mock corrections Flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

failed medical management of acute pulmonary oedema?

A

CPAP airway

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2
Q

vitreous detachment , RF’s and presentation

A

RF’s include diabetes, bleeding disorders
presentation can be with numerous dark spots or floaters in vision if the bleed is smaller

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3
Q

mnemonic for Wernicke’s

A

Confusion
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Ophthamoplegia
PEripheral
Neuropathy

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4
Q

trans-tentorial herniation

A

fixed and dilated pupil with down and out gaze
decreasing consciousness level and intercranial mass

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5
Q

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation

A

Cerebellar tonsillar herniation affects the medulla oblongata and is often a terminal event in an unconscious patient resulting in asystolic cardio-respiratory arrest

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6
Q

when is elective endovascular aneurysm repair recommended for AAA

A

asymptomatic > 5.5
enlarging by > 1cm/ year

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7
Q

loop ileostomy

A

used in the defunctioning of the colon e.g. following rectal cancer surgery in RIF

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8
Q

loop colostomy

A

to defunction distal segment of colon

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9
Q

most easily reversible stoma

A

loop ileostomy

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10
Q

complications of cholecystectomy

A

gallstones
common bile duct injury which presents within the first few days after surgery due to inflammation and scarring

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11
Q

neurogenic shock

A

following spinal cord transection interrupting the autonomic nervous system resulting in either decreased/ increased parasympathetic tone

presents with low hr, flushed peripheries

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12
Q

_____________ is a contraindication to circumcision in infancy as the foreskin is used in the repair

A

hypospadias

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13
Q

. A confirmed miscarriage can be diagnosed on ultrasound if there is no cardiac activity and:

A

The crown-rump length is greater than 7mm OR
The gestational sack is greater than 25mm

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14
Q

prophylaxis of sinusitis

A

intranasal decongestants

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15
Q

________can be used to assess the presence of fluid in the abdomen and thorax

A

FAST scan

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16
Q

Thyrotoxic storm is treated with

A

beta blockers, propylthiouracil and hydrocortisone

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17
Q

Suspected PE in pregnant women with a confirmed DVT:

A

treat with LMWH first then investigate to rule in/out

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18
Q

The following drugs may cause urinary retention:

A

tricyclic antidepressants e.g. amitriptyline
anticholinergics e.g. antipsychotics, antihistamines
opioids
NSAIDs
disopyramide

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19
Q

8 reversible causes of cardiac arrest

A

Hypothermia
Hypoxia
Hypovolaemia
Hypokalaemia / hyperkalaemia / hypoglycaemia
Tension pneumothorax
Toxins
Tamponade
Thrombosis

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20
Q

investigations for erectile dysfunction

A

free testosterone in the morning between 9-11 am

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21
Q

Patient >= 60 years old with new iron-deficiency anaemia →

A

FIT testing before colonoscopy

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22
Q

clinical signs is most strongly suggestive of a diagnosis of acute compartment syndrome

A

pain on passive ankle dorsiflexion

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23
Q

s the intervention of choice in patients with malignant distal obstructive jaundice due to unresectable pancreatic carcinoma

A

biliary stenting

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24
Q

anterior uveitis management

A

steroid eye drops with mydriatic eye drops

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25
complication of rapid hyponatraemia correction
central pontine myelinosis
26
complication of rapid hypernatraemia correction
cerebral oedema
27
investigation required before starting anti TNF's
CXR
28
side effects of PPI's
hyponatraemia, hypomagnasaemia osteoporosis → increased risk of fractures microscopic colitis increased risk of C. difficile infections
29
how should human bites and animal bites betreated
co-amoxiclav
30
Whilst a patient is receiving PCA opioids what other medications should be stopped
all other opioids
31
what supplements should be prescribed to the mums of babies with CMPI
calcium and vitamin D
32
management of massive PE
IV heparin
33
life expectancy currently
82 years
34
suspected septic arthritis - negative gram stain
start iv abx
35
what is recommended in the work up for inflammatory bowel disease
stool culture
36
when should activated charcoal be considered in an overdose
1st one hour
37
best investigation to assess acute abdomen post surgery
CT abdomen
38
how to confirm norovirus
viral PCR
39
What is the aim of the cervical cancer screening programme?
screen for HPV- abnormal cells indicative of pre-invasive dyskaryosis
40
Name three blood tests that would be requested as part of confusion screen
FBC - CRP/ESR - Folate - B12 - U&Es - HbA1c - Calcium - LFTs - TFTs
41
why is a repeat CXR recommended in mx of pneumonia in older persons
check for malignancy
42
genetic mutation of the Philadelphia chromosome?
Translocation of chromosomes 9 and 22
43
Apart from the Philadelphia chromosome, what other chromosomal abnormality predisposes children to this form of leukaemia?
Trisomy 21
44
Name 2 options that can be offered for definitive management of hyperthyroidism
Radioiodine therapy Thyroidectomy
45
Which zone of the prostate is primarily affected in prostate cancer?
Peripheral zone
46
What imaging is used as the first-line investigation for suspected prostate cancer?
Multiparametric MRI
47
Prostate cancer is diagnosed through biopsies of prostatic tissue, which are used to calculate a ‘Gleason score’. How is the Gleason score calculated?
The two most common tumour patterns across all samples are graded based on their differentiation The sum of the two grades is the Gleason score
48
role of tolvaptan in PKD
reduces the growth rate of cysts
49
cause of low Hb in CKD
Anaemia of chronic disease due to reduced EPO production
50
Name the most common cause of chronic kidney disease in the UK
T2DM
51
Parkland formula for burns
4ml x body weight (kg) x total body surface area affected (%)
52
What effect does carbon monoxide have on the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve and how does this cause symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning?
carbon dioxide = greater affinity for Hb than O2 so it binds to O2 curve shifts from right to left, which makes Hb hold on to oxygen more causing hypoxia
53
direct inguinal hernia
bowel enters the inguinal canal directly through weakness in posterior wall
54
indirect hernia
bowel enters inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring
55
which hernia is most commonly seen in infants and why
indirect inguinal hernia due to a patent processus vaginalis
56
which nerve is damaged intra-operatively in hernia surgery
ilioinguinal
57
What is the difference between the terms ‘oligoarthritis’ and ‘polyarthritis’?
Oligoarthritis affects 4 or fewer / affects 2-4 joints In polyarthritis, more than 4 joints are involved
58
which serological markers are used in hep B screening
HBsAg and anti HBc
59
which marker gives a count of viral load
hepatitis B virus DNA
60
what is injected in hep B vaccine
HBsAg - hep B surface antigen
61
which hep B serological marker indicates immunity post vaccination
Anti HBs - hepatitis B surface antibody
62
what forms of hepatitis can be vaccinated against -
Hep A
63
dog bite prophylaxis
co-amoxiclav
64
trachea pulled towards the white out
pneumonectomy complete lung collapse pulmonary hypoplasia
65
class of drugs useful in overactive bladder
antimuscarinics
66
no jaundice - bile stones which duct
cystic duct
67
PPROM which steroid
dexamethasone
68
symptoms of mania in primary care
refer urgently to primary care
69
indications for thoracotomy in haemothorax
> 1.5 L blood loss losses of > 200 ml / hour for 2 hours
70
agonal breathing
can occur in the first few minutes after a cardiac arrest
71
woman with bone metastases- origin
breast
72
Most common tumour causing bone metastases
prostate breast lung
73
side effects of heparins
heparin induced thrombocytopenia
74
which medications can precipitate digoxin toxicity
thiazide diuretics
75
Patients with long saphenous vein superficial thrombophlebitis should have
ultrasound to exclude DVT
76
_________is usually indicated in patients with acute, severe, symptomatic hyponatraemia (< 120 mmol/L)
Hypertonic
77
codeine to morphine
divide by 10
78
hpw is hydrocortisone given in Addisons
split with majority in 1st half of the day
79