger like projections in the wall of the bowel are called villi Select one: True

The rectum sits at the Level of L2 Select one: True False

The rectum sits at the Level of L2 Select one: False Correct Correct -the rectum sits at the Level of S3

The hepatic flexure is found between the descending and transverse portions of the colon Select one: True False

False

All of the duodenum is intraperitoneal Select one: True False

All of the duodenum is intraperitoneal Select one: False

The scapula has a coronoid process Select one: True False

False Feedback No, its a corocoid process

The function of the glenoid labrum is to provide stability for the shoulder joint Select one: True False

True

The clavicle has a conoid tubercle Select one: True False

True

The acromio - clavicular joint is a synovial saddle joint Select one: True False

False

The sterno clavicular joint is a synovial saddle joint Select one: True False

False

The clavicle articulates with the corocoid Select one: True False

False | No, it articulates with the acromion and the sternum

The subscapular fossa is on the anterior surface of the scapula Select one: True False

True

The liver weighs between 1 -2.3 kg Select one: True False

True

The majority of the liver sits in the left hypochondriac region Select one: True False

The majority of the liver sits in the left hypochondriac region Select one: False No, this in not correct. The majority of the liver sits in the RIGHT hypochondriac region

The liver sits anterior to the oesophagus Select one: True False

True

The liver sits above the right adrenal gland Select one: True False

True

The quadrate lobe is the smallest lobe of the liver Select one: True False

The quadrate lobe is the smallest lobe of the liver Select one: False its the caudate

The portal fissure is where the blood vessels and nerve fibres enter and leave the liver Select one: True False

True

A blood vessel with an incomplete wall is called a capillary Select one: True False

A blood vessel with an incomplete wall is called a capillary Select one: False its a sinusoid

Cholesterol is found in bile Select one: True False

True

Bile is needed to digest protein Select one: True False

False

Jaundice is caused by excess bilirubin Select one: True False

True

Microbes in the large intestine convert Bilirubin to glucuronic acid Select one: True False

False

The cystic duct empties at the Ampulla of Vater Select one: True False

True

The gall bladder is an intraperitoneal structure. Select one: True False

False

The stomach is posterior to the gall bladder Select one: True False

True

The gall bladder makes bile Select one: True False

False

The pancreas gets some of it blood supply from the splenic artery Select one: True False

True

The pancreas consists of a head, neck and body Select one: True False

The pancreas consists of a head, neck and body False its head, body and tail

Hepatocytes are cuboidal cells Select one: True False

True

Kupffer cells are found in the gall bladder Select one: True False

Kupffer cells are found in the gall bladder Select one: False they are found in the liver

Vitamin D is stored in the liver Select one: True False

True

The common hepatic duct is formed by the right and left hepatic duct and the cystic duct. Select one: True False

The common hepatic duct is formed by the right and left hepatic duct and the cystic duct. Select one: False its just the right and left hepatic duct

The pancreas is both an exocrine and endocrine gland Select one: True False

True

The Islets of Langerhans produce insulin Select one: True False

True

The ischium forms part of the acetabulum Select one: True False

True

The obturator foramen is found in the a. Ischium bone b. Pubic bone c. Ilium bone

b. | Pubic bone

When comparing the female bony pelvis to the male, which of the following are true a. The female pelvis has a wider pubic arch b. The female pelvis has less prominent ischial spines c. The female pelvis has a longer sacrum d. The female pelvis has larger obturator foramen e. a and b only f. All of the above

e. | a and b only

The sacroiliac joints are a. synovial saddle joints b. Plane joints c. Synovial plane joints

c. | Synovial plane joints

Where the pubic bones join, a synovial symphysis is created Select one: True False

False | its a cartilaginous symphysis

The ischium can also be called the ala Select one: True False

False | its is the ilium

When x-raying a lateral femur, the femoral condyles must be a. equidistant from each other b. superimposed c. equidistant from the table top

superimposed

A patient comes for an x-ray of their pelvis following an accident. There left hip is painful. What projections would you do? a. AP pelvis only b. AP hips and turned lateral left hip c. AP hips and horizontal beam lateral left hip d. AP pelvis and horizontal beam lateral left hip e. AP pelvis and turned lateral left hip

d. | AP pelvis and horizontal beam lateral left hip

When positioning a patient for AP Pelvis, their ASIS must be superimposed Select one: True False

False

When undertaking an AP projection of the pelvis, internally rotating the patients legs, brings the greater trochanter closer to the Image Receptor Select one: True False

False | No, it brings it further away, but into profile, so we can see it better

For an AP projection of the pelvis, I would centre over the symphysis pubis, in the midline Select one: True False

For an AP projection of the pelvis, I would centre over the symphysis pubis, in the midline Select one: False its 5cm above the symphysis pubis

The centring point for an AP projection of the pelvis is a. on the symphysis pubis b. 5cm above the symphysis pubis in the mid line c. on the symphysis pubis in the midline d. in the middle of the image receptor e. 5 cm above the symphysis pubis

b. | 5cm above the symphysis pubis in the mid line

You need to undertake an AP projection of a left hip - which AED chamber do you select? a. the right hand one b. the middle one c. All 3 d. the left hand one

b. | the middle one

Which projection best demonstrates a SUFE? a. A turned lateral of the affected side b. An AP both hips c. A turned lateral of the unaffected side d. A frog lateral

d. | A frog lateral

When x-raying sacroiliac joints ad the patient is lying prone, you need to angle the x-ray tube cranially Select one: True False

False

Lumbar vertebrae have a. heart shaped bodies b. kidney shaped bodies c. circular shaped bodies d. oval shaped bodies

b. | kidney shaped bodies

Facet joints are an example of a a. synovial plane joint b. synovial condylar joint c. synovial saddle joint d. synovial hinge joint

synovial plane joint

C1 is also know as the atlas Select one: True False

True

Bifid spinous processes are only found in the thoracic region Select one: True False

False

The odontoid peg is flattened on its posterior surface because... a. it articulates with the transverse ligament b. it articulates with the atlas c. it articulates with the skull d. it articulates with the coronal ligament

it articulates with the transverse ligament

Costal articular facets are found a. on the transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae b. on the spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae c. on the transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae d. on the spinous processes of lumbar vertebrae

on the transverse processes of thoracic vertebrae

The spinous processes on thoracic vertebrae are described as a. short and straight b. long and sloping c. short and sloping d. long and straight

b. | long and sloping

Cervical vertebrae have.... a. round bodies and triangular vertebral foramen b. heart shaped bodies and triangular vertebral foramen c. oval bodies and round vertebral foramen d. oval bodies and triangular vertebral foramen

oval bodies and triangular vertebral foramen

The C1 - Occiput joint is an example of a. a synovial plane joint b. a synovial pivot joint c. a synovial condylar joint d. a synovial saddle joint

a synovial condylar joint

The anatomical relations of the vagina are a. bladder, rectum, ovary and cervix b. bladder, rectum, anus and small bowel c. bladder, rectum, anus and cervix d. bladder, rectum, ureter and cervix

bladder, rectum, anus and cervix

The uterus is divided into a. fundus, cervix and neck b. neck, body and cervix c. fundus, body and cervix d. fundus, body and neck

c. | fundus, body and cervix

The Pouch of Douglas sits a. anterior to the uterus b. inferior to the uterus c. posterior to the uterus d. superior to the uterus

posterior to the uterus

The inner layer of the uterus is called the myometrium Select one: True False

False

The seminiferous tubules and made up of a. columnated epithelial cells b. germinal epithelial cells c. cilliated epithelial cells d. stirated epithelial cell

germinal epithelial cells

The testicular artery arises off the aorta... a. just before the aorta divides in the pelvis b. just above the renal arteries c. just below the inferior mesenteric artery d. just below the renal arteries

d. | just below the renal arteries

The ejaculatory duct is formed from... a. the deferent duct and the seminal vesicle duct b. the deferent duct and the prostrate duct c. the efferent duct and the seminal vesicle duct d. the prostrate duct and the seminal vesicle duct

a. | the deferent duct and the seminal vesicle duct

The finger like projections at the end of the fallopian tubes are called a. villa b. fimbra c. fimbriae d. villi

c. | fimbriae

The ovum moves in to the uterus by a. peristalsis b. ciliary movement c. ciliary movement and peristalsis

c. | ciliary movement and peristalsis

The cortex of an ovary is covered in fimbriae Select one: True False

False

A maturing follicle is called a a. Graafian follicle b. Primary follicle c. Germinal follicle d. Luteal follicle

a. | Graafian follicle

Each half of the scrotum contains a. 1 testis, 1 deferent duct and 1 spermatic cord b. 1 testis, 1 epididymis and 1 spermatic cord c. 1 testis, 1 afferent duct and 1 spermatic cord d. 1 testis, 1 epididymis and 1 deferent duct

b. | 1 testis, 1 epididymis and 1 spermatic cord

The testes consists of 3 layers of tissue. The tunica vaginalis, the tunica albuginea and the tunica intima Select one: True False

False

The seminiferous tubules join together to form the a. testes b. seminal vesicle c. epididymis d. spermatic cord

c. | epididymis

The penis consists of 3 cylindrical masses of erectile tissue, 2 of which are called the corpora cavernosa Select one: True False

True

Which one of the following is NOT an anatomical relation of the Right Kidney? a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Liver d. Right Adrenal Gland

b. | Jejunum

The closed end of a nephron is called a. The glomerulus b. the convoluted tubule c. the glomerular capsule

c. | the glomerular capsule

The pointed end of a renal pyramid is called the papilla Select one: True False

True

The ureters are a retroperitoneal structure Select one: True False

True

The ureters are continuous with a. The Loop of Henle b. The renal pelvis c. The renal cortex d. The renal medulla

b. | The renal pelvis

The bladder has 3 openings, together they are called a. The tri cysts b. The triangle c. The trigone d. The tri foramen

c. | The trigone

Rugae can be found in a. The stomach b. The urinary bladder c. The small intestine d. a and b e. a, b and c

d. a and b a. The stomach b. The urinary bladder

The kidneys secrete erythropoietin Select one: True False

True

In the kidneys, the efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter because.... a. It allows the cells to move out easier b. its small structure, so there is not much room c. it stops the red blood cells from leaving d. It increases the pressure to drive filtration

d. | It increases the pressure to drive filtration

The glomerular filtration rate for an adult is a. 125l/min b. 125ml/min c. 125mm/min d. 125cl/min

b. | 125ml/min

Selective reabsorption takes place in a. Distal convoluted tubule b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. renal pelvis d. Loop of Henle

b. | Proximal convoluted tubule

Which of the following are selectively reabsorbed, within the kidney, as part of the production of urine a. water b. electrolytes c. amino acids d. all of the above

d. | all of the above

Atrial natriuretic peptide increases the absorption of sodium Select one: True False

False

In what order do the following processes occur within the kidney a. filtration, tubular reabsorption, selective secretion b. tubular secretion, filtration, selective reabsorption c. selective reabsorption, tubular secretion, filtration d. filtration, selective reabsorption, tubular secretion

d. | filtration, selective reabsorption, tubular secretion

The hormones regulating blood calcium levels are Select one: a. parathyroid hormone and calcitonin b. glycogen and parathyroid hormone. c. oestrogen and progesterone d. insulin and glucagon.

a. | parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

Which of the following organs is NOT part of the endocrine system: a. Kidney b. Thyroid Gland c. Spleen d. Pituitary Gland e. Pancreas

Spleen

``` Match the following hormones to the organs where they are produced: Organs Pancreas Thymus Pineal Gland Adrenal Gland ``` ``` Hormones Insulin Thymopoietin Aldosterone Melatonin ```

The correct answer is: Pancreas → Insulin, Thymus → Thymopoietin, Pineal Gland → Melatonin, Adrenal Gland → Aldosterone

Hashimoto's disease is caused by: a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hypnothyroidism

Hypothyroidism

Glucagon function Select one: a. decreases the conversion of glycogen into glucose. b. accelerates the conversion of glycogen into glucose. c. slows down glucose formation from lactic acid. d. speeds up protein synthesis within cells.

b. | accelerates the conversion of glycogen into glucose.

The gland which can be classified as an endocrine and an exocrine gland is the Select one: a. pituitary. b. thyroid. c. pancreas. d. thymus.

c. | pancreas.

Hormones of the exocrine system are delivered directly into the blood steam. Select one: True False

False

The parathyroid is reponsible for: a. Increasing cortisol levels b. The regulation of hormone secretion within the endocrine system c. Helping regulate blood glucose levels d. Helping regulate blood calcium levels

d. | Helping regulate blood calcium levels

Gastrin and cholocystokinin are examples of exocrine hormones. Select one: True False

True

Glucogon and Insulin are produced in the pancreas. What is the name of the specialist cells?

Islets of Langerhans