Mock Exam Flashcards by Laura Kirwan

Which of these lab tests may indicate bleeding or blood loss? (choose all correct)

Platelet count

Hemoglobin

Hematocrit

WBC count

Hemoglobin

Hematocrit

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Acquiring an infectious agent through the hospital ventilation system is what kind of transmission?

Direct Contact

In-direct Contact

Droplet

Airborne

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What is the minimum amount of iodinated contrast that may induce an allergic reaction?

>1 ml

10 ml

1% of the patient’s total blood volume

>1 ml

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Which of the following are clinical signs of anaphylaxis? (Choose all correct)

Vasoconstriction

Hypertension

Airway edema

Mucus secretions

Airway edema

Mucus secretions

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Which of these procedures is also called clean technique? Medical Asepsis

Sterile Technique

Medical Asepsis

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What is the iodinated contrast agents with these chemical properties.

Ionic, 300 mgl/mL, Osmolality = 1550

Hypaque

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What is the iodinated contrast agents with these chemical properties.

Non-ionic, 320 mgI/mL, Osmolality=290

Visipaque

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What is the iodinated contrast agents with these chemical properties.

Non-ionic, 350 mgI/mL, Osmolality=884

Omnipaque

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Pneumonia requires what kind of isolation precaution? Standard Precaution

Contact Isolation

Droplet Isolation

Airborne Isolation

Droplet Isolation

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Disrupting the body’s electrolyte balance is one risk associated with using which of the following contrast types for IV infusion? Ionic

Hypertonic

Non-ionic

High osmolar

Ionic

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What type of isolation precaution is most relevant when infectious agents can be suspended in air for long periods of time over long distances?

Standard Precaution

Droplet Isolation

Contact Isolation

Airborne Isolation

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Which of the following represents a normal pulse rate for a healthy adult? (choose all correct)

105

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Which of these medication would be valuable to a patient experiencing hypotension or bradycardia during a medication reaction? (Choose all correct)

Benedryl

Atropine

Epinephrine

Versed

Atropine

Epinephrine

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Which of these procedures include hand washing, routine equipment cleaning, and proper personal hygiene?

Medical Asepsis

Sterile Technique

Medical Asepsis

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Which of the following represents the amount red blood cells in whole blood? (choose all correct)

WBC count

Hemoglobin

Hematocrit

Platelet count

Hematocrit

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Which of these lab tests may help to indicate if a patient has anemia? (choose all correct)

Hemoglobin

Hematocrit

PTT

Platelet count

Hemoglobin

Hematocrit

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Which of these compensatory mechanisms are associated with CHF? (Choose all correct)

Decreased heart rate

Increased blood volume

Increased cardiac filling pressure

Decrease myocardial mass

Increased blood volume

Increased cardiac filling pressure

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Definition of Duration of Action

The time during which the drug is in the body and elicits a therapeutic response

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Definition of First Pass Effect

The metabolization of drugs by the liver prior to systemic circulation.

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Definition of Onset of Action

The point at which a drug reaches its intended effect

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Definition of Maximum Peak

This is when a drug reaches its highest potential and begins to subside

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Which of the following indicate a mild contrast reaction? (Choose all correct)

Hives

Itching

Tachycardia

Hypotension

Feeling of warmth

Hives

Itching

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What drug classification is Valium

Sedative

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What drug classification is Tetracycline

Antibiotic

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What drug classification is Coumadin

Anticoagulant

What drug classification is Aspirin

Analgesic

What drug classification is Morphine

Narcotic

What drug classification is Atenolol

beta blocker

Which of the following signs/symptoms are often associated with CVA? (Choose all correct) Acute Dysphasia Permanent brain infarction Acute confusion Unilateral weakness

All of the above

Defibrillation is used for which of the following conditions? Ventricular Tachycardia TIA/CVA Respiratory Arrest Asystole

Ventricular Tachycardia Asystole

Deoxygenated blood is emptied into which chamber of the heart? Right Ventricle Left Atrium Left Ventricle Right Atrium

Right Atrium

The thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, and the epiglottis are all structures of the: Trachea Larynx Oropharynx Esophagus

Larynx

Which of the following marks the beginning of the distal stomach? Fundus Cardia Pylorus Antrum

Antrum

The appendix extends from what portion of the colon? Transverse colon Descending colon Ascending colon Cecum

Cecum

Which of the following is the most superior aspect of the stomach? Pylorus Cardia Antrum Fundus

Fundus

The parotid glands are oriented posterior to what aspect of the mandible? Body Ramus Mentum None of the above

Ramus

Which of the following vessels circulate blood from the Circle of Willis into the brain? Cerebral arteries Communicating arteries Internal carotids Basilar artery

Cerebral arteries

The crus, covering the aorta, are an extension of what structure? Diaphragm Lungs IVC Peritoneum

Diaphragm

Most of the Stomach is located within which quadrant of the abdomen? RLQ LUQ RUQ LLQ

LUQ

Which aspect of the sternum is visualized on an axial image displaying the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum? Manubrium Any of the above Body Xiphoid process

Manubrium

Which of the following describes the most anterior structure of the female pelvis? Uterus Bladder Rectum Prostate

Bladder

What term describes the last segment of the GI tract? Descending colon Sigmoid colon Anus Rectum

Rectum

Which of the following structures marks the transition of the larynx into the trachea? Epiglottis Cricoid cartilage Thyroid cartilage Soft palate

Cricoid cartilage

The optic nerve and the ophthalmic artery pass through the optic canals in which cranial bone? Ethmoid Sphenoid Occipital Parietal

Sphenoid

Which of the following is used a as landmark dividing the abdominal and pelvic cavities? Lateral masses Sacral Foramina Sacral promontory Sacral hiatus

Sacral promontory

The SB receives arterial blood from what branch of the aorta? IMA All of the above Celiac Trunk SMA

SMA

Which of the following organs helps to produce antibodies? Spleen Kidneys Pancreas Liver

Spleen

T/F: The fluid-filled outer ring of the intervertebral discs is termed the nucleus pulpous.

False

Which of the following defines the anterior border of the pelvis? Iliac bones Abdominal muscles Sacral Prominens Quadratus lumborum

Abdominal muscles

The foramen ovale provides passage for which of the following? Maxillary Nerve Optic Nerve Middle meningeal artery Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

Which of the following is least likely to be identified in the pelvis? Duodenum Jejunum Cecum Ileum

Duodenum

Which of the following is also known as the ala? Sacral promontory Sacral hiatus Lateral masses Sacral Foramina

Lateral masses

The middle and inner ear are formed by which portion of the temporal bones? Tympanic Mastoid Squamous Petrous

Petrous

The most anterior bone of the pelvic bone is the: Ischium Pubis Ilium

Pubis

The confluence of the common iliac veins forms which of the following? Internal iliac arteries Common femoral arteries Common iliac arteries IVC

IVC

The perpendicular plate articulates with which bone to form the boney nasal septum? Sphenoid Vomer Occipital Ethmoid

Vomer

Which of the following is the chief venous pathway of the trunk and lower body? IVC Azygos vein Left brachiocephalic vein Right brachiocephalic vein

IVC

T/F: All vertebrae of the cervical spine share the same characteristic features.

False

Which vertebral ligament covers the dorsal surface of the vertebral bodies of the spine? Anterior longitudinal ligament Posterior longitudinal ligament Ligamentum flavum Interspinous ligament

Posterior longitudinal ligament

The spine is nearest what surface of the body? Anterior Dorsal Ventral Rostral

Dorsal

Which of the following is the most posterior structure in the male pelvis? Uterus Rectum Prostate Iliac muscles

Rectum

The lobes of the cerebellum are connected medially by which of the following structures? Insula Midbrain Corpus Callosum Vermis

Vermis

Which of the following is accessed and injected with contrast for a myelogram? None of the above Central canal Subarachnoid space Subdural space

Subarachnoid space

Which of the following may be found below and behind the urinary bladder? Rectum Prostate Iliac muscles Uterus

Prostate

Which of the following correctly describes the appearance of gastric cancer in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct) focal wall thickening with mucosal irregularity wall thickening with loss of normal rugal folding pattern focal mass/polyp with or without ulceration gas-filled ulceration

All of the above

Which of the following describes the appearance of uterine fibroids in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct) Solid Calcified Cystic Variable size

Solid Calcified Variable size

Which of the following are common causes of renal stones? (Choose all correct) recurrent yeast infections low fluid intake metabolic abnormalities dehydration

low fluid intake metabolic abnormalities dehydration

Pulmonary Fibrosis is a severe form of which of these conditions? Tuberculosis COPD Bronchogenic Carcinoma Interstitial Lung Disease

Interstitial Lung Disease

Pancreatic cancers primarily affect what aspect of the pancreas? Uncinate process Body Tail Head

Head

Which of these conditions is imaged as progressive scarring of the lung tissue? Pneumothorax Interstitial Lung Disease Hemothorax COPD

Interstitial Lung Disease

T/F: Imaging studies alone always allow for differentiation between benign and malignant neoplasms.

False

Which of these injuries can sometime be associated with more serious injuries to the ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses? Blow-out fractures Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures Nasal fractures LeFort fractures

Nasal fractures

Which of these lesions grows from the Schwann cell’s of the 8th cranial nerve? Pituitary adenoma Medulloblastoma Astrocytoma Meningiomas Acoustic Neuromas

Acoustic Neuromas

What is the most common primary brain tumor? Astrocytoma Medulloblastoma Meningiomas Acoustic Neuroma Pituitary adenoma

Astrocytoma

Which of these fractures may result in injury to the maxillary sinus? (choose all correct) Blow-out fractures Mandibular fracture Nasal fractures Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures

Blow-out fractures Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures

Which of the following statements are true concerning imaging of the spleen? (Choose all correct) Malignant splenic lesions may appear as single or multi-focal Patchy contrast enhancement during arterial imaging indicates splenic infarct or laceration During the venous phase of contrast enhancement the spleen should appear homogenous

Malignant splenic lesions may appear as single or multi-focal During the venous phase of contrast enhancement the spleen should appear homogenous

Which of the following is a kind of organ infarct? (Choose all correct) MI TIA/CVA Malignancy Ascites

MI TIA/CVA

Which of the following statements are true concerning imaging of Crohn’s disease? (Choose all correct) May affect the mesentery Imaged primarily as large bowel thickening Shows chronic inflammation without remission May be associate with abscess

May affect the mesentery May be associate with abscess

Which of these conditions is a result of infection in the brain? (Choose all correct) Meningitis Encephalitis Brain abscess ICB

Meningitis Encephalitis Brain abscess

Which of these fractures is comparable to a green stick fracture in long bones? Ping-pong fracture Diastatic fracture Basilar skull fracture Depressed skull fracture

Ping-pong fracture

Which of these conditions are most likely to be associated with changes in cardiac function? (choose all correct) MI Pericardial effusion Myxoma CHF

MI Pericardial effusion CHF

T/F: Hemangiomas appear only in the liver.

False

Which of these are common causes of liver cirrhosis? (Choose all correct) Alcoholism Pancreatitis Hepatitis Renal failure

Alcoholism Hepatitis

Which of these conditions is most likely to metastasize? Uterine leiomyoma Wilm’s tumor BPH Urolithiasis

Wilm’s tumor

Which of the following are imaging indications of organ laceration? (Choose all correct) Contrast extravasation in or around the organ Hematoma in the area of the organ Limited or absence of contrast perfusion through the organ Atypical contrast perfusion through the organ

All of the above

Which of the following describes the early-stage appearance of endometrial cancer? necrosis loculations hemorrhage wall thickening

wall thickening

Which of these terms specifically describes a cancerous tumor? Neoplasm Benign Abscess Malignant

Malignant

T/F: Careful timing of post contrast pituitary scans is important because eventually the pituitary gland enhances itself, as well as a microadenoma, if present.

True

T/F: Contrast is routinely used in the cervical spine for patients with a diagnosis of MS.

True

T/F: Toe movement will not affect MR foot image quality.

False

T/F: Spinal schwannomas arise from nerves within the spinal canal.

True

T/F: MR knee arthrography can be useful to identify recurrent tears in the knee following meniscectomy.

True

Which of the following describes a typical injury pattern observed after a posterior glenohumeral dislocation? Hill-Sachs lesion Adhesive capulitis Paralabral joint cyst Trough lesion

Trough lesion

T/F: There are five ventricles in the brain.

False

CNR between pathology and other structures can best be demonstrated by which of the following? Suppression of normal tissues via sequences that null signal from certain tissues (i.e. FLAIR, STIR) Non-contrast studies Lower field strength magnets Utilizing T1 sequences

Suppression of normal tissues via sequences that null signal from certain tissues (i.e. FLAIR, STIR)

Which of the following is considered the most common cause of PAD? Shiny skin on legs No pulse or weak pulse in the legs or feet Leg numbness or weakness Atherosclerosis

Atherosclerosis

T/F: Chemical shift artifact occurs when anatomy that lies within the boundaries of the receiver coil exists outside the FOV.

False

Spatial resolution may be increased by selecting which of the following? Thin Slices Coarse matrices Thick slices A large FOV

Thin Slices

T/F: False aneurysms are usually the result of knee trauma, surgery/intervention or infection.

True

T/F: Closed and open mouth views are performed for TMJs.

True

T/F: The choice of coil for any examination is one of the most important factors that determines the resultant SNR of the image.

True

T/F: Scar tissue enhances immediately after the injection, but disc material does not.

True

To minimize aliasing in axial slices of the thoracic spine, one would use: Breath holds Saturation pulses Chemical presaturation Oversampling

Oversampling

T/F: If a patient has had a hysterectomy, axials and coronals would be straight and not angled with any anatomy.

True

T/F: Inversion recovery sequences begin with a 180 degree pulse.

True

Which of the following is thought to be due to chronic entrapment of the nerve by the intermetatarsal ligament? PVNS Morton's Neuroma Synovial sarcoma Calcaneal fatigue fracture

Morton's Neuroma

Axial slices through the head/brain are prescribed from: Right to Left Superior to Inferior Left to Right Inferior to Superior

Inferior to Superior

Which of the following sequences is known for its sensitivity to magnetic susceptibility? Perfusion FLAIR GRE SE

GRE

Axial slices through the thoracic spine are angled parallel to: spinous processes spinal cord disc spaces Z joints

disc spaces

To minimize magnetic susceptibility artifact from a hip prosthesis, a technologist should: Use GRE sequences Increase the SNR Use as small a FOV as possible Use SE or FSE sequences with a broad receive bandwidth

Use SE or FSE sequences with a broad receive bandwidth

A hamartoma is best described as: a ganglion that often appears as a bump on the hand or wrist. a benign tumor composed of mature hyaline cartilage. a bone cyst. a benign tumor-like malformation made up of an abnormal mixture of cells and tissues found in the body.

a benign tumor-like malformation made up of an abnormal mixture of cells and tissues found in the body.

Which of the following is the most common mass in the popliteal fossa? Popliteal aneurysm Ganglion cyst Synovial sarcoma Baker cyst

Baker cyst

Which of the following best describes the appearance of acute stroke on an axial DWI? Bright Dark

Bright

Scan time can be decreased by using which of the following? A long TR The most NEX allowable A short TR A fine matrix

A short TR

T/F: All halos are MRI safe.

False

Positioning for a female pelvis MR exam would include centering the horizontal alignment light to pass: through a point midway between the symphysis pubis and the iliac crest through the level of the umbilicus through the symphysis pubis through the iliac crest

through a point midway between the symphysis pubis and the iliac crest

T/F: Intra-voxel dephasing occurs as a result of the phase difference between stationary and flowing nuclei in the same voxel causing dephasing and signal loss.

True

On T1 weighted images of the spine, the CSF appears: Isointense to the spinal cord Hypointense to the spinal cord Hyperintense to the spinal cord None of the above

Hypointense to the spinal cord

T/F: Positioning the feet close together and at the same level is the best method to reduce wrap for ankle imaging.

False

T/F: Patients are positioned supine head first for run-off exams.

False

T/F: If a technologist increases the matrix on a sequence (assuming the FOV remains the same), the spatial resolution will increase, but the SNR will decrease.

True

The optimal plane to use when evaluating patients for cruciate ligament tears of the knee is the: Sagital Axial and coronal Coronal Axial

Sagital

The imaging sequences best used to visualize bruises or contusions within the bone are: Spin echo Gradient echo Fast spin echo Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR)

Short Tau Inversion Recovery (STIR)

T/F: A bursa is a fat filled sac that allows smooth motion between two uneven surfaces.

False

T/F: The emotional well being of a patient is just as important as their physical condition.

True

T/F: Increasing the TR results in increased SNR and increased scan time.

True

Which of the following sequences fills all of K space in one repetition by using very long echo trains? EPI STIR SE GRE

EPI

T/F: The most common site of aneurysms in the thoracic aorta is the ascending aorta.

True

T/F: FOV boundaries for sagital thoracic spine images include from T2 to L1.

False

A patient presents with pain in the neck and shoulder, numbness and tingling in the fingers, and a weak grip. Which of the following is most likely the cause? Thoracic outlet syndrome Schwannoma Herniated thoracic disc Whiplash

Thoracic outlet syndrome

Which of the following separates the right atrium and right ventricle? Semilunar valve Septum Mitral valve Tricuspid valve

Tricuspid valve

T/F: The optimal imaging window for evaluation of breast cancer is immediately following the start of the menstrual cycle.

False

T/F: A Chiari Malformation can be see on a cervical spine image.

True

T/F: Ideal ankle positioning includes dorisflexion of the foot.

True

T/F: The main source of artifact in the brain is from flow motion of the popliteal artery.

False

T/F: There are four ventricles in the brain.

True

Generally, 3D TOF-MRA acquisitions are optimal for high resolution, for the evaluation of: Velocity-induced phase shifts Slower flowing arterial vasculature and vessels with a large area of coverage (carotids and/or femoral arteries) Phase and magnitude images Smaller vessels with high velocity blood flow (intracranial vessels associated with the Circle of Willis, COW)

Smaller vessels with high velocity blood flow (intracranial vessels associated with the Circle of Willis, COW)

After gadolinium administration, it is recommended that which images are acquired? Multiple T2 weighted images Multiple T1 weighted images One T1 weighted image One T2 weighted image

Multiple T1 weighted images

T/F: Intrinsic parameters are those that cannot be changed because they are inherent to the body's tissues.

True

In which of the following sequences is all the transverse magnetization rewound at the end of each TR period? Coherent gradient echo Incoherent gradient echo EPI

Coherent gradient echo

T/F: The purpose of magnetic field shimming is to reduce the size of the fringe field.

False

What signal intensity is an area of abnormality likely to have on an ADC map? Hypointense Hyperintense Isointense

Hypointense

Determine which of the following parameters would result in the most entry slice phenomenon (i.e. entry slice phenomenon would increase compared to the other options). Slice 10 out of 20, 3000 TR, 1.2 mm slice thickness Slice 10 out of 20, 400 TR, .7 mm slice thickness Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness Slice 1 out of 20, 400 TR, 1.2 mm slice thickness

Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness

What is T2 decay? (Select all that apply) Spin-spin relaxation that results in decay or loss of coherent transverse magnetization. Caused by the nuclei giving up their energy to the surrounding environment. Spin lattice relaxation The time it takes 63% of longitudianl magnetization to recover in the tissue.

Spin-spin relaxation that results in decay or loss of coherent transverse magnetization.

Which gradient performs slice selection for sagital slices? Any combination of gradients Z gradient Y gradient X gradient

X gradient

Gadolinium element is ________ and gadolinium chelate contrast media is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Ferromagnetic/paramagnetic Paramagnetic/paramagnetic Ferromagnetic/ferromagnetic Paramagnetic/ferromagnetic

Ferromagnetic/paramagnetic

What kind of information is contributed by data collected in the central lines of K space? Contrast Resolution Signal \* weighting

Contrast Signal

What is Vortex Flow?

Flow that is initially laminar, but then passes through a structure or stenosis in the vessel. Flow in the center of the Lumen has high velocity, but near the walls the flow spirals.

What is Laminar Flow?

Flow that occurs at different but consistent verlocities across a vessel. The flow at the center of the lumen of the vessel is faster than at the vessel wall where resistance slows down the flow. Velocity difference across the vessel is constant.

What is Spiral Flow?

The direction of the flow is spiral.

What is Turbulent Flow?

Flow at differnet velocities that fluctuates randomly. The velocity difference across the vessel changes erratically.

Once a ferromagnetic material is exposed to an externally applied magnetic field, it becomes magnetized (a permanent magnet). Permanent magnets are said to be: Bipolar Tripolar Polar Dipoles

Bipolar

T/F: Flow affects image quality.

True

Ohm's law states: B = H (1+x) 1 T = 10 kG V = I (R) B = k (l)

V = I (R)

Stationary nuclei always receive both excitation and rephasing pulses, but flowing nuclei present in the slice for the excitation may have exited the slice before rephasing. This is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Entry Slice Phenomenon Intra-Voxel Dephasing Time of Flight Phenomenon Turbulent Flow Effects

Time of Flight Phenomenon

What are the advantages of propeller K Space filling? Rapid imaging, increased SNR and CNR, reduced motion artifact. Better detail Bright signal Low SNR but high resolution

Rapid imaging, increased SNR and CNR, reduced motion artifact.

What is another name for a truncation artifact in a sagital cervical spine? Faraday Truncation Gibbs Gyromagnetic Artifact

Gibbs

What does the slope of the frequency encoding gradient determine? The size of the anatomy covered along the frequency encoding axis The 180 degree rephasing pulse The size of the phase matrix The FOV

The size of the anatomy covered along the frequency encoding axis The FOV

What term is used to describe the net displacement of diffusion spins across a tissue? fMRI SWI MRS ADC

ADC

Which part of K space do shallow phase gradients fill? Outer lines of K space, both positive and negative Central lines of K space, both positive and negative Central lines of K space, positive only Outer lines of K space, positive only

Central lines of K space, both positive and negative

When is the slice select gradient switched on during a spin echo pulse sequence? During the excitation pulse only It is always on during the scan During the 90 and 180 degree pulses During the rephasing pulse only

During the 90 and 180 degree pulses

Which of the following are methods of reducing phase ghosting? (Choose all that apply) Decrease the TE Use "no phase wrap" softwareUse pre-saturation pulses Swap phase and frequency Carefully explain the procedure to the patient Using respiratory compensation techniques

Use pre-saturation pulses Swap phase and frequency Carefully explain the procedure to the patient Using respiratory compensation techniques

Which sequence would be used to best visualize metastatic lesions in the bone? Fat saturation techniques with contrast Non-contrast imaging FLAIR with contrast T2 weighted sequences

Fat saturation techniques with contrast

In spin echo sequences using a pre-saturation pulse, what would persistent bright signal within the vessel indicate? Slow Flowing Blood Blood Clot Vascular Occlusion Fast Flowing Blood

Slow Flowing Blood Blood Clot Vascular Occlusion

Which of the following best describe spin-lattice relaxation? (Choose all that apply) T1 Recovery T2 Decay Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery. Time it takes 88% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in tissue.

T1 Recovery Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery.

Which Fast Inversion Recovery sequence(s) do we often use? SSFP FLAIR STIR Incoherent Gradient Echo

FLAIR STIR

Which of the following does NOT reduce flow motion artifact? GMN ECG gating SAT Subtraction

Subtraction

Fourier transform (FT) is a mathematical process that is used to convert MR signal from a FID into a spectrum. FT occurs in the: RF coil Image processor Array processor Gradient amplifier

Array processor

T/F: The gyromagnetic ratio expresses the relationship between the angular momentum and the magnetic moment of each MR active nucleus.

True

In which direction does phase ghosting occur? (Choose all applicable) Frequency Axis Phase Axis Slice Select Axis Anterior to Posterior

Phase Axis

Which gradient locates signal along the LONG axis of the anatomy? Slice select gradient Isocenter gradient Phase encoding gradient Frequency encoding gradient

Frequency encoding gradient

What is the waiting period before each R wave called? Available Imaging Time Trigger Delay R to R Interval Trigger Window

Trigger Window

What MUST be done prior to anyone entering the scan room? (Select the BEST answer) Pat the patient down for metal objects. A screening sheet must be filled out and in the patient's chart. The patient must be scanned with the metal detector. The completed screening sheet must be signed by a level II staff member and the patient must be scanned with the metal detector, prior to admittance to the MRI scan room.

The completed screening sheet must be signed by a level II staff member and the patient must be scanned with the metal detector, prior to admittance to the MRI scan room.

Which of the following best describes a T1 weighted image? Bright fat Bright water Dark Fat Dark Water

Bright fat Dark Water

Select the three components of the magnetic field from those listed below. Precessional Frequency Field Faraday's Field Radiofrequency Fields Time Varying Magnetic Fields Static Magnetic Field

Radiofrequency Fields Time Varying Magnetic Fields Static Magnetic Field

Which of the following best describes Moire artifact? Anatomy from outside the FOV are wrapped into the image. Different chemical environments of fat and water produce a dark edge at the interface between fat and water. Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV Fat and water are out of phase and their signals cancel each other out.

Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV

The homogeneity of a magnetic field is expressed in units of: G (gauss) ppm (parts per million) T (Tesla) MHz (megaHertz)

ppm (parts per million)

What happens to the alignment of hydrogen protons when placed in an external magnetic field? (Check all that apply) The magnetic moments of the nuclei align with or against the main magnetic field. Nothing until an RF pulse is applied. More nuclei oppose the main magnetic field than line up with the main magnetic field. Slightly more nuclei line up with the main magnetic field than against it.

The magnetic moments of the nuclei align with or against the main magnetic field. Slightly more nuclei line up with the main magnetic field than against it.

What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of CSF at 1T? 150 ms 500 ms 2000 ms 3000 ms

2000 ms

The magnetic field strength in superconducting magnets is maintained with cryogens at a temperature of: 450°C 70°F (+/- 2°F) 4 K 269°F

4 K

The vascular signal, produced on PC-MRA, relies on: MOTA Velocity-induced phase shifts Flow related enhancement PC

Velocity-induced phase shifts

Select all of the following that were discussed as possible MR contrast agents in the text. Gadolinium Blueberry juice Mango juice Dilute barium solutions

All of the above

In which direction does aliasing occur? (Choose all that apply) Phase Axis Frequency Axis Slice Select Axis Anterior to Posterior

Phase Axis Frequency Axis

What type of echoes are sampled during SS-FSE? Spin echoes Gradient echoes Incoherent Gradient echoes

Spin echoes

When using MRA to evaluate extracranial vascular flow, such as that within common carotid arteries, a recommended technique is: 3D phase contrast MRA 2D time of flight MRA 3D time of flight MRA All of the above

2D time of flight MRA

What is Double IR prep used to accomplish? Flips the NMV back to zero Imaging large patients Used to null blood for cardiac imaging FSE sequences

Used to null blood for cardiac imaging

Which of the following are methods of reducing phase ghosting? (Choose all that apply) Use pre-saturation pulses Using respiratory compensation techniques Decrease the TE Swap phase and frequency Use "no phase wrap" software Carefully explain the procedure to the patient

Use pre-saturation pulses Using respiratory compensation techniques Swap phase and frequency Swap phase and frequency

T/F: For resonance of hydrogen to occur, RF at EXACTLY the Larmor frequency of hydrogen must be applied.

True

What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of fat at 1T? 2000 ms 3000 ms 200 ms 500 ms

200 ms

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Mandibular condyle Occipital Bone Maxillary Sinus EAM

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D E Not Labeled

Lamina Intervertebral Disc Psoas Muscle Intervertebral Foramina Erector Spinae Muscle Transverse Foramina

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D Not Labeled

Hamate Triquetrum Capitate Ulna Radius

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D E Not Labeled

Superior Sagital Sinus Tentorium Parietal Lobe Lateral Ventricle Cerebellum 3^rd Ventricle

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Trochlea Radial Shaft Humeral Shaft Olecranon Processes Corocoid Process Ulnar Shaft

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Large Bowel Common Iliac Artery Small Bowel Ilium Appendix

What pathology is visible in this image? Ovarian tumor Ovarian cyst Uterine fibroid Prostate cancer Uterine cancer

Uterine cancer

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Metastasis Spinal Meningioma Spinal Ependymoma Tethered cord

Spinal Meningioma

What pathology is seen in this image? CAD Pericardial Effusion CHF Myxoma

CHF

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Medulloblastom Arachnoid Cyst SDH AVM MS

AVM

What pathology is visible in the image below? Arachnoid Cyst Hydrocephalus MS Medulloblastoma AVM

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Pneumothorax Hemothorax Tuberculosis Interstitial Lung Disease

Pneumothorax Hemothorax

What pathology is visible in this image? Horseshoe kidney Renal Stone RCC Wilm’s tumor PKD

PKD

What pathology is visible in the following image? Spinal Stenosis Ankylosing Spondylitis Subluxation Compression Fracture

Ankylosing Spondylitis

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Metastasis Spinal Meningioma Tethered cord Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Metastasis

What pathology is visible in this image? Liver cancer Hemangiomas Cirrhosis Liver laceration

Liver cancer

What pathology is visible in this image? Crohn’s disease Colitis Appendicitis SBO Colon cancer

Colitis

What pathology is visible in this image? Renal Stone TCC RCC BPH Prostate cancer

TCC

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Meningioma Tethered cord Bulging disc Spinal Ependymoma

Bulging disc

What pathology is seen in this image? Pericardial Effusion PE CAD Myxoma

Myxoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Adrenal mass Renal Stone Kidney laceration Wilm’s tumor RCC

Kidney laceration

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Medulloblastoma EDH ICB Ischemic stroke SDH

SDH

What pathology is seen in this image? Compression Fracture Tethered Cord Ankylosing Spondylitis Spondylolisthesis

Spondylolisthesis

Which of the following is a normal diastolic blood pressure? 115 89 75 125

Which of the following describes a severe reaction to iodinated contrast? Hives Hypotension Itching Diaphoresis

Hypotension

Which of the following terms are synonymous? (Choose all correct) Cerebral Infarct Ischemic Stroke Transient Ischemic Attack Cerebrovascular Accident

Cerebral Infarct Ischemic Stroke Cerebrovascular Accident

Which of the following lab values directly relate to renal performance? (choose all correct) Creatinine GFR Hematocrit PTT

Creatinine GFR

Which of these medications would be especially valuable if a patient is having a respiratory reaction to ICM? (Choose all correct) Oxygen Epinephrine Albuterol Atropine

Oxygen Epinephrine Albuterol

Which of these cardiac conditions can cause inadequate ventricular filling in the presence of a healthy myocardium? Myocardial Infarction Cardiogenic Shock Cardiac Tamponade Congestive Heart Failure

Cardiac Tamponade

Define Vasoconstrictors?

A drug causing contraction and narrowing of blood vessels.

Define Antiarrythmics

These drugs function to reduce or prevent arrhythmias

Define Thrombolytics

A clot dissolbing drug specifically used to treat patients with acute symptoms of MI or stroke

Define Vasodilators

A drug causing relaxation and opening of blood vessels

Which of the following can cause respiratory arrest? (Choose all correct) Decreased respiratory drive Respiratory muscle weakness Airway obstruction Trauma

Decreased respiratory drive Respiratory muscle weakness Airway obstruction Trauma

Tuberculosis requires what kind of isolation precaution? Droplet Isolation Airborne Isolation Contact Isolation Standard Precaution

Airborne Isolation

Define Pharmacology

The study of drug reactions with living organisms

Define Pharmacokinetics

Relates to the drugs process of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion by the body (what the body does to the drug)

Define Pharmacodynamics

The study of mechanisms by which drug dosages produce physiological or biochemical changes in the body (what the drug does to the body)

C-Diff requires what kind of isolation precaution? Airborne Isolation Droplet Isolation Standard Precaution Contact Isolation

Contact Isolation

The formula for calculating a patient’s GFR includes which of the following? (choose all correct) Creatinine level Gender Weight Ethnicity Age

Creatinine level Gender Age

What is the most common MRI contrast agent? Hexabrix Gadolinium Iron Omnipaque

Gadolinium

Which these conditions typically occurs secondary to myocardial infarction? Congestive Heart Failure Cardiac Tamponade Cardiogenic Shock Transient Ischemic Attack

Cardiogenic Shock

What are the chemical properties of Hypaque

Ionic, 300mgl/mL, Osmolality=1550

What are the chemical properties of Visipaque

Non-ionic, 320 mgl/mL, Osmolality=290

What are the chemical properties of Omnipaque

Non-ionic, 350mgl/mL, Osmolality=884

Which of these medications would be useful to a patient with an anxiety disorder? Epinephrine Valium Reglan Zofran

Valium

Internal and external protuberances are processes of what cranial bone? Parietal Sphenoid Ethmoid Occipital

Occipital

Which vertebral ligament attaches between the lamina of adjoining vertebrae? Ligamentum flavum Interspinous ligament Anterior longitudinal ligament Posterior longitudinal ligament

Ligamentum flavum

Which of the following describes the large opening on the inferior aspect of the sacrum? Sacral Foramina Sacral promontory Lateral masses Sacral hiatus

Sacral hiatus

The Dorsal cavity is partitioned into what two cavities? (mark all correct) Spinal Abdominal Mediastinal Pelvis Cranial

Spinal Cranial

Which of the following muscle groups extend from the cervical vertebrae through the upper thoracic spine? Erector spinae muscles Splenius muscles Transversospinal muscles Psoas muscles

Splenius muscles

Which of the paranasal sinuses is present at birth? Maxillary Sphenoid Ethmoid Frontal

Maxillary

The appendix is located within which quadrant of the abdomen? RUQ LUQ LLQ RLQ

RLQ

The whitish opaque portion of the eye is termed the: Conjunctiva Cornea Lens Sclera

Sclera

The terminal end of the spinal cord is described by which of the following? Sella Turcica Cauda equina Medulla oblongata Conus medullaris

Conus medullaris

An abnormal forward curvature of the thoracic spine is termed: Prognosis Lordosis Hypnosis Kyphosis

Kyphosis

Which aspect of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord? Medulla oblongata Mid brain Pons None of the above

Medulla oblongata

What fissure separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe? Longitudinal Fissure Central Fissure Lateral Fissure Rolandic Fissure

Lateral Fissure

The external walls of the EAM are formed by which portion of the temporal bone? Squamous Tympanic Petrous Mastoid

Tympanic

Which of the following is a direct extension of the ventricular system of the brain? None of the above Epidural space Central canal Subdural space

Central canal

What structure marks the beginning of the lower respiratory system? Oropharynx Larynx None of the above Nasopharynx

Larynx

During menstruation the walls of the uterus may appear thicker or thinner usual? Thinner Thicker

Thicker

A process of the malar bone joins with which bone of the cranium to form the zygomatic arch? Temporal Sphenoid Frontal Parietal

Temporal

Which of the following is not a retroperitoneal structure? Transverse colon Kidneys Ureters IVC

Transverse colon

The mandibular condyle articulates with which of the following cranial bones? Frontal Occipital Parietal Tempora

Tempora

The large projection on the posterior surface of the scapula dividing it into upper and lower fossae is termed the: Acromion process Scapular spine Coracoid process Glenoid fossa

Scapular spine

The perpendicular plate of what bone forms the superior portion of the nasal septum? Ethmoid Palatine Vomer Sphenoid

Ethmoid

The sigmoid colon is located within which quadrant of the abdomen? LLQ RUQ RLQ LUQ

LLQ

Which of the following lacks a typical vertebral body? C2 C6 C7 C1

The urethra in males passes through which of these organs? Uterus Iliac muscles Rectum Prostate

Prostate

Arterial blood to the liver is provided by a branch of what artery? SMA IMA Celiac Trunk

Celiac Trunk

The pituitary gland is attached by the infundibulum to what other feature of the diencephalon? Epithalamus Thalamus Hypothalamus Pituitary gland

Hypothalamus

The lungs are located within which body cavity? Dorsal All of the above Mediastinum Pleural

Pleural

Which of the following describes potential characteristics of adrenal lesions (Choose all correct) cystic benign malignant metastatic

All of the above

Which of these conditions appears as inflammation in the bowel? Cancer Colitis Abscess Ascites

Colitis

T/F: Hemangiomas appear only in the liver.

False

Which of these lesions are most often malignant? (choose all correct) Acoustic Neuromas Pituitary adenoma Medulloblastoma Meningiomas Astrocytoma

Medulloblastoma Astrocytoma

Which of these fractures follows the “ring rule”? Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures Nasal fractures Blow-out fractures Mandibular fractures

Mandibular fractures

From where do renal stones originate? VUJ Ureters Bladder Collecting system

Collecting system

What is the most common lesion of the brain? Benign brain neoplasm Gliomas Metastatic brain cancer Primary brain cancer

Metastatic brain cancer

Which of these fractures are most likely to result in CSF leakage? (choose all correct) Depressed skull fracture Basilar skull fracture Diastatic fracture Ping-pong fracture

Basilar skull fracture Diastatic fracture

Which of the following statement concerning liver cancer are true? (choose all correct) Primary liver cancer will enhance during the arterial phase of imaging Metastatic liver cancer can be both singular or multi-focal Primary liver cancer is more common than secondary liver cancer Metastatic liver cancer will enhance during the venous phase of imaging

Primary liver cancer will enhance during the arterial phase of imaging Metastatic liver cancer can be both singular or multi-focal\ Metastatic liver cancer will enhance during the venous phase of imaging

Which of these conditions is most likely to show contrast extravasation? Choose multiple if applicable. Ruptured Aneurysm Simple aneurysm Dissecting aneurysm

Ruptured Aneurysm

What aspect of the kidney can be affected by renal cell carcinoma (RCC)? (Choose all correct) cortex Gerota’s fascia collecting system medulla

cortex collecting system medulla

Which of these conditions causes a permanent loss of neurologic function? (choose one or both) Hemorrhagic stroke Ischemic stroke

Hemorrhagic stroke Ischemic stroke

Traumatic contusions in the brain are one form of which of the following conditions? Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH) Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH) Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH) Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Which of the following tumors are malignant? (Choose all correct) Spinal Metastasis Spinal Ependymoma Spinal Meningioma Astrocytoma

Spinal Metastasis Astrocytoma

Which of the following describe imaging characteristics of pancreatitis? (Choose all correct) Pancreatic pseudocysts Ascites Reactive fluid Pancreas inflammation

Pancreatic pseudocysts Ascites Reactive fluid Pancreas inflammation

Which of these fractures is most likely to be comminuted? Basilar skull fracture Ping-pong fracture Diastatic fracture Depressed skull fracture

Depressed skull fracture

Which of the following best describe contrast enhancement of pancreatic tumors? Absence of venous enhancement Highly vascular Delayed enhancement No contrast enhancement

Delayed enhancement

Which of these are common complications associated with zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures? (Choose all correct) “Floating face” Blood in the maxillary sinus Ocular injuries Dural tearing

Blood in the maxillary sinus Ocular injuries

T/F: Malignant lesions identified in the spleen are most likely lymphoma.

True

Which of these conditions might be viewed as surface and parenchymal nodularity in the liver? Laceration Primary liver cancer Secondary liver cancer Cirrhosis

Cirrhosis

Which of the following are common causes of pneumonia? (choose all correct) Fungal infections Aspiration Chemical inhalation Chest trauma

All of the above

What term describes a cancer in one organ/tissue but originated from a different organ/tissue? Malignant neoplasm Benign neoplasm Primary cancer Metastatic neoplasm

Metastatic neoplasm

T/F: Leiomyomas are benign tumors that arise from overgrowth of smooth muscle and connective tissue in the bladder.

False

Most deep vein blood clots occur in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Lungs IVC Lower leg or thigh Foot

Lower leg or thigh

T/F: SNR is dependent on the quality of the coil

True

The American Cancer Society recommends screening breast MRI in addition to annual mammograms in which of the following? Patients with less than a 15% lifetime risk of breast cancer. To evaluate implant integrity. In patients with greater than 20% lifetime risk of breast cancer. In all women over the age of 40.

In patients with greater than 20% lifetime risk of breast cancer.

A patient presents with pain in the neck and shoulder, numbness and tingling in the fingers, and a weak grip. Which of the following is most likely the cause? Herniated thoracic disc Whiplash Schwannoma Thoracic outlet syndrome

Thoracic outlet syndrome

Which of the following best defines spatial resolution? The ability to distinguish two between two points as separate and distinct The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas The ratio of the amplitude of signal received by the coil to the amplitude of the noise The time required to complete the acquisition of data

The ability to distinguish two between two points as separate and distinct

Which of the following is a malignant bone tumor that affects children and young adults? the tumor may start anywhere in the body, usually in the long bones of the arms and legs, the pelvis, or the chest. Ewing Sarcoma Chordoma Transitional Cell Carcinoma Teratoma

Ewing Sarcoma

Enlargement of the left lobe of the liver is most likely a sign of which of the following diseases processes? Hepatic mets Renal failure Cirrhosis Ascites

Cirrhosis

A/an _________ can break loose and cause a pulmonary embolism. DVT Arterial stenosis Atherosclerosis Lymph node

DVT

Adhesive capsulitis is also known as: Trough lesion Carpal tunnel Tennis elbow Frozen shoulder

Frozen shoulder

On sagital T-Spine images that demonstrate cord compression, the vertebral level can be determined by (think about how you determine this in clinicals when scanning): Using lead markers to mark T12 and T1 on large FOV images Using the sternal notch as a landmark and counting down from T1 Using the xyphoid as a landmark and counting up from T12 Using a large FOV localizer and counting down from C2

Using a large FOV localizer and counting down from C2

T/F: MRI is the most sensitive detection method for calcaneal stress fracture.

True

T/F: A SLAP tear occurs where the biceps tendon anchors to the labrum.

True

The "candy cane" view is best described by which of the following: Long axis view of the heart Axial view of the thoracic aorta Sagital/oblique view of the pulmonary arteries Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta

Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta

Indications for MRV of the lower extremities includes all but which of the following? Leg swelling Recent twisted ankle Evaluation for free-floating thrombus Recent orthopedic surgery

Recent twisted ankle

Which of the following sequences would be most helpful in diagnosing MS? Open and closed views Thin slices through the optic chiasm Sagital STIR Sagital FLAIR

Sagital FLAIR

Which of the following anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx? Sacral hiatus Conus medularis Filum terminale Cauda equina

Filum terminale

The coil usually preferred to image the shoulder for the maximization of SNR is the: Surface or local coil Body coil Small extremity coil Phased array coil

Surface or local coil

A patient who presents with numbness of the first three digits and nighttime pain from the wrist to the forearm most likely has: Carpal tunnel syndrome De Quervain Tenosynovitis Sarchoidosis Hamartoma

Carpal tunnel syndrome

Which diagnosis is considered most likely in a patient who presents with pain, swelling, and reddening over the olecranon. The MR images show bone marrow and soft tissue edema. Triceps tendon tear Rheumatoid arthritis Osteomyelitis SLAP tear

Osteomyelitis

To minimize pulsatile flow motion artifacts, cardiac images are acquired by: Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation None of the above Taking the patient's pulse, calculating the heart rate in beats per minute, then entering this data into the imaging system Attaching ECG leads, monitoring the cardiac cycle and triggering the pulse sequence from each R wave

Attaching ECG leads, monitoring the cardiac cycle and triggering the pulse sequence from each R wave

T/F: A common artifact seen when scanning the cervical spine region is the result of swallowing motion.

True

T/F: Contrast is routinely used in MRI of the hand

False

Cancer that begins in the plasma cells in bone marrow is known as: Glioma Metastatic disease Multiple Sclerosis Multiple Myeloma

Multiple Myeloma

Which of the following is another word for bulging of one or both eyes? Pseudotumor Proptosis COW Sarcoid

Proptosis

T/F: Motion artifact can be problematic in 2D TOF imaging.

True

Which of the following is not in the distal row of carpal bones? Trapezium Hamate Lunate Capitate

Lunate

Common sources of artifact for an orbital MR exam include all of the following except: flow motion in the Circle of Willis zipper artifact using a small FOV- aliasing eye movement

zipper artifact

In spine imaging, to rule out metastatic lesions of the spinal cord, contrast enhancement can be used with T1 weighted images because: CSF is bright and cord is dark Normal cord enhances and metastatic lesions do not Metastatic lesions enhance and normal cord does not Scar enhances and disk does not

Metastatic lesions enhance and normal cord does not

T/F: Patients may be positioned feet first supine for an MRI of the lumbar spine.

True

T/F: When positioning a patient's legs for a lower extremity vascular study, the legs should be placed as far apart as possible.

False

Which of the following sequence(s)/technique(s) can be used to make vessels appear bright? All of the above Gradient Moment Rephasing Contrast Enhancement Gradient Echo Imaging

All of the above

What rule determines the direction of current flow through a coil, and the direction of the magnetic field that the current produces? Whether you are using an open or closed configuration Right hand thumb rule MRI Fringe Field Rule The size of the magnetic field

Right hand thumb rule

MRA techniques include all of the following EXCEPT: CT-MRA CE-MRA PC-MRA TOF-MRA

CT-MRA

T/F: Perfusion is measured using MRI by tagging the fat in arterial blood during image acquisition.

False

T/F: Even echo rephasing reduces intra-voxel dephasing.

True

What is the extrinsic parameter that controls the amount of diffusion seen in an image? flip angle b factor TR TE

b factor

T/F: TR controls T2 weighting.

False

Which of the following is used to trigger each pulse sequence when using ECG gating? R wave S wave P wave Q wave

R wave

# Choose extrinsic contrast parameters from the list below. Flip Angle T1 Recovery Time Flow TR Proton Density TE b Value

Flip Angle TR TE b Value

T/F: The TE is twice the TAU.

True

Which of the following effects does TOF depend on? TE TR Slice Thickness Velocity of flow

TE Slice Thickness Velocity of flow

T/F: TOF phenomenon results in a dark vessel.

True

T/F: To reduce chemical shift artifact, ALWAYS use the widest receive bandwidth in keeping with good SNR and the smallest FOV possible.

True

Which of the following is a remedy for aliasing? Decreasing the slice thickness Using "no phase wrap" software Decreasing the TE Decreasing the size of the FOV

Using "no phase wrap" software

# Choose all of the following that enhancement agents can be useful in detecting. Tumors Infarction Inflammation Infection

All of the above

Which cryogen is commonly used to super cool wires in MRI? Liquid helium Niobium Hydrogen Alnico

Liquid helium

What do T2 images typically best demonstrate? Bony anatomy Anatomy Pathology Fat

Pathology

Determine which of the following parameters would result in the most entry slice phenomenon (i.e. entry slice phenomenon would increase compared to the other options). Slice 10 out of 20, 3000 TR, 1.2 mm slice thickness Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness Slice 10 out of 20, 400 TR, .7 mm slice thickness Slice 1 out of 20, 400 TR, 1.2 mm slice thickness

Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness

Magnetic field strength can be expressed in units of Tesla (T) or gauss (G), where: 3.0 T = 0.3 G 1 T = 1 G 1 T = 10 000 G 1.5 T = 1500 G

1 T = 10 000 G

The signal from flowing blood within vessels in MRI and MRA relies on: Fourth order motion Second order motion Third order motion First order motion

First order motion

T/F: ECG gating is prospective.

True

What are the two results of resonance? (Choose from the list below) The NMV moves into a repeating pattern of +/- 100 MHZ. The magnetic moments of hydrogen nuclei move into phase with each other. The NMV moves out of alignment and away from B0. The magnetic momements of hydrogen nuclei move out of phase with each other.

The magnetic moments of hydrogen nuclei move into phase with each other. The NMV moves out of alignment and away from B0.

T/F: Intra-voxel dephasing results in an increase in total signal amplitude from the voxel.

False

T/F: All gadolinium contrast agents have the same ‘relaxivity’.

False

How often must we sample frequencies, according to the Nyquist Theorem? Once per cycle Twice per cycle Less than once per cycle Three times per cycle

Twice per cycle

What are the guidelines for pregnant employees? (Choose all that apply) Pregnant employees MUST transfer to x-ray once they've announced their pregnancy to the MRI department. Pregnant employees may enter the scan room, but should leave before scanning begins. Pregnant employees are exempt from scanning and may only do paperwork. No changes to pregnant employees work environment in MRI. Everyone knows that MRI doesn't use radiation.

Pregnant employees may enter the scan room, but should leave before scanning begins.

What is the chemical shift at 1.5 T? 220 Hz 2.2 Hz 220 KHz 22 Hz

220 Hz

T/F: Another term for time of flight is inflow effect.

False

The anatomy of white matter tracts can be mapped using strong multi-directional gradients in which of the following? SWI diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) continuous arterial spin labeling (CASL) CBV

diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

T/F: In some circumstances, magnetic susceptibility artifact can be useful in diagnosis.

True

Passive magnetic shielding can be accomplished by lining the scan room walls with: Shim plates Lead Copper Steel

Steel

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C Not labeled

Frontal Temporal Bone Occipital Bone External Occipital Protuberance

Label the anatomy in this image A B C D Not Labeled

Right Coronary Artery Left Main Coronary Artery LAD Circumflex Artery Coronary Sinus

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D Subclavian Artery You Answered Not Labeled

Esophagus Brachiocephalic Vein Sternoclavicular Joint Subclavian Artery Pulmonary Artery

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Vertebral Body Transverse Process Articular Facets Spinous Process Intervertebral Foramina

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D E Not labeled

Pariental Bone Choroid Plexus Longitudical Fisure Lateral Ventrical Parietal Lobe Lateral Fissure

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Abductor Digiti Muscles Pisiform Thenar Muscle Trapezium Flexor Muscles Ulna

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Extensor Digitorum Muscle Fibula Tibia Flexor Hallicus Longus Muscle Achilles Tendon Posterior Tibialis Tendon

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Uterus Bowel Urinary bladder Rectum Ovary

What pathology is visible in the image below? Chiari Malformation ICB SDH Medulloblastoma EDH

Chiari Malformation

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Linear skull fracture Depressed skull fracture Epidural hematoma Basilar skull fracture Ping-pong skull fracture

Ping-pong skull fracture

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose all correct) Ascites Neoplasm Abscess Cyst

Ascites Neoplasm

What pathology is visible in this image? Colitis Crohn’s disease Appendicitis SBO Colon cancer

Crohn’s disease

What pathology is visible in this image? (choose multiple) Crohn’s disease Colitis SBO Appendicitis Colon cancer

SBO Colon cancer

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? SDH EDH Ischemic stroke Abscess Neoplasm

Ischemic stroke

What pathology is visible in this image? Pancreatic Cancer Cholelithiasis Pancreatitis GB Cancer Liver cancer

Pancreatitis

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Dental abscess Mandible Fracture Blow-out fracture LeFort fracture Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

Mandible Fracture

What pathology is visible in this image? Liver cancer Hemangiomas Cirrhosis Liver laceration

Liver laceration

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? SDH Ischemic stroke Astrocytoma Abscess Medulloblastoma

Medulloblastoma

COPD

What pathology is visible in this image? Liver cancer Splenic Laceration Lymphoma Gastric cancer

Lymphoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Laceration Neoplasm Hematoma Infarct

Infarct

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number twelve on the image shown below: Teres major muscle Spine of the scapula Scapula Acromion

Scapula

Which of these medications should be administered prior the CT exam if the patient has had a prior reaction to iodinated contrast? Zofran Solu-medrol Glucagon Atropine

Solu-medrol

Which of these precautions is most relevant when a patient carries an infectious agent that may be spread through talking, sneezing, or coughing? Droplet Isolation Contact Isolation Standard Precaution Airborne Isolation

Droplet Isolation

BLS skills include recognition of which of the following conditions? (Choose all correct) TIA/CVA FBAO MI Anaphylaxis

TIA/CVA FBAO MI

Define Teratogenic

Adverse affects of drug use to a fetus that causes abnormal development.

Define Carcinogenic

Drugs that are indicated as cancer producing.

Define Nephrotoxic

Drugs that adversely affect the kidneys or their functions.

Correctly order the sequence through which a drug is delivered into systemic circulation. Absorption through the small bowel Metabolism in the liver Systemic circulation Passage through the portal hepatic system

First Third Fourth Second

Which of these medications would be especially valuable to a patient experiencing bronchospasms during a contrast reaction? Albuterol Atropine Epinephrine Lasix

Albuterol

Which of the following describes a negative contrast agent? Paramagnetic particles Barium Sulfate Microbubbles Visipaque

Microbubbles

Which of the follow is a transmission-based infection precaution? (Choose all correct) Contact Isolation Airborne Isolation Droplet Isolation Standard Precaution

Contact Isolation Airborne Isolation Droplet Isolation

Creatinine level can fluctuate with which of the following? (choose all correct) Muscle Mass Gender Age Hydration

Muscle Mass Gender Age Hydration

Meningitis requires what kind of isolation precaution? Standard Precaution Droplet Isolation Contact Isolation Airborne Isolation

Droplet Isolation

Which of the following can cause respiratory arrest? (Choose all correct) Decreased respiratory drive Trauma Respiratory muscle weakness Airway obstruction

Decreased respiratory drive Trauma Respiratory muscle weakness Airway obstruction

What term describes an atom or molecule that dissociates into ions when placed in water? Ionic Non-ionic Cation Monomer

Ionic

Which of these lab tests may help to indicate if a patient has anemia? (choose all correct) Hematocrit Platelet count PTT Hemoglobin

Hematocrit Hemoglobin

Which these conditions typically occurs secondary to myocardial infarction? Cardiac Tamponade Cardiogenic Shock Congestive Heart Failure Transient Ischemic Attack

Cardiogenic Shock

Which of these procedures include hand washing, routine equipment cleaning, and proper personal hygiene? Medical Asepsis Sterile Technique

Medical Asepsis

Which vertebral ligament covers the dorsal surface of the vertebral bodies of the spine? Anterior longitudinal ligament Ligamentum flavum Posterior longitudinal ligament Interspinous ligament

Posterior longitudinal ligament

Which of these medications would help to increase blood pressure in the event of a hypotensive reaction? (Choose all correct) Epinephrine Atropine Valium Zofran

Epinephrine Atropine

Which of the following are clinical signs of anaphylaxis? (Choose all correct) Vasoconstriction Airway edema Hypertension Mucus secretions

Airway edema Mucus secretions

Which of the following should be disclosed for the sake of “informed consent”? (choose all correct) The risks and benefits of a proposed treatment or procedure Alternatives The risks and benefits of not receiving or undergoing a treatment or procedure The patient's diagnosis, if known

The risks and benefits of a proposed treatment or procedure Alternatives The risks and benefits of not receiving or undergoing a treatment or procedure The patient's diagnosis, if known

Which of the following describes a required characteristic of IV injectable contrast media? (choose all correct) Isotonic Low-density barium Water-soluble Non-ionic

Isotonic Water-soluble Non-ionic

The transparent anterior bulge of the bulbus oculi is termed the: Conjunctiva Sclera Lens Cornea

Cornea

Which of the following describes the large opening on the inferior aspect of the sacrum? Sacral promontory Sacral hiatus Sacral Foramina Lateral masses

Sacral hiatus

Widened areas of the subarachnoid space are referred to as: Ventricles Basal cisterns Meninges Choroid plexus

Basal cisterns

Posteriorly the trachea is in contact with which structure of the mediastinum? Esophagus Carotid arteries Thyroid tissue Larynx

Esophagus

The large projection on the posterior surface of the scapula dividing it into upper and lower fossae is termed the: Coracoid process Glenoid fossa Scapular spine Acromion process

Scapular spine

The perpendicular plate articulates with which bone to form the boney nasal septum? Sphenoid Ethmoid Occipital Vomer

Vomer

What term describes the s-shaped portion of the large bowl in the LLQ? Descending colon Sigmoid colon Rectum Anus

Sigmoid colon

Which aspect of the sternum is visualized on an axial image displaying the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum? Any of the above Body Xiphoid process Manubrium

Manubrium

Which of the following is not a retroperitoneal structure? Kidneys IVC Ureters Transverse colon

Transverse colon

The chin is also called the: Acanthion Ramus Mentum Gonion

Mentum

The Xiphoid process is at the level of: T10 T12 T11 T9

T10

Which of the following is accessed during an epidural to inject anesthetic agents? Subdural space Subarachnoid space None of the above Central canal

None of the above

Which of the following terms refers to the most posterior aspect of the neural arch? Lamina Pedicle Transverse process Articular Facets

Lamina

Which of the following terms is also termed tertiary bronchi? Alveolar ducts Lobular bronchi Secondary bronchi Primary bronchi

none of the above (lobular are secondary) Segmental is the correct answer but not an option

Which of the following is also known as the ala? Lateral masses Sacral Foramina Sacral promontory Sacral hiatus

Lateral masses

Define Proximal

Towards the origin

Define Deep

Away from the skin/surface

Define Cranial/Cephalic

Towards the head

Define Caudal

Towards the feet

Define Distal

Away from the origin

Define Superficial

Towards the skin/surface

Which of the following is a direct extension of the ventricular system of the brain? Epidural space None of the above Central canal Subdural space

Central canal

Which structure is positioned closest to the spine? Trachea Esophagus

Esophagus

The most posterior aspect of the cerebrum is the: Diencephalon Cerebellum Occipital lobe Brainstem

Occipital lobe

Which of the following is not composed of white brain matter? Corpus Callosum Cerebral cortex None of the above Myelinated Axons

Cerebral cortex

Which of these structures are contained within the pelvic cavity? (choose all correct) Ovaries Kidneys Rectum Gonads

Ovaries Rectum Gonads

Which of the following arteries circulate blood around the major vessels of the Circle of Willis? Basilar artery Cerebral arteries Communicating arteries Internal carotids

Communicating arteries

Which of the following is the most posterior structure in the male pelvis? Uterus Iliac muscles Prostate Rectum

Rectum

Which of the following continues as the sigmoid colon? Ascending colon Transverse colon Cecum Descending colon

Descending colon

In standard anatomic position, the hands and feet are: Dorsaflexed Forward Internally Rotated Pronated

Forward

The lobes of the cerebellum are connected medially by which of the following structures? Midbrain Insula Corpus Callosum Vermis

Vermis

Costo-vertebral joints are a feature unique to which aspect of the vertebral column? Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Sacral

Thoracic

Which of the following supplies arterial blood to the myocardium? Pulmonary veins Pulmonary arteries Coronary arteries Aorta

Coronary arteries

The coronary arteries extend from what large vessel of the heart? Pulmonary arteries Superior Vena Cava Aorta Azygos Vein

Aorta

T/F: The vertebral arteries pass through the vertebral foramina of the cervical spine on the way to the cranium.

False

During menstruation the walls of the uterus may appear thicker or thinner usual? Thicker Thinner

Thicker

Which of the following connects the ventricular system to the subarachnoid space? Interventricular foramen Cerebral aqueduct Foramen of Luschka Foramen of Magendie

Foramen of Luschka

The cochlea is found in which portion of the ear? External Tympanic portion Middle Inner

Inner

Which of the following is least likely to be identified in the pelvis? Cecum Jejunum Duodenum Ileum

Duodenum

Which of these fractures is comparable to a green stick fracture in long bones? Depressed skull fracture Diastatic fracture Basilar skull fracture Ping-pong fracture

Ping-pong fracture

Which of following describes the appearance of a brain abscess in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct) May be associated with edema Often rim-enhancing May shows areas of necrosis Often associated with hemorrhage

May be associated with edema Often rim-enhancing May shows areas of necrosis

Which of the following is the most common primary cancer? Breast Colorectal Lung Prostate

Prostate

Which of the following describe imaging characteristics of pancreatitis? (Choose all correct) Ascites Pancreas inflammation Pancreatic pseudocysts Reactive fluid

Ascites Pancreas inflammation Pancreatic pseudocysts Reactive fluid

Which of these lesions grow primarily in the cerebellum/posterior fossa of the cranial cavity? Medulloblastoma Pituitary adenoma Astrocytoma Meningiomas Acoustic Neuromas

Medulloblastoma

Which of the following is a form of lung cancer? (choose all correct) Primary lung cancer Interstitial Lung Disease Bronchogenic Carcinoma Metastatic Lung Cancer

Primary lung cancer Bronchogenic Carcinoma Metastatic Lung Cancer

Which of these conditions appear most similar on sectional imaging? (choose two) Pleural Effusion Bronchogenic Carcinoma Tuberculosis Hemothorax

Pleural Effusion Hemothorax

What is the most common etiology of colon cancer? Ulcerative colitis Colic ulcer Crohn’s disease Polyp neoplasm

Polyp neoplasm

Which of these conditions appear most similar in sectional imaging? (choose two) COPD Pneumothorax Hemothorax Interstitial Lung Disease

COPD Interstitial Lung Disease

Which of these conditions is caused by blood extravasation in the brain? (choose one or both) Ischemic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke

Hemorrhagic stroke

Which of these brain lesions is most likely to appear in multiples? Benign brain neoplasm Metastatic brain cancer Primary brain cancer Gliomas

Metastatic brain cancer

Which of the following are imaging indications of organ laceration? (Choose all correct) Limited or absence of contrast perfusion through the organ Contrast extravasation in or around the organ Atypical contrast perfusion through the organ Hematoma in the area of the organ

Limited or absence of contrast perfusion through the organ Contrast extravasation in or around the organ Atypical contrast perfusion through the organ Hematoma in the area of the organ

Which of these lesions are most likely to be associated with hormonal imbalances? Medulloblastoma Meningiomas Pituitary adenoma Astrocytoma Acoustic Neuromas

Pituitary adenoma

Which of these pathologies is sometimes accompanied by meningocele formation? Ankylosing Spondylitis Spina Bifida Spinal Meningioma Tethered cord

Spina Bifida

Which of these conditions commonly exist secondary to primary or metastatic lung cancer? (choose all correct) Abscess formations Necrosis Pulmonary Embolism Pleural effusions

Abscess formations Necrosis Pleural effusions

Which of the following are common causes of renal stones? (Choose all correct) low fluid intake metabolic abnormalities dehydration recurrent yeast infections

low fluid intake metabolic abnormalities dehydration

Ischemic stroke may be a result of arterial interruption in which of these vessels? (choose all correct) Basilar artery Internal carotids Descending aorta Cerebral arteries

Basilar artery Internal carotids Cerebral arteries

Which of these fractures occur only along suture lines? Depressed skull fracture Basilar skull fracture Ping-pong fracture Diastatic fracture

Diastatic fracture

What term describes a cancer in one organ/tissue but originated from a different organ/tissue? Metastatic neoplasm Primary cancer Malignant neoplasm Benign neoplasm

Metastatic neoplasm

Which of these conditions might appear as a walled cavity filled with infected fluid, blood, and sometimes air? Hematoma Ascites Abscess Inflammation

Abscess

Where is a myxoma most likely to be imaged? Left Atrium Left Ventricle Right Ventricle Right Atrium

Left Atrium

Which of these conditions causes a permanent loss of neurologic function? (choose one or both) Ischemic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke

Ischemic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke

T/F: SNR is dependent on the quality of the coil

True

T/F: When positioning a patient's legs for a lower extremity vascular study, the legs should be placed as far apart as possible.

False

When imaging the wrist, the optimal plane in which to visualize the carpal tunnel is the: Oblique Sagital Coronal Axial

Axial

Which of the following is the most inferior portion of the spinal cord? Sacral hiatus Cauda equina Conus medullaris Filum terminale

Conus medullaris

T/F: When performing a MSK study, it is often helpful to place a marker over the ROI.

True

Adhesive capsulitis is also known as: Tennis elbow Carpal tunnel Frozen shoulder Trough lesion

Frozen shoulder

Indications for MRV of the lower extremities includes all but which of the following? Recent twisted ankle Recent orthopedic surgery Leg swelling Evaluation for free-floating thrombus

Recent twisted ankle

A patient who presents with numbness of the first three digits and nighttime pain from the wrist to the forearm most likely has: Carpal tunnel syndrome Sarchoidosis Hamartoma De Quervain Tenosynovitis

Carpal tunnel syndrome

To image the veins of the head: a pre-saturation pulse is placed superior to the FOV contrast must always be used the COW is visualized a pre-saturation pulse is placed inferior to the FOV

a pre-saturation pulse is placed inferior to the FOV

T/F: For an MRI of the hand or wrist, a patient may be positioned prone or supine, depending on the coil options available.

True

Enlargement of the left lobe of the liver is most likely a sign of which of the following diseases processes? Cirrhosis Renal failure Hepatic mets Ascites

Cirrhosis

T/F: Careful timing of post contrast pituitary scans is important because eventually the pituitary gland enhances itself, as well as a microadenoma, if present.

True

T/F: When positioning the patient for an MR examination of the shoulder, the humerus should be perpendicular to the scan table.

False

The "candy cane" view is best described by which of the following: Long axis view of the heart Sagital/oblique view of the pulmonary arteries Axial view of the thoracic aorta Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta

Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta

T/F: The most common site of aneurysms in the thoracic aorta is the ascending aorta.

True

When scanning a routine female pelvis exam, axials would be angled in which manner? Perpendicular to the uterus Perpendicular to the cervix Parallel to the uterus Parallel to the cervix

Perpendicular to the uterus

At which level does the spinal cord typically terminate? L1-L2 L5-S1 L3-L4 L2-L3

L1-L2

CNR between pathology and other structures can best be demonstrated by which of the following? Non-contrast studies Lower field strength magnets Utilizing T1 sequences Suppression of normal tissues via sequences that null signal from certain tissues (i.e. FLAIR, STIR)

Suppression of normal tissues via sequences that null signal from certain tissues (i.e. FLAIR, STIR)

Which of the following is considered the most common cause of PAD? Leg numbness or weakness No pulse or weak pulse in the legs or feet Shiny skin on legs Atherosclerosis

Atherosclerosis

T/F: The emotional well being of a patient is just as important as their physical condition.

True

T/F: MRI can assist in detecting the presence of osteomyelitis.

True

T/F: MRA and MRV can be performed either with contrast or without contrast, using different imaging techniques.

True

T/F: There are five ventricles in the brain.

False

Common sources of artifact for an orbital MR exam include all of the following except: using a small FOV- aliasing flow motion in the Circle of Willis eye movement zipper artifact

zipper artifact

The American Cancer Society recommends screening breast MRI in addition to annual mammograms in which of the following? To evaluate implant integrity. Patients with less than a 15% lifetime risk of breast cancer. In patients with greater than 20% lifetime risk of breast cancer. In all women over the age of 40.

In patients with greater than 20% lifetime risk of breast cancer.

Which of the following best represents a coarse matrix? 256 X 128 256 X 256 512 X 512

256 X 128

T/F: Teratomas are present at birth and may contain hair, teeth, and other tissues.

True

The coil usually preferred to image the shoulder for the maximization of SNR is the: Phased array coil Surface or local coil Small extremity coil Body coil

Surface or local coil

Which of the following is a malignant bone tumor that affects children and young adults? the tumor may start anywhere in the body, usually in the long bones of the arms and legs, the pelvis, or the chest. Transitional Cell Carcinoma Chordoma Teratoma Ewing Sarcoma

Ewing Sarcoma

T/F: There are four ventricles in the brain.

True

Which of the following best describes the ACL? Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the posterior tibial spine Extends from the medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine Extends from the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine

Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine

T/F: Patients are positioned supine head first for run-off exams.

False

To minimize aliasing in axial slices of the thoracic spine, one would use: Saturation pulses Oversampling Chemical presaturation Breath holds

Oversampling

T/F: MRI is the most sensitive detection method for calcaneal stress fracture.

True

Which of the following would best demonstrate hemorrhage? FSE GRE STIR FLAIR

GRE

Scan time can be decreased by using which of the following? A long TR The most NEX allowable A fine matrix A short TR

A short TR

Which diagnosis is considered most likely in a patient who presents with pain, swelling, and reddening over the olecranon. The MR images show bone marrow and soft tissue edema. Rheumatoid arthritis SLAP tear Osteomyelitis Triceps tendon tear

Osteomyelitis

Which of the following sequences provides temporal resolution of enhancing lesions and indicates brain activity? T1 Perfusion STIR FLAIR

Perfusion

T/F: Careful timing of post contrast pituitary scans is important because eventually the pituitary gland enhances itself, as well as a microadenoma, if present.

True

T/F: The optimal imaging window for evaluation of breast cancer is immediately following the start of the menstrual cycle.

False

Which of the following sequences fills all of K space in one repetition by using very long echo trains? SE STIR EPI GRE

EPI

A patient presents with pain in the neck and shoulder, numbness and tingling in the fingers, and a weak grip. Which of the following is most likely the cause? Schwannoma Whiplash Thoracic outlet syndrome Herniated thoracic disc

Thoracic outlet syndrome

T/F: Careful explanation of free breathing and breath holds is crucial to a good abdominal study.

True

For optimal imaging of the cervical spine, patient positioning and local coil placement are: Supine/around the neck to include from C1 to C7 Prone/on top of the neck to include from C1 to C7 Supine/on top of the neck to include from C1 to C7 Supine/beside the neck to include from C1 to C7

Supine/around the neck to include from C1 to C7

T/F: Contrast is routinely used in the cervical spine for patients with a diagnosis of MS.

True

T/F: MRA is generally considered "non-invasive."

True

Prior to an MRCP examination, patients should be NPO for __ hours. three four two one

four

T/F: Toe movement will not affect MR foot image quality.

False

Axial slices through the thoracic spine are angled parallel to: Z joints disc spaces spinous processes spinal cord

disc spaces

T/F: Any tissue can be nulled as long as an RF pulse matching its precessional frequency is applied to the imaging volume before excitation.

True

How often must we sample frequencies, according to the Nyquist Theorem? Twice per cycle Three times per cycle Once per cycle Less than once per cycle

Twice per cycle

SSFP sequences usually produce images that are ___ weighted. T1 T2 T2\* T1 or T2\*

T/F: MR microscopy (MRM) is useful as a research tool when studying detail in a very small area of tissue.

True

Which of the following does NOT reduce flow motion artifact? SAT GMN ECG gating Subtraction

Subtraction

What unit is used to express the amount of chemical shift? gyromagnetic ratio ppm MHz Hz

ppm

The homogeneity of a magnetic field is expressed in units of: MHz (megaHertz) G (gauss) ppm (parts per million) T (Tesla)

ppm (parts per million)

To maintain the magnetic field of a resistive magnet, the following should be applied to the magnet coils: Heat Cooling Water Current

Current

What is another term for phase ghosting? Phase mismapping Phase wrap Aliasing Chemical misregistraion

Phase mismapping

Which of the following best describe spin-lattice relaxation? (Choose all that apply) Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery. T2 Decay T1 Recovery Time it takes 88% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in tissue.

Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery. T1 Recovery

In which direction does truncation occur? (Choose all that apply) Slice Select Axis Anterior to Posterior Frequency Axis Phase Axis

Phase Axis

Which part of K space do steep phase gradients fill? Outer lines of K space, both positive and negative Central lines of K space, positive only Outer lines of K space, positive only Central lines of K space, both positive and negative

Outer lines of K space, both positive and negative

Which gradient performs phase encoding for coronal slices? Y gradient Z gradient X gradient Any combination of gradients

X gradient

How is K space filled in Fast Gradient Echo Sequences? (choose all that apply) Elliptical filling Centric filling Keyhole filling Outside to inside

Centric filling Keyhole filling

T/F: Parallel imaging is usually used to increase resolution or decrease scan time

True

What does the slope of the frequency encoding gradient determine? The size of the phase matrix The size of the anatomy covered along the frequency encoding axis The FOV The 180 degree rephasing pulse

The size of the anatomy covered along the frequency encoding axis The FOV

When is the phase encoding gradient switched on in a pulse sequence? Between TRs During the spin echo Usually just before the application of the 180 degree rephasing pulse Before the 90 degree excitation pulse

Usually just before the application of the 180 degree rephasing pulse

Magnetic field strength can be expressed in units of Tesla (T) or gauss (G), where: 1 T = 1 G 1. 5 T = 1500 G 3. 0 T = 0.3 G 1 T = 10 000 G

1 T = 10 000 G

What are the advantages of propeller K Space filling? Better detail Bright signal Rapid imaging, increased SNR and CNR, reduced motion artifact. Low SNR but high resolution

Rapid imaging, increased SNR and CNR, reduced motion artifact.

What is the unit of K space? Inches Radians per centimeter Degrees Radians per meter

Radians per centimeter

Which of the following is a possible cause of shading artifact? Inhomogeneities in the main magnetic field A leak in the RF shielding of the scan room Spin echo sequences A hemorrhage

Inhomogeneities in the main magnetic field

Which cryogen is commonly used to super cool wires in MRI? Hydrogen Liquid helium Niobium Alnico

Liquid helium

T/F: During EPI all the lines of K space are filled during one repetition.

True

The anatomy of white matter tracts can be mapped using strong multi-directional gradients in which of the following? diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) continuous arterial spin labeling (CASL) CBV SWI

diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

Contrast enhanced MRAs are acquired with all of the following EXCEPT: Bolus tracking Fluoro triggering Test bolus VENC settings

VENC settings

Determine which of the following parameters would result in the most entry slice phenomenon (i.e. entry slice phenomenon would increase compared to the other options). Slice 10 out of 20, 400 TR, .7 mm slice thickness Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness Slice 1 out of 20, 400 TR, 1.2 mm slice thickness Slice 10 out of 20, 3000 TR, 1.2 mm slice thickness

Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic? Pulse sequence type

Extrinsic

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic? T1 recovery time

Intrinsic

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic? TR

Extrinsic

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic? Flip Angle

Extrinsic

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic? T2 decay time

Intrinsic

T/F: Gadolinium chelates are ferromagnetic.

False

T/F: The SNR is enhanced when using local coils.

True

Which of the following are methods of reducing phase ghosting? (Choose all that apply) Using respiratory compensation techniques Decrease the TE Carefully explain the procedure to the patient Use pre-saturation pulses Swap phase and frequency Use "no phase wrap" software

Using respiratory compensation techniques Carefully explain the procedure to the patient Use pre-saturation pulses Swap phase and frequency

Which gradient performs slice selection for sagital slices? Z gradient X gradient Any combination of gradients Y gradient

X gradient

Which of the following sequence(s)/technique(s) can be used to make vessels appear bright? Gradient Echo Imaging Gradient Moment Rephasing Contrast Enhancement All of the above

All of the above

T2\* decay is faster than T2 decay since it is a combination of which of the following effects? T2 decay itself \* weighting Dephasing due to magnetic field inhomogeneities T1 decay with spin echo

T2 decay itself Dephasing due to magnetic field inhomogeneities

T/F: Intra-voxel dephasing results in an increase in total signal amplitude from the voxel.

False

Which of the following best describes a use for MR Spectroscopy (MRS)? To demonstrate perfusion To aid in brain tumor staging To show ankle anatomy

To aid in brain tumor staging

Enhanced MR images are evaluated for sensitivity and specificity, where sensitivity is ________ and specificity is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The ability to detect the lesion/the ability to classify the lesion TR used to evaluate the lesion/TE used to evaluate the lesion The ability to classify the lesion/the ability to detect the lesion TE used to evaluate the lesion/TR used to evaluate the lesion

The ability to detect the lesion/the ability to classify the lesion

What are the guidelines for pregnant employees? (Choose all that apply) Pregnant employees MUST transfer to x-ray once they've announced their pregnancy to the MRI department. No changes to pregnant employees work environment in MRI. Everyone knows that MRI doesn't use radiation. Pregnant employees may enter the scan room, but should leave before scanning begins. Pregnant employees are exempt from scanning and may only do paperwork.

Pregnant employees may enter the scan room, but should leave before scanning begins.

What is the available imaging time using these parameters? R to R 800 ms, trigger window 10%, delay after trigger 4 ms. 800 ms 700 ms 716 ms 688 ms

716 ms

What happens to the alignment of hydrogen protons when placed in an external magnetic field? (Check all that apply) Slightly more nuclei line up with the main magnetic field than against it. Nothing until an RF pulse is applied. The magnetic moments of the nuclei align with or against the main magnetic field. More nuclei oppose the main magnetic field than line up with the main magnetic field.

Slightly more nuclei line up with the main magnetic field than against it. The magnetic moments of the nuclei align with or against the main magnetic field.

T/F: Intrinsic parameters are those that cannot be changed because they are inherent to the body's tissues.

True

Which of the following best describes a remedy for cross excitation? Excite alternate slices during the acquisition Use a long tE Use spin echo sequences Call the service engineer

Excite alternate slices during the acquisition

Ohm's law states: 1 T = 10 kG V = I (R) B = k (l) B = H (1+x)

V = I (R)

In which direction does truncation occur? (Choose all that apply) Phase Axis Frequency Axis Anterior to Posterior Slice Select Axis

Phase Axis

What controls the polarity of a gradient? The steepness of the slice select gradient The strength of the main magnetic field The sharpness of the frequency readout The direction of the current through the gradient coil

The direction of the current through the gradient coil

Which gradient performs slice selection for coronal slices? Y gradient Any combination of gradients X gradient Z gradient

Y gradient

The signal from flowing blood within vessels in MRI and MRA relies on: Third order motion Fourth order motion First order motion Second order motion

First order motion

The following image is displayed in what plane? Oblique Axial Coronal Sagittal

Axial

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Large Bowel Common iliac artery Small bowel Ilium Appendix

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Deltoid muscle Humeral Head Infraspinatus Muscle Clavicle Bone Scapular Spine Supraspinatus Muscle

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Extensor Digitorum Brevis Muscle Calcaneus Navicular Talus Abductor Hallicus Muscle Cuboid

Label vessels in the image below. 1 2 3 4 5

Aorta Right Coronary Artery Left Anterior Descending Artery Circumflex Artery Left Coronary Artery

What pathology is visible in this image? Prostate cancer Ovarian cyst Uterine cancer Uterine fibroid Ovarian tumor

Uterine fibroid

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Neoplasm EDH Abscess SDH Ischemic stroke

Ischemic stroke

What pathology is seen in this image? CAD Myxoma Pericardial Effusion CHF

Pericardial Effusion

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Linear skull fracture Basilar skull fracture Ping-pong skull fracture Epidural hematoma Depressed skull fracture

Epidural hematoma Depressed skull fracture

What pathology is seen in this image? Aortic Aneurysm CAD Pericardial Effusion PE

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Blow-out fracture Nasal fracture Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture Dental abscess LeFort fracture

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

What pathology is visible in this image? Lymphoma Liver cancer Splenic Laceration Gastric cancer

Lymphoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Gastric cancer Splenic Laceration Lymphoma Cirrhosis

Gastric cancer

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? (choose all correct) Edema Ischemic stroke ICB SDH

Edema ICB

What pathology is seen in this image? PE CAD Pericardial Effusion Myxoma

Myxoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Liver cancer Lymphoma Splenic Laceration Gastric cancer

Splenic Laceration

What pathology is seen in this image? Spina bifida occulta Meningocele Myelomeningocele

Meningocele

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Depressed skull fracture Epidural hematoma Linear skull fracture Basilar skull fracture Ping-pong skull fracture

Depressed skull fracture

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Meningioma Spina bifida Spinal Ependymoma Tethered cord

Spina bifida

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Dental abscess Nasal fracture LeFort fracture Blow-out fracture Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

LeFort fracture

What pathology is visible in this image? RCC Wilm’s tumor Kidney laceration Adrenal mass Renal Stone

Wilm’s tumor

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number twelve on the image shown below: Teres major muscle Scapula Acromion Spine of the scapula

Scapula

What type of isolation precaution is most relevant when infectious agents can be suspended in air for long periods of time over long distances? Standard Precaution Airborne Isolation Droplet Isolation Contact Isolation

Airborne Isolation

Which of these precautions is most relevant when infectious agents may be spread through contaminated medical instruments? Contact Isolation Droplet Isolation Standard Precaution Airborne Isolation

Contact Isolation

Which of the following may be caused by feelings of apprehension or pain? (Choose all correct) Syncope Bradycardia Hypotension Vasovagal Response

Syncope Bradycardia Hypotension Vasovagal Response

Which of these procedures is required during IV catheter insertion? Sterile Technique Medical Asepsis

Sterile Technique

Which of the follow is a transmission-based infection precaution? (Choose all correct) Airborne Isolation Droplet Isolation Contact Isolation Standard Precaution

Airborne Isolation Droplet Isolation Contact Isolation

How long do the symptoms of a TIA typically last? \<1 hour \<1 minute \>24 hours Permanently

\<1 hour

What is the minimum amount of iodinated contrast that may induce an allergic reaction? 50 1% of the patient’s total blood volume 10 ml \>1 ml

\>1 ml

Which of the following medications should be adminstered to a patient with a known iodine allergy prior to IV infusion of iodinated contrast media? (choose all correct) Antibiotics Benedryl NSAIDS Steroids

Benedryl Steroids

Which of these medications function as an immunosuppressant to counteract hives and/or itching? (Choose all correct) Solu-medrol Benedryl Atropine Epinephrine

Solu-medrol Benedryl

Which of the following represents a normal creatinine value? .8 18 1.8 .08

Which of these procedures is also referred to as aseptic technique? Sterile Technique Medical Asepsis

Sterile Technique

Which of the following risk factors require a renal function test prior to administrattion of iodinated contrast? (choose all correct) STD/AIDS Prior contrast reaction Renal failure Liver disease

STD/AIDS Renal failure Liver disease

Which of the following are considered common vasovagal responses? (Choose all correct) Syncope Fainting Spontaneous arrhythmias Death

Syncope Fainting

Which of these factors potential affect the pharmacokinetics of a drug? (choose all correct) Patient immune status Patient age Patient gender Patient weight

Patient immune status Patient age Patient gender Patient weight

Hypertonic solution refers to: Solution with a changing solute concentration Solution with a lower solute concentration Solution with an equal amount of concentration Solution with a higher solute concentration

Solution with a higher solute concentration

Which of the following represents a normal BUN? 3,000+ 3 13 303

Which of these lab tests may indicate a patients potential for bleeding? (choose all correct) Hematocrit Platelet count WBC count Hemoglobin

Platelet count

Which of these medications might be administered if a patient is having only hives and itching? (Choose all correct) Benedryl Solu-medrol Zofran Epinephrine

Benedryl Solu-medrol

Which of the following describes a required characteristic of IV injectable contrast media? (choose all correct) Low-density barium Isotonic Water-soluble Non-ionic

Isotonic Water-soluble Non-ionic

The SVC is formed by the joining of which of the following vessels? (choose all correct) IVC Azygos vein Right brachiocephalic vein Left brachiocephalic vein

Right brachiocephalic vein Left brachiocephalic vein

The cerebellum communicates with other aspects of the brain by way of which of the following? Peduncles Tentorium All of the above Vermis

Peduncles

Which of the following vessels is visualized on the posterior surface of the pancreas? Hepatic artery Left gastric artery Splenic artery SMA

Splenic artery

T/F: The kidneys are oriented deep to the muscles of the abdominal wall.

True

Much of the SB is located within which quadrant of the abdomen? LUQ LLQ RUQ RLQ

LLQ

The descending colon is visualized in what portion of the abdomen? Central Left Right None of the above

Left

Which of the following is the visceral layer of the heart’s serous membrane? Myocardium Pericardium Epicardium Endocardium

Epicardium

Each common carotid artery bifurcates into internal and external carotid arteries at the level of the: Foramen magnum Thyroid cartilage Jugular notch EAM

Thyroid cartilage

T/F:The anterior and external jugular veins usually drain superficial areas such as the face and scalp.

True

Which vertebral ligament can be seen on sagittal imaging extending between the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae? Posterior longitudinal ligament Interspinous ligament Ligamentum flavum Anterior longitudinal ligamen

Interspinous ligament

The left lung has how many fissures? One Two Three

One

Which of the following is formed within the transverse processes of the sacral vertebrae? Sacral hiatus Sacral promontory Lateral masses SI Joint

Lateral masses

Which of the following is a fibrous tissue lining the inner walls of the hearts chambers? Myocardium Epicardium Pericardium Endocardium

Endocardium

Which of the following is not a salivary gland? Parathyroid Submandibular Sublingual Parotid

Parathyroid

Which of the following forms the wings attaching to the sacrum? Ilium Pubis Ischium

Ilium

Which of the following supplies blood to the majority of the body? Pulmonary arteries Coronary arteries Aorta Pulmonary veins

Aorta

Which of the following is accessed during an epidural to inject anesthetic agents? Subarachnoid space None of the above Central canal Subdural space

None of the above

Which primary bronchus has a greater diameter? Left Right

Right

The omentum attaches to which of the following structures? Stomach Large bowel Small bowel Liver

Stomach

Which of the following in not a branch of the celiac truck? Hepatic artery SMA Left gastric artery Splenic artery

SMA

The peritoneum is a: Serous Membrane Muscle Vessel Organ

Serous Membrane

Which of the following is also known as the ala? Lateral masses Sacral Foramina Sacral promontory Sacral hiatus

Lateral masses

Which of the following describes the most anterior structure of the female pelvis? Rectum Uterus Prostate Bladder

Bladder

T/F: The large nerve exiting the eye is termed the ophthalmic nerve.

False

Which of these is the only portion of the colon that is peritoneal? Cecum Transverse colon Descending colon Ascending colon

Transverse colon

Which primary bronchus is directed more inferiorly than laterally? Right Left

Right

The mesentery is primary attached to which of the following structures? Small bowel Liver Stomach Large bowel

Small bowel

An exaggerated curve of the lumbar spine is termed: Kyphosis Hunchback Scoliosis Lordosis

Lordosis

The external and middle ear are separated by the: Eustachian tube EAM Auricle Tympanic membrane

Tympanic membrane

Which aspect of the scapula articulates with the humeral head? Acromion process Coracoid process Scapular spine Glenoid fossa

Glenoid fossa

Which of the following refers to the heart muscle? Myocardium Epicardium Endocardium

Myocardium

Which of these pathologies is sometimes accompanied by meningocele formation? Ankylosing Spondylitis Tethered cord Spina Bifida Spinal Meningioma

Spina Bifida

What is the most common etiology of colon cancer? Ulcerative colitis Polyp neoplasm Colic ulcer Crohn’s disease

Polyp neoplasm

hich of the following describes the appearance of lung cancer in specialty imaging? (choose all correct) Rim-enhancing Poorly defined neoplasm Single lesions only Most common in the mediastinum

Rim-enhancing Most common in the mediastinum

Which of these pathologies have the most similar presentation in diagnostic imaging? (choose two) Primary lung cancer Pneumonia Pleural effusion Tuberculosis

Pneumonia Tuberculosis

Which of these conditions is also called an “intracranial bleed”? (choose one or both) Ischemic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke

Hemorrhagic stroke

Which of these conditions commonly exist secondary to primary or metastatic lung cancer? (choose all correct) Abscess formations Pulmonary Embolism Necrosis Pleural effusions

Abscess formations Necrosis Pleural effusions

Which of these conditions appears in sectional imaging as an enlarged artery? Choose multiple if applicable. Simple aneurysm Ruptured Aneurysm Dissecting aneurysm

Simple aneurysm Ruptured Aneurysm Dissecting aneurysm

T/F: Pneumonia can infect the entire lung.

True

Which of these conditions appear most similar on sectional imaging? (choose two) Bronchogenic Carcinoma Hemothorax Pleural Effusion Tuberculosis

Hemothorax Pleural Effusion

Which of the following statement concerning liver cancer are true? (choose all correct) Primary liver cancer is more common than secondary liver cancer Metastatic liver cancer will enhance during the venous phase of imaging Primary liver cancer will enhance during the arterial phase of imaging Metastatic liver cancer can be both singular or multi-focal

Metastatic liver cancer will enhance during the venous phase of imaging Primary liver cancer will enhance during the arterial phase of imaging Metastatic liver cancer can be both singular or multi-focal

Which of these fractures is associated with a floating face? LeFort fractures Nasal fractures Blow-out fractures Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures

LeFort fractures

Which of these lesions grows from the Schwann cell’s of the 8th cranial nerve? Pituitary adenoma Meningiomas Medulloblastoma Acoustic Neuromas Astrocytoma

Acoustic Neuromas

Which of the following imaging characteristics indicate prostate cancer as opposed to BPH? (Choose all correct) urine outflow obstructions General enlargement lymphadenopathy asymmetry

lymphadenopathy asymmetry

Which of the following are likely indicators of bladder cancer? (Choose all correct) focal mass lesion renal stone hydronephrosis asymmetrical wall thickening

focal mass lesion asymmetrical wall thickening

Which of these brain neoplasms is potentially fatal? (choose all correct) Metastatic brain cancer Primary brain cancer Secondary brain cancer Benign brain neoplasm

Metastatic brain cancer Primary brain cancer Secondary brain cancer Benign brain neoplasm

Define Spina bifida occulta

incomplete closure of the spinal column

Define Meningocele

a collection of CSF formed by herniation of the meninges through an opening in the vertebral canal

Define Myelomeningocele

herniation of the spinal cord through an opening in the vertebral canal

Which of these fractures is least likely to cause boney protrusion into the cranium? None of these fractures intrude into the cranium. Depressed skull fracture Linear skull fracture Ping-pong fracture

Linear skull fracture

When imaging the wrist, the optimal plane in which to visualize the carpal tunnel is the: Sagital Oblique Coronal Axial

Axial

Which of the following sequences is known for its sensitivity to magnetic susceptibility? Perfusion FLAIR GRE SE

GRE

T/F: Leiomyomas are benign tumors that arise from overgrowth of smooth muscle and connective tissue in the bladder.

False

Which cranial nerve has receptors for the sense of smell? CN VI CN III CN II CN I

CN I

Which of the following is thought to be due to chronic entrapment of the nerve by the intermetatarsal ligament? Synovial sarcoma Morton's Neuroma Calcaneal fatigue fracture PVNS

Morton's Neuroma

T/F: The main source of artifact in the brain is from flow motion of the popliteal artery.

False

To tighten the tendons of the rotator cuff, positioning for shoulder imaging may require: Flexion Neutral Position Slight external rotation Slight internal rotation Extension

Slight external rotation

Which of the following would best demonstrate hemorrhage? FSE STIR GRE FLAIR

GRE

Which of the following sequences uses a 90 degree flip angle followed by several 180 degree rephasing pulses? IR GRE SE FSE

FSE

Which of the following describes a typical injury pattern observed after a posterior glenohumeral dislocation? Adhesive capulitis Hill-Sachs lesion Paralabral joint cyst Trough lesion

Trough lesion

The optimal plane to use when evaluating patients for cruciate ligament tears of the knee is the: Sagital Axial Coronal Axial and coronal

Sagital

Which of the following best describes the appearance of acute stroke on an axial DWI? Dark Bright

Bright

T/F: MRA is generally considered "non-invasive."

True

T/F: For an MRI of the hand or wrist, a patient may be positioned prone or supine, depending on the coil options available.

True

T/F: Coverage for axial slices includes the foramen magnum to the superior surface of the brain.

True

T/F: Patients are positioned supine head first for run-off exams.

False

T/F: Patient motion is a concern in hand imaging. The patient should be immobilized as much as possible.

True

T/F: A bursa is a fat filled sac that allows smooth motion between two uneven surfaces.

Fasle

T/F: Closed and open mouth views are performed for TMJs.

True

Enlargement of the left lobe of the liver is most likely a sign of which of the following diseases processes? Cirrhosis Hepatic mets Renal failure Ascites

Cirrhosis

Which of the following best describes the ACL? Extends from the medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine Extends from the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the posterior tibial spine

Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine

Patients fast prior to an MRCP to do all but which of the following? Promote gallbladder distension Decrease fluid secretions in the stomach and duodenum Increase the incidence of gallstones Decrease bowl peristalsis

Increase the incidence of gallstones

Which of the following is the most common mass in the popliteal fossa? Synovial sarcoma Baker cyst Popliteal aneurysm Ganglion cyst

Baker cyst

Which of the following is considered the most common cause of PAD? Shiny skin on legs No pulse or weak pulse in the legs or feet Atherosclerosis Leg numbness or weakness

Atherosclerosis

Which of the following best defines spatial resolution? The ratio of the amplitude of signal received by the coil to the amplitude of the noise The time required to complete the acquisition of data The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas The ability to distinguish two between two points as separate and distinct

The ability to distinguish two between two points as separate and distinct

Which of the following sequences provides temporal resolution of enhancing lesions and indicates brain activity? STIR FLAIR Perfusion T1

Perfusion

T/F: FOV boundaries for sagital thoracic spine images include from T2 to L1.

False

To minimize pulsatile flow motion artifacts, cardiac images are acquired by: Taking the patient's pulse, calculating the heart rate in beats per minute, then entering this data into the imaging system Attaching ECG leads, monitoring the cardiac cycle and triggering the pulse sequence from each R wave Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation None of the above

Attaching ECG leads, monitoring the cardiac cycle and triggering the pulse sequence from each R wave

To minimize aliasing in axial slices of the thoracic spine, one would use: Oversampling Chemical presaturation Breath holds Saturation pulses

Oversampling

When using MRA to evaluate peripheral vascular flow, such as that within the arteries of the legs, saturation pulses are placed: Placed in the acquired slices Placed superior to the acquired slices Not necessary Placed inferior to the acquired slices

Placed inferior to the acquired slices

Axial slices through the thoracic spine are angled parallel to: Z joints spinous processes disc spaces spinal cord

disc spaces

T/F: A Chiari Malformation can be see on a cervical spine image.

True

T/F: Contrast is routinely used in the cervical spine for patients with a diagnosis of MS.

True

Spatial resolution may be increased by selecting which of the following? Coarse matrices Thin Slices Thick slices A large FOV

Thin Slices

Which of the following best describes ascites? The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity A type of kidney failure An infection of the spleen A disease in which the liver becomes permanently damaged

The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity

The hip is one of the most frequent sites for which of the following: ACL tears Baker cysts Avascular necrosis Ganglion cysts

Avascular necrosis

To image the veins of the head: contrast must always be used the COW is visualized a pre-saturation pulse is placed inferior to the FOV a pre-saturation pulse is placed superior to the FOV

a pre-saturation pulse is placed inferior to the FOV

Which of the following marks the upper boundary of breast tissue? Clavicle Third rib Sternum Chest muscles

Clavicle

T/F: When positioning a patient for a head MRI exam, the horizontal alignment light should pass through the nasion.

True

Which of the following is another word for bulging of one or both eyes? Proptosis COW Pseudotumor Sarcoid

Proptosis

Thoracic outlet syndrome

T/F: When positioning the patient for an MR examination of the shoulder, the humerus should be perpendicular to the scan table.

False

For optimal imaging of the cervical spine, patient positioning and local coil placement are: Prone/on top of the neck to include from C1 to C7 Supine/on top of the neck to include from C1 to C7 Supine/beside the neck to include from C1 to C7 Supine/around the neck to include from C1 to C7

Supine/around the neck to include from C1 to C7

Adhesive capsulitis is also known as: Frozen shoulder Tennis elbow Trough lesion Carpal tunnel

Frozen shoulder

The coil usually preferred to image the shoulder for the maximization of SNR is the: Small extremity coil Phased array coil Body coil Surface or local coil

Surface or local coil

T/F: All halos are MRI safe.

False

T/F: Wrist imaging requires a small dedicated surface coil.

True

To minimize magnetic susceptibility artifact from a hip prosthesis, a technologist should: Use GRE sequences Use as small a FOV as possible Use SE or FSE sequences with a broad receive bandwidth Increase the SNR

Use SE or FSE sequences with a broad receive bandwidth

T/F: Contrast is routinely used for disc disease in the cervical spine.

False

In which direction does aliasing occur? (Choose all that apply) Frequency Axis Anterior to Posterior Phase Axis Slice Select Axis

Frequency Axis Phase Axis

What is the maximum field strength allowed for clinical imaging of adults in the USA? 3 T 4 T 8 T 10 T

8 T

What MUST be done prior to anyone entering the scan room? (Select the BEST answer) The completed screening sheet must be signed by a level II staff member and the patient must be scanned with the metal detector, prior to admittance to the MRI scan room. Pat the patient down for metal objects. The patient must be scanned with the metal detector. A screening sheet must be filled out and in the patient's chart.

The completed screening sheet must be signed by a level II staff member and the patient must be scanned with the metal detector, prior to admittance to the MRI scan room.

T/F: Flow affects image quality.

True

What is T2 decay? (Select all that apply) Caused by the nuclei giving up their energy to the surrounding environment. The time it takes 63% of longitudianl magnetization to recover in the tissue. Spin lattice relaxation Spin-spin relaxation that results in decay or loss of coherent transverse magnetization.

Spin-spin relaxation that results in decay or loss of coherent transverse magnetization.

When is the slice select gradient switched on during a spin echo pulse sequence? It is always on during the scan During the excitation pulse only During the rephasing pulse only During the 90 and 180 degree pulses

During the 90 and 180 degree pulses

Which of the following does NOT reduce flow motion artifact? SAT Subtraction GMN ECG gating

Subtraction

T/F: The purpose of magnetic field shimming is to reduce the size of the fringe field.

False

What unit is used to express the amount of chemical shift? Hz ppm MHz gyromagnetic ratio

ppm

T/F: Even echo rephasing reduces intra-voxel dephasing.

True

In which direction does truncation occur? (Choose all that apply) Slice Select Axis Phase Axis Frequency Axis Anterior to Posterior

Phase Axis

What are the two results of resonance? (Choose from the list below) The NMV moves out of alignment and away from B0. The magnetic moments of hydrogen nuclei move into phase with each other. The NMV moves into a repeating pattern of +/- 100 MHZ. The magnetic momements of hydrogen nuclei move out of phase with each other.

The NMV moves out of alignment and away from B0. The magnetic moments of hydrogen nuclei move into phase with each other.

Which gradient performs slice selection for coronal slices? Z gradient Any combination of gradients X gradient Y gradient

Y gradient

Which of the following is a remedy for aliasing? Decreasing the TE Using "no phase wrap" software Decreasing the size of the FOV Decreasing the slice thickness

Using "no phase wrap" software

In which direction does phase ghosting occur? (Choose all applicable) Slice Select Axis Anterior to Posterior Phase Axis Frequency Axis

Phase Axis

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic: Pulse sequence type

Extrisic

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic: T1 recovery time

Intrinsic

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic: TR

Extrinsic

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic: Flip Angle

Extrinsic

Is the following extrinsic or intrinsic: T2 decay time

Intrinsic

The vascular signal, produced on time of flight MRA (TOF-MRA), relies on: PC Velocity-induced phase shifts Flow related enhancement MOTA

Flow related enhancement

T/F: Parallel imaging is usually used to increase resolution or decrease scan time.

True

Which of the following is a possible cause of shading artifact? A hemorrhage A leak in the RF shielding of the scan room Inhomogeneities in the main magnetic field Spin echo sequences

Inhomogeneities in the main magnetic field

What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of fat at 1T? 500 ms 200 ms 2000 ms 3000 ms

200 ms

In spin echo sequences using a pre-saturation pulse, what would persistent bright signal within the vessel indicate? Slow Flowing Blood Fast Flowing Blood Vascular Occlusion Blood Clot

Slow Flowing Blood Vascular Occlusion Blood Clot

Enhanced MR images are evaluated for sensitivity and specificity, where sensitivity is ________ and specificity is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The ability to classify the lesion/the ability to detect the lesion TE used to evaluate the lesion/TR used to evaluate the lesion TR used to evaluate the lesion/TE used to evaluate the lesion The ability to detect the lesion/the ability to classify the lesion

The ability to detect the lesion/the ability to classify the lesion

What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of water at 1T? 2500 ms 200 ms 2000 ms 500 ms

2500 ms

Which of the following can be used to improve coverage and at the same time maintain the signal from blood flowing within the larger volume? MC-TOF PC-MRA MOTSA Phase images

MOTSA

What is the gyromagnetic ratio of hydrogen? 21. 28 MHz/T 33. 8 MHz/T 42. 57 MHz/T 42. 57 MHz/G

42.57 MHz/T

Which of the following best describes a T1 weighted image? Bright fat Dark Water Dark Fat Bright water

Bright fat Dark Water

T/F: TOF phenomenon results in a dark vessel.

True

T/F: Perfusion is measured using MRI by tagging the fat in arterial blood during image acquisition.

False

Contrast enhanced MRAs are acquired with all of the following EXCEPT: VENC settings Bolus tracking Fluoro triggering Test bolus

VENC settings

T/F: The gyromagnetic ratio expresses the relationship between the angular momentum and the magnetic moment of each MR active nucleus.

True

When is the phase encoding gradient switched on in a pulse sequence? Before the 90 degree excitation pulse Between TRs Usually just before the application of the 180 degree rephasing pulse During the spin echo

Usually just before the application of the 180 degree rephasing pulse

T/F: There are no known contraindications to gadolinium contrast.

False

T/F: Scar tissue enhances in the lumbar spine shortly after the injection of contrast.

True

Fourier transform (FT) is a mathematical process that is used to convert MR signal from a FID into a spectrum. FT occurs in the: RF coil Array processor Image processor Gradient amplifier

Array processor

What is another term for phase ghosting? Chemical misregistraion Phase wrap Phase mismapping Aliasing

Phase mismapping

When using MRA to evaluate extracranial vascular flow, such as that within common carotid arteries, a recommended technique is: 3D time of flight MRA 3D phase contrast MRA All of the above 2D time of flight MRA

2D time of flight MRA

In which direction does aliasing occur? (Choose all that apply) Phase Axis Anterior to Posterior Slice Select Axis Frequency Axis

Phase Axis Frequency Axis

What is the unit of K space? Degrees Radians per meter Inches Radians per centimeter

Radians per centimeter

Select the three components of the magnetic field from those listed below. Precessional Frequency Field Time Varying Magnetic Fields Static Magnetic Field Faraday's Field Radiofrequency Fields

Time Varying Magnetic Fields Static Magnetic Field Radiofrequency Fields

Which sequence would be used to best visualize metastatic lesions in the bone? T2 weighted sequences Non-contrast imaging Fat saturation techniques with contrast FLAIR with contrast

Fat saturation techniques with contrast

What type of echoes are sampled during SS-FSE? Spin echoes Incoherent Gradient echoes Gradient echoes

Spin echoes

Which of the following best describe spin-lattice relaxation? (Choose all that apply) Time it takes 88% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in tissue. Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery. T1 Recovery T2 Decay

Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery. T1 Recovery

What is another name for a truncation artifact in a sagital cervical spine? Gyromagnetic Artifact Truncation Faraday Gibbs

Gibbs

The magnetic field strength in superconducting magnets is maintained with cryogens at a temperature of: 4 K 70°F (+/- 2°F) 269°F 450°C

4 K

In which direction does phase ghosting occur? (Choose all applicable) Anterior to Posterior Frequency Axis Phase Axis Slice Select Axis

Phase Axis

Which of the following is used to trigger each pulse sequence when using ECG gating? P wave R wave Q wave S wave

R wave

After gadolinium administration, it is recommended that which images are acquired? One T1 weighted image Multiple T2 weighted images Multiple T1 weighted images One T2 weighted image

Multiple T1 weighted images

Which of the following is/are result(s) of time of flight? Entry slice phenomenon High velocity signal void Flow-related enhancement Zipper effect

High velocity signal void Flow-related enhancement

What rule determines the direction of current flow through a coil, and the direction of the magnetic field that the current produces? MRI Fringe Field Rule Right hand thumb rule The size of the magnetic field Whether you are using an open or closed configuration

Right hand thumb rule

What do T2 images typically best demonstrate? Bony anatomy Pathology Fat Anatomy

Pathology

What EKG rhythm is represented by the graph? Ventricular Tachycardia A-fib Normal Sinus Rhythm Myocardial Infarction

Myocardial Infarction

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not labled

Abductor Digiti Muscles Pisiform Thenar muscles Trapezium Flexor Muscles Ulna

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D Not Labeled

Main Stem Bronchi Ascending Aorta Pulmonary Trunk Descending Aorta IVC

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Mandibular condyle Occipital bone Maxillary sinus EAM Sphenoid bone

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Large bowel Common iliac artery Small bowel Ilium Appendix

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Thyroid cartilage Common carotid artery SCM muscle Internal jugluar vein Intrernal carotid artery

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D E Not labeled

Lamina Intervertebral disc Psoas muscle Intervertebral foramina Erector spinae muscle Transverse foramina

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Mastoid air cells C1 C2 Transverse process Sphenoid sinuses

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Ischium Pubis Pubis symphysis Femur Ilium

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D E Not labeled

SVC Aorta Common Carotid Subclavian Artery Pulmonary Artery Subclavian vein

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose all correct) Hematoma Laceration Neoplasm Inflammation

Hematoma Laceration

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Arachnoid Cyst SDH Meningitis Medulloblastoma Abscess

Abscess

What pathology is seen in this image? Aortic Aneurysm CHF Pulmonary Embolism Pericardial Effusion

Pulmonary Embolism

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Medulloblastoma EDH SDH Ischemic stroke ICB

SDH

What pathology is visible in the image below? Arachnoid Cyst MS Hydrocephalus AVM Medulloblastoma

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Nasal fracture Blow-out fracture Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture Dental abscess Mandible Fracture

Dental abscess

What pathology is seen in this image? PE Pericardial Effusion Aortic Aneurysm CAD

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Ependymoma Tethered cord Spinal Metastasis Spinal Meningioma

Spinal Ependymoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Hemangiomas Liver cancer Cirrhosis Liver laceration

Liver cancer

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Depressed skull fracture Basilar skull fracture Epidural hematoma Linear skull fracture Ping-pong skull fracture

Basilar skull fracture Linear skull fracture

What pathology is visible in this image? Horseshoe kidney Renal Stone Wilm’s tumor RCC

RCC

What pathology is visible in this image? Kidney laceration RCC Adrenal mass Renal Stone Wilm’s tumor

Adrenal mass

What pathology is visible in the image below? AVM MS Hydrocephalus Arachnoid Cyst Medulloblastoma

Hydrocephalus

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? (choose all correct) ICB Ischemic stroke Medulloblastoma Edema SDH

ICB Edema

What pathology is seen in this image? Aortic Aneurysm Pericardial Effusion PE CAD

Aortic Aneurysm

What pathology is seen in this image? Ankylosing Spondylitis Spondylolisthesis Tethered Cord Compression Fracture

Spondylolisthesis

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Acoustic Neuroma Astrocytoma Metastatic brain cancer Medulloblastoma Pituitary Adenoma

Metastatic brain cancer

What pathology is seen in this image? PE Myxoma CAD Pericardial Effusion

Myxoma

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Blow-out fracture Nasal fracture Dental abscess LeFort fracture Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

LeFort fracture

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Epidural hematoma Basilar skull fracture Linear skull fracture Ping-pong skull fracture Depressed skull fracture

Ping-pong skull fracture

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose multiple) GB Cancer Pancreatitis Cholelithiasis Liver cancer Pancreatic Cancer

GB Cancer Liver cancer

What pathology is seen in this image? CAD Myxoma CHF Pericardial Effusion

CHF

What pathology is visible in this image? Cholelithiasis Pancreatic Cancer Liver cancer GB Cancer Pancreatitis

Pancreatitis

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number twelve on the image shown below: Acromion Scapula Teres major muscle Spine of the scapula

Scapula

MRSA requires what kind of isolation precaution? Standard Precaution Contact Isolation Droplet Isolation Airborne Isolation

Contact Isolation

What is the first step a technologist should take in responding to an ICM reaction? Discontinue ICM administration Acquire vital signs Call for nursing and Physician/Radiologist on staff Assess patient’s ABC’s (airways, breathing, and circulation)

Discontinue ICM administration

Define Antiplatelets

A substance that inhibits or destroys the effects of platelets

Define Antibiotics

A soluble substance derived from a mold or bacterium that kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms

Define Anxiolytics

An anti-anxiety medication

Define Antiemetics

A drug that prevents or minimizes nausea and vomitting

Define Anticoagulants

A drug that prevents or reduces the coagulation (clotting) of blood

Which of the following could potential cause a vasovagal response? (Choose all correct) Fear Anxiety Pain Medications

Fear Anxiety Pain Medications

Which of the following represents a desirable TI? 2: 1 1: 2 1: 30,000 30,000:1

30,000:1

Which of these medications would be especially valuable to a patient experiencing bronchospasms during a contrast reaction? Lasix Albuterol Epinephrine Atropine

Albuterol

Which of these procedures should be followed any time the patient's skin is intentionally perforated? Medical Asepsis Sterile Technique

Sterile Technique

Which of the follow is a critical cardiac arrhythmia? (Choose all correct) Ventricular Fibrillation Atrial Fibrillation Asystole Ventricular Tachycardia

Ventricular Fibrillation Asystole Ventricular Tachycardia

Which of the following is a process of the sphenoid bone? (choose all correct) Greater wings Tuberculum Sellae Lesser wings Sella Turcica

Greater wings Tuberculum Sellae Lesser wings Sella Turcica

The foramen spinosum provides passage for which of the following? Maxillary Nerve Middle meningeal artery Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve Optic Nerve

Middle meningeal artery

Which of the following drains blood from the posterior thorax and abdomen? Right brachiocephalic vein Left brachiocephalic vein IVC Azygos vein

Azygos vein

What single cranial bone articulated with all other cranial bones? Sphenoid Ethmoid Occipital Parietal

Sphenoid

The largest immovable bones of the face are which of the following? Zygoma Palatine Mandible Maxillae

Maxillae

The most lateral aspect of the lung base may be described as which of the following? Costal surface Hilum Costo-phrenic angles Lung root

Costo-phrenic angles

T/F: The lateral masses of C1 bear the weight of the head.

True

The cecum is located within which quadrant of the abdomen? RUQ LUQ LLQ RLQ

RLQ

Which vertebral ligament runs along the ventral surface of the vertebral column? Interspinous ligament Ligamentum flavum Anterior longitudinal ligament Posterior longitudinal ligament

Anterior longitudinal ligament

Deoxygenated blood leaves the heart via what chamber? Left Atrium Right Ventricle Left Ventricle Right Atrium

Right Ventricle

The first _______ ribs are considered true ribs. Seven Five Eight Six

Seven

Which of these structures describes the junction of the stomach and the esophagus? Antrum Cardia Fundus Pylorus

Cardia

T/F: The appendix is always found directly behind the cecum at the level of S1.

False

The right sided branch of the celiac trunk is which of the following? Hepatic artery Left gastric Splenic artery SMA

Hepatic artery

Generally, the most superior structure of the renal hilum is the: Ureter Any of the above Renal vein Renal artery

Renal artery

What fissure separates the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain? Central Fissure Interhemispheric Fissure Lateral Fissure Longitudinal Fissure

Central Fissure

Which of the following does not form the rami of the obturator foramen? Ischium Pubis Ilium

Ilium

The subarachnoid space is between which meninges? Dura and arachnoid Arachnoid and pia Pia and dura

Arachnoid and pia

Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only cervical vertebrae? Large vertebral bodies Fused transverse processes Transverse foramina Facets and demi-facets

Transverse foramina

Which of the sinuses is the largest? Maxillary Ethmoid Frontal Sphenoid

Maxillary

Which of the following muscle groups are the chief extends of the entire spine? Psoas muscles Transversospinal muscles Splenius muscles Erector spinae muscles

Erector spinae muscles

Which of the following structures is sometime situated above and behind the bladder? Prostate Uterus Iliac muscles Rectum

Uterus

Which portion of the temporal bone is considered the thickest boney aspect of the cranium? Tympanic Squamous Mastoid Petrous

Petrous

T/F: The 2nd cervical vertebra has both an anterior arch and a posterior arch.

False

Which of the following is an insertion site for the transversospinal muscles of the vertebral column? Transverse process Pedicle Articular Facets Lamina

Transverse process

Which of the following describes the anatomical unit of the lungs? Secondary lobules Lobes Alveoli Primary lobules

Primary lobules

Which of these conditions results in abnormal stiffening of the vertebral column? Tethered cord Spinal Meningioma Ankylosing Spondylitis Spina Bifida

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Which of these conditions is sometimes accompanied by an intradural lipoma? Spinal Meningioma Ankylosing Spondylitis Spina Bifida Tethered cord

Tethered cord

What is the most common primary neoplasm of the spinal cord? Astrocytoma Spinal Ependymoma Spinal Meningioma Spinal Metastasis

Spinal Ependymoma

Wilm’s tumor is most likely to affect which of the following demographics? Children Smokers Elderly Males

Children

T/F: The terms inflammation and infection are synonymous.

False

T/F: A patient diagnosed with CAD will invariably exhibit symptoms characteristic of MI.

False

Which of these conditions may result in or contribute to dental abscess formation? (Choose all correct) autoimmune disorders diabetes tooth infection radiation/chemotherapy

autoimmune disorders diabetes tooth infection radiation/chemotherapy

T/F: Lymphoma primarily affects the spleen.

False

Which of these conditions is most likely to be associated with an aneurysm? (Choose all correct) Intracranial bleed (ICB) Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH) Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

Define Ascites

abnormal fluid collections in the abdominal cavity

Define Abscess

an infected fluid collection

Define Hematoma

an abnormal collection of blood outside of a vascular structure

Define Colitis

inflammation of the colon

Which of these conditions may be secondary to cerebral atrophy? ICB Brain abscess Meningitis Hydrocephalus

Hydrocephalus

Uterine fibroids are also known as: Leiomyoma endometrial cancer BPH TCC

Leiomyoma

Which of the following are common causes of pneumonia? (choose all correct) Fungal infections Chemical inhalation Chest trauma Aspiration

Fungal infections Chemical inhalation Chest trauma Aspiration

What is the most common primary brain tumor? Medulloblastoma Acoustic Neuroma Meningiomas Astrocytoma Pituitary adenoma

Astrocytoma

Which of these conditions are idiopathic? (Choose all correct) Crohn’s disease Cirrhosis Ulcerative Colitis SBO

Crohn’s disease Ulcerative Colitis

Describe Cardiomegaly

enlarged heart

Describe CHF

insufficient caridac output

Decsribe Myxoma

benign tumor of the heart

Describe CAD

chronic obstruction of the coronary vessels

Describe Pericardial Effusion

excessaive fluid in the pericardium

T/F: Myeloma is the medical term for a tumor that begins in the brain or spinal cord.

False

The "candy cane" view is best described by which of the following: Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta Sagital/oblique view of the pulmonary arteries Long axis view of the heart Axial view of the thoracic aorta

Sagital/oblique view of the thoracic aorta

Which of the following is a demyelinating disease of the CNS? Graves disease Multiple sclerosis CCF COW

Multiple sclerosis

Positioning for an abdominal MRI would include centering the horizontal alignment light on the patient's: Belly button Iliac crest Xyphoid process Lower costal margin- L3

Lower costal margin- L3

Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs as a result of compression of which nerve? Median Radial Ulnar Transverse carpal

Median

Which of the following best defines CNR? The ratio of the amplitude of signal received by the coil to the amplitude of the noise The time required to complete the acquisition of data The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas The ability to distinguish between two points as separate and distinct

The difference in the SNR between two adjacent areas

Indications for and MRA of the Head include which of the following? Proptosis Suspected internal meniscal derangement Intracranial vascular assessment of aneurysms and infarcts Graves disease

Intracranial vascular assessment of aneurysms and infarcts

Which of the following best describes the ACL? Extends from the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine Extends from the medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the posterior tibial spine

Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine

To better evaluate the ACL, positioning for knee imaging may require: Extension 15 degree external rotation Flexion 15 degree internal rotation

15 degree external rotation

Coronal oblique images of the shoulder are angled parallel with which anatomy? Supraspinatus muscle AC joint Bicipital groove Glenoid cavity

Supraspinatus muscle

Which of the following best describes what the "QRS" complex represents? Ventricular Diastole (Relaxation) Atrial Systole (Contraction) Ventricular Systole None of the above

Ventricular Systole

T/F: Data in K space are symmetrical.

True

To achieve T1 weighting in gradient echo sequences, the flip angle should be \_\_\_\_\_\_. Small No flip angle should be used Large

Large

T/F: Spin echo pulse sequences are classified according to whether the residual transverse magnetization is in phase (coherent) or out of phase (incoherent).

False

What artifact occurs if we sample frequencies less than once per cycle? Cross talk Cross excitation Aliasing Zipper

Aliasing

When using MRA to evaluate intracranial vascularity, flow within smaller vessels can best be demonstrated by: 2D Time of Flight MRA All of the Above 3D Time of Flight MRA 3D Phase Contrast MRA

3D Time of Flight MRA

Which of the following best describes what the "T" wave represents? Atrial Systole (Contraction) Ventricular Diastole (Relaxation) None of the above Ventricular Systole

Ventricular Diastole (Relaxation)

On a T1 weighted pre-contrast image, fat appears _____ and water appears \_\_\_\_\_. Bright, Bright Dark, Dark Bright, Dark Dark, Bright

Bright, Dark

Which of the following best describes the appearance of chemical shift artifact on an image? Extra information wraps into the image Produces a dark edge at the interface between fat and water. The cancellation of fat and water signals when they are out of phase. Banding artifact at the interfaces of high and low signal.

Produces a dark edge at the interface between fat and water.

What artifact can occur as a result of using long echo trains? Cross talk Truncation Image Blurring Aliasing

Image Blurring

T/F:Perfusion is the regional blood flow in tissues and is defined as the volume of blood that flows into one gram of tissue.

True

What is the waiting period after each R wave called? Available Imaging Time Trigger Window Trigger Delay R to R Interval

Trigger Delay

In a dual echo sequence, which of the following combinations would result in reduced flow artifact in the second echo? TE 40 and 80 ms TE 20 and 50 ms TE 40 and 95 ms TE 20 and 70 ms

TE 40 and 80 ms

T/F: STIR sequences should NOT be used in conjunction with contrast enhancement.

True

How is time reduced in fast spin echo? (Choose all that apply) Use an echo train Use thinner slices Use a turbo factor The operator must prescribe fewer slices

Use an echo train Use a turbo factor

T/F: STIR is most useful in post contrast imaging.

False

Identify which of the following describe a "fringe field." (Select all that apply) Active or passive shielding is used to reduce the size of the fringe field. The stray magnetic field outside the bore of the magnet. The fringe field is not confined by walls, floors, or ceilings. An area on the outskirts of the magnet-- generally two feet long by three feet wide.

Active or passive shielding is used to reduce the size of the fringe field. The stray magnetic field outside the bore of the magnet. The fringe field is not confined by walls, floors, or ceilings.

T/F: Gadolinium cannot cross the intact blood-brain barrier (BBB).

True

The following image is displayed in what plane? Sagittal Oblique Coronal Axial

Sagittal

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not labeled

Brachioradialis Muscle Olecranon Process Cephalic Vein Pronator Teres Muscle Capitulum (Trochlea is the right answer, but not an option) Radial Head

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

External iliac artery Prostate gland Urinary bladder Rectum Uterus

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Hepatic Artery IVC Splenic Artery Celiac Trunk SMA

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D Not labeled

Radial Head ulna Cephalic vein Ulnar nerve Radial Artery

What pathology is visible in the image below? SDH ICB Medulloblastoma EDH Chiari Malformation

Chiari Malformation

What pathology is visible in this image? Uterine cancer Ovarian cyst Prostate cancer Uterine fibroid Ovarian tumor

Uterine cancer

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Medulloblastoma Abscess Meningitis SDH Arachnoid Cyst

Abscess

What pathology is visible in this image? SBO Appendicitis Crohn’s disease Colon cancer Colitis

Appendicitis

What pathology is seen in this image? CHF Aortic Aneurysm Pulmonary Embolism Pericardial Effusion

Pulmonary Embolism

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Tuberculosis Lung Cancer Pneumonia Pleural Effusion

Tuberculosis Pneumonia

What pathology is visible in the image below? Medulloblastoma AVM Arachnoid Cyst Hydrocephalus MS

Hydrocephalus

What pathology is seen in this image? Spina bifida Spinal Meningioma Tethered cord Spinal Ependymoma

Tethered cord

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? ICB EDH SDH AVM Astrocytoma

EDH

What pathology is seen int his image? Spinal Metastasis Spinal Ependymoma Tethered cord Spinal Meningioma

Spinal Meningioma

What pathology is seen in this image? CAD Myxoma PE Pericardial Effusion

Myxoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Laceration Hematoma Infarct Neoplasm

Hematoma

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? SDH ICB Medulloblastoma EDH Ischemic stroke

SDH

What pathology is seen in this image? Pericardial Effusion PE Aortic Aneurysm CAD

What pathology is seen in this image? Pericardial Effusion Myxoma CAD CHF

Pericardial Effusion

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Acoustic Neuroma Medulloblastoma Metastatic brain cancer Pituitary Adenoma Astrocytoma

Medulloblastoma

Which of these isolation precautions is applicable to a patient with an infectious condition that may be transmitted through skin-to-skin contact? Contact Isolation Airborne Isolation Droplet Isolation Standard Precaution

Contact Isolation

Which of the following describes why a drug might be classified as “by prescription only”? (choose all correct) Habit-forming Unsafe for self-medication New drug Rapid onset of action

Habit-forming Unsafe for self-medication New drug

What medication classification is Calcium-Channel Blocker

Antiarrythmics

What medication classification is Epinephrine

Vasoconstrictors

What medication classification is Xanax

Anxiolytics

What medication classification is tPA

Thrombolytic

What medication classification is Zofran

Anitemetics

What druge classification is Fentanyl

drug classification not provided

Which of the following describe non-idiosyncratic contrast reactions? (Choose all correct) Minor Nausea and vomiting Hives Itching Feeling of warmth

Minor Nausea and vomiting Feeling of warmth

Systolic blood pressure corresponds with the contraction of which chamber of the heart? Right ventricle relaxation Left ventricle contraction Left ventricle relaxation Right atrial relaxation

Left ventricle contraction

The superior sagittal sinus continues as what venous pathway in the brain? Straight sinus Inferior sagittal sinus Sigmoid sinus Transverse sinus

Transverse sinus

The cerebral aqueduct of the ventricular system is a passage way for: which of the following? Venous blood Myelinated axon bodies Arterial blood CSF

CSF

Which of the following statements describes the 8th, 9th, and 10th ribs? All of the above They do not attach to the sternum They are fused together by costal cartilage They are considered floating ribs

They are fused together by costal cartilage

Which of these continues as the duodenum? Antrum Pylorus Fundus Cardia

Pylorus

The thymus is located within which body cavity? Pleural Dorsal Mediastinum All of the above

Mediastinum

The bones of the cranium are joined together at immovable joints called: Spines Sphenoid Sutures Sinuses

Sutures

The dens is a feature of which cervical vertebra? C6 C1 C2 C7

The spinal cord continues from what other feature of the CNS? Conus medullaris Sella Turcica Medulla oblongata Cauda equina

Medulla oblongata

Which of the following cavities is not filled by CSF? Subarachnoid space Central canal None of the above Subdural space

Subdural space

Which of the following is the largest aperture connection the 4th ventricle to the basal cisterns and central canal of the spinal cord? Cerebral aqueduct Foramen of Luschka Interventricular foramen Foramen of Magendie

Foramen of Magendie

The ph of the fluid secreted by the prostate is acidic or alkaline? Alkaline Acidic

Alkaline

Which of the following is a branch of the left main coronary artery? Right main Right anterior descending None of the above Circumflex

Circumflex

The ureters joint to the bladder on which of its surfaces? Anterior Superior Posterior Inferior

Posterior

The most medial aspect of the lungs’ surface is termed the: (choose all correct) Costal surface Lung root Hilum Costo-phrenic angles

Lung root Hilum

The mastoid air cells are found in which of the following cranial bones? Occipital Sphenoid Temporal Ethmoid

Temporal

Costo-vertebral joints are a feature unique to which aspect of the vertebral column? Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Sacral

Thoracic

The trachea begins at what level of the spine? C6 T6 T12 T1

Which primary bronchus divides into three braches? Right Left

Right

Which aspect of the larynx covers the trachea during swallowing? Cricoid cartilage Epiglottis Thyroid cartilage Soft palate

Epiglottis

The semispinalis muscles belong to which of the following muscle groups? Psoas muscles Erector spinae muscles Splenius muscles Transversospinal muscles

Splenius muscles

The trigone is a feature of which CSF reservoir? Fourth ventricle Third ventricle Superior Sagittal Sinus Lateral ventricles

Lateral ventricles

Which of the following describes the early-stage appearance of endometrial cancer? loculations wall thickening necrosis hemorrhage

wall thickening

Which of these fractures are most likely to result in CSF leakage? (choose all correct) Basilar skull fracture Depressed skull fracture Diastatic fracture Ping-pong fracture

Basilar skull fracture Diastatic fracture

Which of the following may be an underlying cause of SBO? (Choose all correct) Pregnancy Lesion Crohn’s disease Volvulus

Pregnancy Lesion Crohn’s disease Volvulus

Which of these conditions is almost always the result of trauma to the brain? (Choose all correct) Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH) Intracranial bleed (ICB) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH) Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH) Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

Which of these conditions appear most similar in sectional imaging? (choose two) Pneumothorax Interstitial Lung Disease Hemothorax COPD

Interstitial Lung Disease COPD

Which of the following is a common cause of cancer? (choose all correct) Chemicals Radiation Immune conditions Inherited mutations

Chemicals Radiation Immune conditions Inherited mutations

Which of the following describes the appearance of uterine fibroids in sectional imaging? (Choose all correct) Calcified Cystic Solid Variable size

Calcified Solid Variable size

What is the most significant complication often associated with a depressed skull fracture? CSF leaking Dural tearing All of the above Epidural hemorrhage

Epidural hemorrhage

Which of these conditions causes blood accumulation on the periphery of the brain? (Choose all correct) Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH) Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH) Intracranial bleed (ICB)

Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH) Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

Which of these pathologic processes is most likely to be associated with hepatitis or malignancy? Hematoma Abscess Cysts Ascites

Ascites

Which of the following occurs because nuclei that move through the slice may receive only one of the RF pulses applied? MRA Intra-voxel dephasing Time of flight Entry slice phenomenon

Time of flight

Axial slices for an MR hip protocol are prescribed: Posterior to anterior Anterior to posterior Superior to inferior Inferior to superior

Superior to inferior

T/F: It is crucial that technologists obtain pertinent patient history and document the information for the interpreting radiologist.

True

SNR may be increased by using which of the following? A small FOV A fine matrix A coarse matrix Gradient echo sequences

A coarse matrix

T/F: Additional thinner axial slices are often prescribed through areas of pathology.

True

Flow from CSF in the thoracic spine can be minimized by utilizing: Breath holds Oversampling Saturation Pulses Chemical Presaturation

Saturation Pulses

T/F: False aneurysms are usually the result of knee trauma, surgery/intervention or infection.

True

T/F: Thoracic aortic aneurysms may cause no symptoms at all.

True

T/F: FLAIR stands for Fluid Low Attenuation Inversion Recovery

False

T/F: Counter current flow occurs when flowing nuclei are traveling in the same direction as slice selection.

False

What does the phase encoding gradient do? Encode data along the SHORT axis of the anatomy Encode data along the DIAGONAL axis of the anatomy Both the DIAGONAL and SHORT axes Encode data along the LONG axis of the anatomy

Encode data along the SHORT axis of the anatomy

T/F: Spin echo sequences do not compensate for magnetic field inhomogeneities, while gradient echo sequences do compensate for magnetic field inhomogeneities.

False

Select all of the following that determine the strength of an electromagnet: The diameter of the wire used in the windings The number of windings in the coil The amount of current passed through the windings The distance or spacing between the windings

The diameter of the wire used in the windings The number of windings in the coil The amount of current passed through the windings The distance or spacing between the windings

Gradient strength is expressed in units of all of the following EXCEPT: mT/m G/cm T/m/s w/kg

w/kg

An inversion recovery pulse sequence begins with which of the following? 180 rephasing pulse Gradient pulse (variable flip angle) 180 degree inverting pulse 90 degree RF pulse

180 degree inverting pulse

T/F: The scan time is the time to fill K space.

True

Where do we look up the safety of an implanted device? (Check all that apply) www.MRISafety.com If we remember that it is a safe implant, there is no need to look it up again. The manufacturer's website Shellock's reference manual

www.MRISafety.com The manufacturer's website Shellock's reference manual

Which of the following best describes a remedy for cross excitation? Use a long tE Call the service engineer Excite alternate slices during the acquisition Use spin echo sequences

Excite alternate slices during the acquisition

What makes a nucleus an MR active nucleus? (Select all that apply) Atoms with a balanced mass number Nuclei with a net spin or angular momentum None of the above Odd mass numbers

Nuclei with a net spin or angular momentum Odd mass numbers

Which gradient performs slice selection for coronal slices? X gradient Any combination of gradients Z gradient Y gradient

Y gradient

What kind of information is contributed by data collected in the outer lines of K space? Contrast Resolution \* Weighting Signal

Resolution

What would you do in the event of a CODE BLUE in MRI? (Select all that apply) Activate the Code Blue response process (push the Code Blue button). Get the patient out of the scanner and into Zone III; locking the scan room door and monitoring it when other Code Team members arrive. Stay with the patient in the scan room until help arrives. Begin CPR.

Activate the Code Blue response process (push the Code Blue button). Get the patient out of the scanner and into Zone III; locking the scan room door and monitoring it when other Code Team members arrive. Begin CPR.

T/F: Phase encoding gradient positive fills the bottom half of K space.

Fasle

What are the two extremes of contrast in MRI? Air T1 Recovery Fat Water

Fat Water

Which of the following best describes Moire artifact? Different chemical environments of fat and water produce a dark edge at the interface between fat and water. Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV Fat and water are out of phase and their signals cancel each other out. Anatomy from outside the FOV are wrapped into the image

Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV

Define Contrast

The differance in optical density between adjacent structures

Define Contrast Media

Any substance introduced into the body that increases radiographic contrast or enhacnes visibility

Define Ion

A charged atomic particle

Define Ionic

Describes and atom or molecule thgat dissociates into ions when placed into water

Define Non-ionic

Describes an atom or moelcule that does not dissociate into ions when placed in water

Define Cation

Positively charged ion (Na+)

Define Anion

Negatively charged ion (Cl-)

Define Enteral

In the GI tract

Define Parenteral

Not int he GI tract

Define Monomer

A single independant molecule

Define Dimer

One or more monomers chemically joined

Define Ankylosing Spondylitis

an autoimmune condition

Define Tethered cord

visualized by an abnormally low conus medullaris

Define Spina Bifida

characterized by incomplete closure of the vertebral canal

Define Compression Fracture

caused by axial loading

Which of these rhythms is considered critical and requires immediate attention? (choose all correct) D B C A

C A

What EKG rhythm is represented by the graph? Bradycardia Tachycardia Normal Sinus Rhythm A-fib

Tachycardia

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Perpendicular plate Zygomatic arch Thmoid Sinus Maxillary sinus Mandible

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Capitulum Radial Head Humerous Trochlea Corocoid process

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D Not Labeled

Scapular Spine Clavicle Sternum Rib Coracoid process

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Frontal bone Nasal bone Frontal sinus Maxillary bone Zygoma

Label the antomy in the following image. A B C D E

C2 Vertebral Foramen Mandible Transverse Foramen C1

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Urinary bladder Uterus Vagina pubis symphysis Ovary

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Acoustic Neuroma Astrocytoma Pituitary Adenoma Metastatic brain cancer Medulloblastoma

Metastatic brain cancer

COPD

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Lung Cancer Pneumonia Interstitial lung disease Pneumothorax

Pneumonia

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Pleural Effusion Interstitial lung disease Tuberculosis Lung Cancer

Pleural Effusion

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture Dental abscess Nasal fracture LeFort fracture Blow-out fracture

Nasal fracture

What pathology is visible in the following image? Subluxation Compression Fracture Ankylosing Spondylitis Spinal Stenosis

Subluxation

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? SDH Ischemic stroke Medulloblastoma EDH ICB

SDH

What pathology is seen in this image? Pericardial Effusion CAD PE Aortic Aneurysm

Aortic Aneurysm

What pathology is visible in this image? RCC Renal Stone Horseshoe kidney Wilm’s tumor

RCC

What pathology is visible in the following image? Ankylosing Spondylitis Subluxation Spinal Stenosis Compression Fracture

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Depressed skull fracture Epidural hematoma Ping-pong skull fracture Linear skull fracture Basilar skull fracture

Linear skull fracture

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Neoplasm EDH Abscess Ischemic stroke SDH

Ischemic stroke

What pathology is visible in this image? RCC TCC BPH Renal Stone Prostate cancer

TCC

What pathology is visible in this image? Kidney laceration Wilm’s tumor Adrenal mass Renal Stone RCC

Renal Stone

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Pleural Effusion Interstitial lung disease Lung Cancer Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis

What pathology is visible in this image? Liver cancer Liver laceration Cirrhosis Hemangiomas

Cirrhosis

What pathology is seen in this image? CHF CAD Pericardial Effusion Myxoma

Pericardial Effusion

What pathology is visible in this image? Appendicitis Colitis SBO Crohn’s disease Colon cancer

Crohn’s disease

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Ping-pong skull fracture Basilar skull fracture Linear skull fracture Epidural hematoma Depressed skull fracture

Epidural hematoma Depressed skull fracture

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number twelve on the image shown below: Scapula Teres major muscle Acromion Spine of the scapula

Scapula

Which of the following indicate a severe contrast reaction? (Choose all correct) Syncope Hypotension Feeling of warmth Bronchospasm Hives

Syncope Hypotension Bronchospasm

Define Antagonist

A drug or natural substance that is attractied to and blocks certain receptor sites

Define Therapeutic Index (TI)

A measure of the relative safety of a drug

Define Drug receptors

Specific biological sites located on a cell surface or within the cell

Define Agonist

A drug or natural substance withg an attraction to a specific receptor site that produces a physisiological response

Which type of isolation precaution is used for all patients at all times? Droplet Isolation Standard Precaution Contact Isolation Airborne Isolation

Standard Precaution

T/F: Hypotension and hypertension are always secondary to other clinical conditions.

False

Which boney process within the cranium contains the pituitary gland? Foramen magnum Sphenoid sinus Dorsum Sellae Sella Turcica

Sella Turcica

The thoracic cavity is further subdivided into what other body cavities? (choose all correct) Pleural Mediastinal Cranial Pelvis Spinal

Pleural Mediastinal

Which lobe of the left lung comprises most of that lungs anterior surface? Any of the above Inferior Middle Superior

Superior

The space outside of the dura mater is termed the: Subdural space Subarachnoid space Cisterna magna Epidural space

Epidural space

Which of the following is a retroperitoneal structure? (choose all correct) Spleen Aorta Small bowel Ascending colon

Aorta Ascending colon

Which portion of the brainstem is identifiable as a prominent bulge near the center of the brain? Mid brain None of the above Pons Medulla oblongata

Pons

Which of these is found between the hepatic and splenic flextures? Transverse colon Descending colon Cecum Ascending colon

Transverse colon

The anterior projections of the gray matter within the spinal cord continue outside of the cord as which of the following? Dorsal nerve roots White matter Ganglia Ventral nerve roots

Ventral nerve roots

Which of these muscles marks the division between the chest and abdominal cavities? Diaphragm Iliac Quadratus lumborum Psoas

Diaphragm

Which of the following is formed at the carina? Alveolar ducts Secondary bronchi Lobular bronchi Primary bronchi

Primary bronchi

Which lobe of the left lung constitutes almost the entire lung base? Any of the above Superior Inferior Middle

Inferior

Which of the following bones joint at the acetabulum? (select all correct) Ischium Pubis Ilium

Ischium Pubis Ilium

Spinal nerves exit the vertebral column via what feature of the spine? Intervertebral foramina Transverse foramina Spinal canal Vertebral canal

Intervertebral foramina

Which of the following is the largest cavity of the body? Mediastinum Cranial Dorsal Ventral

Ventral

Which of the following describes an organ with thin muscular walls located on the anterior abdominal wall? Prostate Rectum Bladder Uterus

Bladder

T/F: The large nerve exiting the eye is termed the ophthalmic nerve.

False

Which of the following is the largest lobe of the liver? Right Quadrate Left Caudate

Right

The primary pulmonary veins are how many in number? Four Two Three

Four

The transverse foramina are a pathway for which of the following? Spinal nerves Vertebral arteries Jugular veins Spinal cord

Vertebral arteries

The mandible and maxillary bones each have which of the following processes? Alveolar Zygomatic Condylar Palatine

Alveolar

The Xiphoid process is at the level of: T10 T11 T12 T9

T10

What is the most significant indication of hemangioma in sectional imaging? No contrast enhancement Delayed contrast enhancement Absence of venous enhancement Rim-enhancement

Delayed contrast enhancement

Which of these conditions will present with an intimal flap? Choose multiple if applicable. Simple aneurysm Ruptured Aneurysm Dissecting aneurysm

Dissecting aneurysm

What is the typical presentation of GB cancer? (Choose all correct) Notable GB atrophy Mass completely replacing the gallbladder Intraluminal mass Wall thickening

Mass completely replacing the gallbladder Intraluminal mass Wall thickening

Which of the following statements are true concerning RCC? (Choose all correct) unifocal or multifocal general kidney atrophy calcification in 30% of lesions necrosis in large lesions

unifocal or multifocal calcification in 30% of lesions necrosis in large lesions

T/F: Pneumonia can infect the entire lung

True

Which of these conditions is related to vascular insufficiency? Infectious colitis Crohn’s disease Ischemic colitis Ulcerative colitis

Ischemic colitis

Which of these conditions are most likely to co-exist with a hemothorax? (choose all correct) Pneumothorax Fractures Interstitial Lung Disease Atelectasis

Pneumothorax Fractures Atelectasis

Which of these conditions is most likely to be associated with compensatory mechanism such as increased blood volume and increased myocardium muscle mass? CHF Pericardial Effusion Myxoma CAD

CHF

Which of these conditions results in bleeding focused in the suprasellar cistern? Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH) Intracranial bleed (ICB) Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH) Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH)

Which of the lesions may grow from the spinal cord itself? (Choose all correct) Spinal Ependymoma Spinal Metastasis Spinal Meningioma

Spinal Ependymoma Spinal Metastasis

In dynamic breast imaging, lesions that ___________ are suspicious for malignancy. show no enhancement wash in and out quickly wash in and out slowly display plateau enhancement

wash in and out quickly

T/F: Patients are positioned supine head first for run-off exams.

False

Which of the following best describes ascites? A disease in which the liver becomes permanently damaged An infection of the spleen The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity A type of kidney failure

The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity

Extends from the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior tibial spine

At standard does, gadolinium has the most apparent effect on the ___ relaxation time and therefore is used as an enhancement agent on \_\_\_. T1/T1 weighted images T1/T2 weighted images T2/T2 weighted images T2/T1 weighted images

T1/T1 weighted images

T/F: A popliteal artery aneurysm is the most 2nd most common type of aneurysm in the body.

True

Which of the following is a malignant bone tumor that affects children and young adults? the tumor may start anywhere in the body, usually in the long bones of the arms and legs, the pelvis, or the chest. Teratoma Ewing Sarcoma Transitional Cell Carcinoma Chordoma

Ewing Sarcoma

T/F: Fat saturation techniques are valuable when imaging the orbits post contrast due to the presence of orbital fat.

True

The vascular signal, produced on time of flight MRA (TOF-MRA), relies on: Velocity-induced phase shifts Flow related enhancement PC MOTA

Flow related enhancement

When would we be most likely to use a STIR sequence? MSK studies (i.e. knee, wrist) All studies must include a STIR sequence Head or Spine studies (to look for periventricular lesions) CSF flow studies

MSK studies (i.e. knee, wrist)

T/F: As velocity of flow decreases, the time of flight effect decreases.

True

Which of the following best describes a remedy for cross excitation? Use spin echo sequences Use a long tE Call the service engineer Excite alternate slices during the acquisition

Excite alternate slices during the acquisition

Which of the following best describes what the "QRS" complex represents? Atrial Systole (Contraction) Ventricular Diastole (Relaxation) None of the above Ventricular Systole

Ventricular Systole

Which of the following best describes what the "P" wave represents? Ventricular Systole Ventricular Diastole None of the above Atrial Systole (Contraction)

Atrial Systole (Contraction)

T/F: Pre-saturation techniques increase the RF deposition to the patient.

True

# Choose the two main uses of spatial pre-saturation from the list below. FLAIR SPIR Chemical Pre-saturation STIR

SPIR Chemical Pre-saturation

Chemical shift is measured in which of the following units? mm/s ppm G/cm T/m

ppm

What is the most common material used to make permanent magnets? Alnico Titanium Helium Iron

Alnico

Which of the following best describes Moire artifact? Fat and water are out of phase and their signals cancel each other out. Anatomy from outside the FOV are wrapped into the image. Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV Different chemical environments of fat and water produce a dark edge at the interface between fat and water.

Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV

What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of fat at 1T? 200 ms 500 ms 3000 ms 2000 ms

200 ms

Which best describes the appearance of a zipper artifact? Tissues return a high signal intensity Anatomy folded into the FOV A dense line on the image at a specific point. Distortion of the image together with large signal voids.

A dense line on the image at a specific point.

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D E Not labeled

SVC Aorta Common Carotid Subclavian Artery Pulmonary Arytery Subclavian Vein

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D E Not labeled

Pulmonary Vein Right Atrium Right Ventricle Left Ventricle Left Atrium Pulmonary Artery

Label vessels in the image below. 1 2 3 4 5

Aorta Right Coronary Artery Left Anterior Descending Artery Circumflex Artery Left Coronary Artery

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D

Basilar Artery Brachiocephalic Vertebral Artery Common Carotid Artery Internal Carotid Artery

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D E Not labeled

Pariental Bone Choroid plexus Longidutical Fissures Lateral ventrical Parietal Lobe Lateral Fissure

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D E

IVS Portal vein Stomach Large bowel Spleen

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not labeled

Hamate Abductor digiti minimi muscle Trapezoid Trapezium Thenar muscle Pisiform

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? ICB Medulloblastoma EDH SDH Ischemic stroke

SDH

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Meningioma Spinal Metastasis Spinal Ependymoma Tethered cord

Spinal Metastasis

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Tuberculosis Pleural Effusion Lung Cancer Interstitial lung disease

Pleural Effusion

What pathology is visible in this image? Horseshoe kidney Wilm’s tumor Renal Stone PKD RCC

Wilm’s tumor

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose all correct) Cyst Abscess Neoplasm Ascites

Neoplasm Ascites

What pathology is visible in this image? Uterine cancer Uterine fibroid Ovarian tumor Prostate cancer Ovarian cyst

Uterine cancer

What pathology is visible in the following image? Ankylosing Spondylitis Compression Fracture Subluxation Spinal Stenosis

Spinal Stenosis

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose multiple) GB Cancer Cholelithiasis Pancreatitis Pancreatic Cancer Liver cancer

GB Cancer

What pathology is visible in the image below? Arachnoid Cyst Medulloblastoma Hydrocephalus AVM MS

Arachnoid Cyst

What pathology is visible in this image? Adrenal mass Kidney laceration RCC Renal Stone Wilm’s tumor

Kidney laceration

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Abscess Astrocytoma Medulloblastoma SDH Ischemic stroke

Medulloblastoma

What pathology is seen in this image? CHF CAD Myxoma Pericardial Effusion

CHF

What pathology is visible in this image? Renal Stone TCC RCC BPH Prostate cancer

TCC

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Nasal fracture LeFort fracture Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture Blow-out fracture Dental abscess

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Medulloblastoma Metastatic brain cancer Astrocytoma Acoustic Neuroma Pituitary Adenoma

Astrocytoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Pancreatitis Pancreatic Cancer GB Cancer Liver cancer Cholelithiasis

Pancreatic Cancer

What pathology is visible in this image? Gastric cancer Splenic Laceration Cirrhosis Lymphoma

Gastric cancer

Which of the following best describes the anatomy indicated by number twelve on the image shown below: Acromion Spine of the scapula Scapula Teres major muscle

Scapula

Define Embolism

Clotting within a blood vessel

Define Thrombus

Anything blocking a blood vessel

Define Thrombotic Embolism

Condition in which the formation or movement of a thrombus occludes a vessel causing infractions of the tissue being supplied by the vessel

Define CVA

A criticval condition in which a thrombus in the brain causes damage to the brain cells (infraction)

Define TIA

An acute episode of temporary neurological dysfunction resulting from focal cerebral ischmeia not associated with permanent cerebral infraction

Which of these medications would help to minimize nausea and vomiting? Epinephrine Atropine Valium Zofran

Zofran

The jugular foramen is formed at the junctions of what two bones? Temporal and parietal Sphenoid and temporal Temporal and sphenoid Occipital and temporal

Occipital and temporal

Most venous blood from the lower abdomen travel back to the heart via what vessel? SVC Aorta Portal vein IVC

IVC

Which of the following is the most inferior aspect of the brainstem? Pons Medulla oblongata None of the above Mid brain

Medulla oblongata

The hepatic flexture of the colon is located within which quadrant of the abdomen? LUQ LLQ RUQ RLQ

RUQ

Define Anterior/Ventral

Towards the front

Define Superior

Above

Define Posterior/Dorsal

Towards the back

Define Medial

Towards the midline

Define Inferior

Below

Define Lateral

Away from midline

The fold of the dura mater extending into the longitudinal fissure is termed the: Superior Sagittal Sinus Inferior Sagittal Sinus Falx Cerebri Falx Cerebelli

Falx Cerebri

The cranium is comprised of how many bones? None of the above 8 22 14

The basilar artery is formed at the level of which of the following structure? EAM Jugular notch Thyroid cartilage Foramen magnum

Foramen magnum

Define Ipsilateral

on the same side

Define Plantar

bottom of foot

Define Contralateral

on the opposite side

Define Palmar

the anterior hand

Which fold of the dura mater covers the pituitary gland? Tentorium Diaphragma sellae Falx cerebelli Falx cerebrum

Diaphragma sellae

The spine is nearest what surface of the body? Anterior Rostral Dorsal Ventral

Dorsal

T/F: During ovulation the ovaries decrease in size.

False

Which of the major braches of the aorta feed the stomach? IMA SMA All of the above Celiac Trunk

Celiac Trunk

The ophthalmic artery is a direct branch of which of the following vessels? Common carotid Internal jugular Internal carotid External carotid

Internal carotid

Which of the meninges attaches directly to the surface of the brain? Arachnoid All of the above Pia mater Dura mater

Pia mater

Which primary bronchus is longer? Left Right

Left

Which of the following is a retroperitoneal structure? Jejunum All of the above Duodenum Ileum

Duodenum

Which of these conditions can be further defined with angiographic/contrast enhanced imaging? (Choose all correct) Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH) Intracranial bleed (ICB) Ischemic stroke

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH) Ischemic stroke

Which of these skull fractures is least likely to require intervention? Linear skull fracture Basilar skull fracture Depressed skull fracture Ping-pong fracture

Linear skull fracture

Which of the following describes the appearance of lung cancer in specialty imaging? (choose all correct) Rim-enhancing Poorly defined neoplasm Most common in the mediastinum Single lesions only

Rim-enhancing Most common in the mediastinum

Which of these pathologies is sometimes accompanied by meningocele formation? Spina Bifida Tethered cord Ankylosing Spondylitis Spinal Meningioma

Spina Bifida

Which of these conditions will be accompanied by hematoma formation? Choose multiple if applicable. Simple aneurysm Ruptured Aneurysm Dissecting aneurysm

Ruptured Aneurysm

Which of these conditions appears in imaging as tissue ischemia and/or areas of poor contrast perfusion? Infarct Aneurysm Abscess Malignancy

Infarct

What may be responsible for the formation of a pneumothorax? (choose all correct) Trauma Hemothorax Spontaneous Surgery

Trauma Spontaneous Surgery

Which of the following best describes ascites? A disease in which the liver becomes permanently damaged An infection of the spleen A type of kidney failure The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity

The accumulation of excess fluid in the abdominal cavity

What effect does the magneto-hemodynamic effect have? Is this a permanent effect? (Check all that apply) Increase in the amplitude of the "T" wave on EKG gating. Increase in the amplitude of the "R" wave on EKG gating. Permanent effect-- EKG tracing continues to show an elevated wave form after the patient has had an MRI exam. Reversible effect-- EKG tracing returns to normal when the patient is removed from the static magnetic field.

Increase in the amplitude of the "T" wave on EKG gating. Reversible effect-- EKG tracing returns to normal when the patient is removed from the static magnetic field.

T/F: As velocity of flow decreases, the time of flight effect decreases.

True

Identify the two factors that determine which hydrogen nuclei align parallel and which align anti-parallel with the main magnetic field. The strength of the external magnetic field The thermal energy level of the nuclei The orientation of the patient in the scanner (head first vs. feet first) How many nuclei there are in each patient's body

The strength of the external magnetic field The thermal energy level of the nuclei

What is the chemical shift at 1.5 T? 22 Hz 2.2 Hz 220 KHz 220 Hz

220 Hz

Which of the following best describe spin-lattice relaxation? (Choose all that apply) T2 Decay Time it takes 88% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in tissue. Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery. T1 Recovery

Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery. T1 Recovery

Which of the following is known as the basic MRI contrast? Proton density weighting T2 weighting T1 weighting Gray imaging

Proton density weighting

Why do we use shimming? To make the magnetic field smaller To make the field even or homogenous To induce a current To apply a magnetic field

To make the field even or homogenous

What does BOLD stand for? Type of CT scanning Blood oxygen line developed Body oriented level dependent Blood oxygenation level dependent

Blood oxygenation level dependent

Which of the following statements is true in an incoherent gradient echo sequence? The flip angle is always 10° The system discriminates between residual and the most recently created transverse magnetization because it has a different phase value It is not a steady state sequence Residual transverse magnetization has the same phase as the magnetization most recently created

The system discriminates between residual and the most recently created transverse magnetization because it has a different phase value

Which of the following best describes Moire artifact? Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV Different chemical environments of fat and water produce a dark edge at the interface between fat and water. Fat and water are out of phase and their signals cancel each other out. Anatomy from outside the FOV are wrapped into the image.

Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV

T/F: T2 shine through occurs when lesions or areas with a very long T1 decay time remain bright on the DW or trace image.

False

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Urinary bladder Uterus Vagina Pubis symphysis Ovary

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C Not labeled

Ulna Flexor Tendons Radius Extensor Tendons

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Stomach Ascending Colon Splenic fixture Descending colon Small bowel

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? (choose all correct) Astrocytoma MS Brain contusions EDH SDH

Brain contusions EDH

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Meningioma Tethered cord Spinal Ependymoma Spinal Metastasis

Spinal Ependymoma

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Stenosis Compression Fracture Ankylosing Spondylitis Subluxation

Spinal Stenosis

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Pituitary Adenoma Meningioma Medulloblastoma Astrocytoma Metastatic brain cancer

Meningioma

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? (choose all correct) Ischemic stroke SDH ICB Edema Medulloblastoma

ICB Edema

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple only if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Hemothorax Tuberculosis Lung Cancer Pleural Effusion

Lung Cancer

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Acoustic Neuroma Metastatic brain cancer Pituitary Adenoma Astrocytoma Medulloblastoma

Acoustic Neuroma

What pathology is visible in this image? (choose multiple) Crohn’s disease Colon cancer SBO Appendicitis Colitis

Colon cancer SBO

What pathology is visible in this image? PKD Horseshoe kidney Wilm’s tumor RCC Renal Stone

RCC

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Medulloblastoma Astrocytoma Pituitary Adenoma Acoustic Neuroma Metastatic brain cancer

Astrocytoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Hemangiomas Liver cancer Liver laceration Cirrhosis

Liver cancer

What pathology is visible in this image? Gastric cancer Liver cancer Splenic Laceration Lymphoma

Splenic Laceration

What pathology is seen in this image? Meningocele Myelomeningocele Spina bifida occulta

Meningocele

What pathology is seen in this image? Pulmonary Embolism Aortic Aneurysm Pericardial Effusion CHF

Pulmonary Embolism

Pneumonia

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Arachnoid Cyst Cerebral Atrophy Meningitis Chiari Malformation Hydrocephalus

Meningitis

COPD

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Blow-out fracture Nasal fracture Dental abscess LeFort fracture Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Tuberculosis Pleural Effusion Lung Cancer Pneumonia

Tuberculosis Pneumonia

What pathology is visible in this image? Splenic Laceration Lymphoma Liver cancer Gastric cancer

Lymphoma

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Basilar skull fracture Depressed skull fracture Linear skull fracture Epidural hematoma Ping-pong skull fracture

Ping-pong skull fracture

What pathology is visible in this image? Ovarian tumor Ovarian cyst Uterine fibroid Uterine cancer Prostate cancer

Uterine cancer

Which of the following represents a normal oral temperature? (in degrees F) 97 94 101 100

The spleen is located within which quadrant of the abdomen? RLQ RUQ LUQ LLQ

LUQ

The longitudinal fissure separates which aspects of the brain? Right and Left Cerebral Lobes Cerebral and Cerebellar Frontal and Parietal Temporal and Parietal Lobes

Right and Left Cerebral Lobes

The aorta bifurcates into which of the following at the level of L4? Internal iliac arteries IVC Common iliac arteries Common femoral arteries

Common iliac arteries

Which aspect of the ventricular system is positioned between the lobes of the thalamus? Third ventricle Fourth ventricle Superior Sagittal Sinus Lateral ventricles

Third ventricle

All of the venous pathways in the brain ultimately drain into which major vessels of the neck? Vertebral arteries Common carotid arteries Internal carotid arteries Internal jugular veins

Internal jugular veins

The neck is ________ to the chest. Inferior Caudal Posterior Cephalic

Cephalic

Which aspect of the diencephalon helps to form the lateral walls of the third ventricles? Pituitary gland Thalamus Epithalamus Hypothalamus

Thalamus

Which fold of the dura mater separates the cerebrum and cerebellum? Tentorium Falx cerebelli Falx cerebrum Diaphragma sellae

Tentorium

Which of the following is the largest aspect of the brain? Diencephalon Cerebrum Brainstem Cerebellum

Cerebrum

The foramen rotundum provides passage for which of the following? Optic Nerve Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve Middle meningeal artery Maxillary Nerve

Maxillary Nerve

Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only thoracic vertebrae? Transverse foramina Fused transverse processes Large vertebral bodies Facets and demi-facets

Facets and demi-facets

Which of the following arises from the right ventricle? Pulmonary arteries Aorta Pulmonary veins Coronary arteries

Pulmonary arteries

Which aspect of the diencephalon is considered the master endocrine gland? Hypothalamus Epithalamus Pituitary gland Thalamus

Pituitary gland

Which of these conditions is the most likely to be lethal? Ischemic stroke Hemorrhagic stroke

Hemorrhagic stroke

Which of these conditions is most likely to present as standing and abscess formation in the RLQ? Appendicitis SBO Colon cancer Ulcerative colitis

Appendicitis

What is the most common location to visualize Crohn’s disease? Terminal Ileum Vesicular-Ureteral Junction Jejunum Duodenum

Terminal Ileum

Which of these areas are usually affected in a zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture? (choose all correct) Maxillary sinus Zygomatic arch Orbital wall Nasal bones

Maxillary sinus Zygomatic arch Orbital wall

Gallstones can be related to which of the following conditions? (Choose all correct) Cirrhosis Cholecystitis Pancreatitis Gall bladder cancer

Cholecystitis Pancreatitis Gall bladder cancer

Which of the following pathologies is imaged as filling a defect(s) in the coronary circulatory system? CAD CHF Myxoma Pericardial Effusion

CAD

With of these conditions can be identified as bowel wall thickening? (Choose all correct) SBO Ischemic colitis Crohn’s disease Ulcerative colitis

Ischemic colitis Crohn’s disease Ulcerative colitis

Which of the following is commonly known as washerwoman's sprain? De Quervain Tenosynovitis Rheumatoid Arthritis Hamartoma Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

De Quervain Tenosynovitis

Which of the following best describes a remedy for cross excitation? Call the service engineer Use a long tE Use spin echo sequences Excite alternate slices during the acquisition

Excite alternate slices during the acquisition

How do gradients affect the main magnetic field? They add to the main magnetic field They give the image its shades of gray They subtract from the main magnetic field They alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion

They add to the main magnetic field They subtract from the main magnetic field They alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion

In a typical superconducting magnet, the direction of the magnetic field is: Horizontal Vertical Hard to measure Around the flux lines

Horizontal

T/F: The phase axis of K space is vertical and is centered in the middle of K space perpendicular to the frequency axis.

True

Multiphase images, acquired with additional modulation of magnetization, are known as: TOF-MRA SPAMM PC-MRA VENC

SPAMM

T/F: Functional imaging techniques allow MRI to be used to assess function and physiology as opposed to merely conventional structural imaging.

True

T/F: Interventional MRI includes performing biopsies in the MR suite.

True

T/F: K space is not the image.

True

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C Not labeled

Frontal Temporal Bone Occipital Bone External Occipital Protuberance

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not labeled

Extensor Digitorum Brevis Muscle Calcaneus Navicular Talus Abductor Hallicus Muscle Cuboid

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Hepatic Artery IVC Splenic Artery Celiac Trunk SMA

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D E

Gallbladder Kidney Stomach Pancreas Splenic Vein

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Metastatic brain cancer Astrocytoma Medulloblastoma Pituitary Adenoma Acoustic Neuroma

Pituitary Adenoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Ovarian cyst Uterine fibroid Uterine cancer Ovarian tumor Prostate cancer

Ovarian cyst

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Dental abscess Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture LeFort fracture Nasal fracture Blow-out fracture

Nasal fracture

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Abscess Arachnoid Cyst Medulloblastoma Meningitis SDH

Abscess

What pathology is visible in this image? Lymphoma Gastric cancer Liver cancer Splenic Laceration

Lymphoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Wilm’s tumor RCC PKD Renal Stone Horseshoe kidney

Horseshoe kidney

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose all correct) Neoplasm Hematoma Inflammation Laceration

Hematoma Laceration

What pathology is seen in this image? Tethered cord Spina bifida Spinal Meningioma Spinal Ependymoma

Tethered cord

What pathology is visible in this image? Liver cancer Lymphoma Splenic Laceration Gastric cancer

Splenic Laceration

What pathology is visible in this image? Malignant Neoplasm Abscess Cyst Ascites

Cyst

What pathology is visible in this image? Colitis Cyst Abscess Neoplasm

Colitis

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? SDH Neoplasm EDH Abscess Ischemic stroke

Ischemic stroke

What pathology is visible in the image below? EDH ICB Medulloblastoma SDH Chiari Malformation

Chiari Malformation

What pathology is visible in this image? Hemangiomas Liver laceration Cirrhosis Liver cancer

Hemangiomas

What pathology is seen in this image? Myxoma CHF CAD Pericardial Effusion

Pericardial Effusion

What pathology is visible in the image below? Medulloblastoma MS Arachnoid Cyst AVM Hydrocephalus

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Tuberculosis Lung Cancer Interstitial lung disease Pleural Effusion

Tuberculosis

What pathology is visible in this image? Pancreatic Cancer Liver cancer Pancreatitis GB Cancer Cholelithiasis

Pancreatitis

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Meningioma Spina bifida Tethered cord Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Meningioma

Which of the following is a potential complication to IV therapy? (Choose all correct) Hypothermia Infection Fluid-overload Embolism

Hypothermia Infection Fluid-overload Embolism

Which of these conditions is caused by a thrombus in the coronary arteries? Cardiogenic Shock Myocardial Infarction Cardiac Tamponade Congestive Heart Failure

Myocardial Infarction

Iodinated contrast for IV infusion should have an osmolarity that is: Isotonic Hypotonic Hypertonic None of the above

Isotonic

Which of these lab tests may help to indicate whether or not a patient has an infection? (choose all correct) Hemoglobin WBC count Hematocrit Platelet count

WBC count

Disrupting the body's electrolyte balance is one risk associated with using which of the following contrast types for IV infusion? Non-ionic High osmolar Ionic Hypertonic

Ionic

The hepatic artery shares a common trunk with which of the following vessels? Renal arteries IMA Splenic artery SMA

Splenic artery

The angle of the mandible is also known as the: Ramus Alveolar Process Body Gonion

Gonion

Which of the following vessel pairs ultimately merge and form the basilar artery? Vertebrals External Carotids Internal Carotids Internal Jugulars

Vertebrals

The pre-central and post-central gyri are adjacent to which fissure of the brain? Interhemispheric Fissure Lateral Fissure Longitudinal Fissure Central Fissure

Central Fissure

As it passes behind the inguinal ligament, the external iliac artery becomes which of the following? IVC Common femoral arteries Internal iliac arteries Common iliac arteries

Common femoral arteries

Which of the follow list in order from superior to inferior the major branches of the abdominal aorta: Celiac Trunk, SMA, Renal Arteries, IMA Celiac Trunk, Renal Arteries, SMA, IMA Celiac Trunk, SMA, IMA, Renal Arteries SMA, IMA, Celiac Trunk, Renal Arteries

Celiac Trunk, SMA, Renal Arteries, IMA

Which of the following vessels supply blood to the face and scalp? Internal Jugulars Vertebrals External Carotids Internal Carotids

External Carotids

Which of the following muscle groups attach between the spinous processes and transverse processes of different vertebrae? Erector spinae muscles Psoas muscles Transversospinal muscles Splenius muscles

Transversospinal muscles

Renal pyramids are apparent in which aspect of the kidney? Collecting system Ureters Cortex Medulla

Medulla

What is most common area of the spine to identify spinal metastasis? Sacral Spine Thoracic Spine Lumbar Spine Cervical spine

Thoracic Spine

Which of these pathologies are defined as an abnormal fluid accumulation in the thoracic cavity? (choose all correct) Pleural effusion Pneumothorax Pericardial Effusion Pneumonia

Pleural effusion Pericardial Effusion Pneumonia

Which of the following describes the imaging characteristics of pneumonia? (choose all correct) small to large accumulations Common near the fissures of the lower lobes rim-enhancing Well-defined borders

small to large accumulations Common near the fissures of the lower lobes

Which of these conditions appears as excessive fluid inside the abdomen but outside of the GI tract? Colitis Inflammation Ascites Abscess

Ascites

Which of these conditions is likely to be accompanied by ascites? (Choose all correct) SBO Appendicitis Ulcerative colitis Cirrhosis

Ulcerative colitis Cirrhosis

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C Not Labeled

Mandible Internal Jugular Parotid Gland Common Carotid

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D Not Labeled

Coracoid Process Rib Glenoid Process Scapular Spine Acromion Process

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Brachioradialis Muscle Olecranon Process Cephalic Vein Pronator Tree Muscle Capitulum Radial Head

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Uterus Bowel Urinary bladder Rectum Ovary

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D Not Labeled

Radial Head Ulna Cephalic Vein Ulnar Nerve Radial Artery

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Frontal Bone Nasal Bone Frontal Sinus Maxillary Bone Zygoma

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Ischium Pubis Pubis Symphysis Femur Ilium

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Ping-pong skull fracture Epidural hematoma Basilar skull fracture Linear skull fracture Depressed skull fracture

Basilar skull fracture Linear skull fracture

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Tuberculosis Pleural Effusion Lung Cancer Pneumonia

Tuberculosis Pneumonia

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? SDH Medulloblastoma Ischemic stroke ICB EDH

SDH

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Medulloblastoma Pituitary Adenoma Metastatic brain cancer Astrocytoma Acoustic Neuroma

Astrocytoma

What pathology is visible in the following image? Spinal Stenosis Compression Fracture Ankylosing Spondylitis Subluxation

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? (choose all correct) EDH SDH Brain contusions Astrocytoma MS

EDH Brain contusions

What pathology is visible in this image? Hemangiomas Cirrhosis Liver cancer Liver laceration

Liver cancer

What pathology is visualized in the following image? Dental abscess Nasal fracture Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture Blow-out fracture Mandible Fracture

Dental abscess

Which type of isolation precaution requires special air handling units? Airborne Isolation Standard Precaution Droplet Isolation Contact Isolation

Airborne Isolation

Which of these medications would help to minimize nausea and vomiting? Zofran Atropine Epinephrine Valium

Zofran

Which of these lab tests may indicate a patients potential for bleeding? (choose all correct) Hematocrit Platelet count Hemoglobin WBC count

Platelet count

An axial plane divides the body into _______ and ________ portions. Upper and lower Front and back Dorsal and ventral Right and left

Upper and lower

The submandibular glands are located medially to what aspect of the mandible? Body None of the above Ramus Mentum

Body

Which of the following is not composed of white brain matter? Corpus Callosum Myelinated Axons Cerebral cortex None of the above

Cerebral cortex

Through which aspect of the brainstem does the cerebral aqueduct transverse? Mid brain None of the above Medulla oblongata Pons

Mid brain

What is the distinguishing feature of ovarian cancer? Cystic changes General enlargement Wall thickening Rim-enhancement

General enlargement

Which of these conditions may be further categorized as infectious, ulcerative, or ischemic? Cysts Colitis Cancer Abscess

Colitis

What is the most aggressive brain tumor? Medulloblastoma Pituitary adenoma Astrocytoma Meningiomas Acoustic Neuroma

Medulloblastoma

Which of these conditions may account for the formation of a PE? (choose all correct) pregnancy Recent respiratory infection immobility recent surgery

pregnancy immobility recent surgery

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Vertebral Foramen Sphenoid Sinus Anterior Arch of C1 Odontoid Process Transverse Foramina

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Infraspinatus Muscle Pectoralis Major Muscle Pectoralis Minor Muscle Biceps Brachii Muscle Subscapularis Muscle Teres Minor Muscle

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D Not Labeled

Hyoid Bone Internal Jugular Vein SCM Muscle Vertebral Artery Parotid Gland

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Vastus Madialis Muscle Sartorius Muscle Semimembransis Muscle Femoral Shaft Biceps Femoris Muscle Tibial Shaft

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D Not Labeled

Scapular Spine Clavivle Sternum Rib Coracoid Process

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Extensor Digitorium Brevis Muscle Calcaneus Navicular Talus Abducto Hallicus Muscle Cuboid

What pathology is visible in the following image? Spinal Stenosis Ankylosing Spondylitis Subluxation Compression Fracture

Spinal Stenosis

What pathology is visible in this image? Gastric cancer Cirrhosis Lymphoma Splenic Laceration

Gastric cancer

What pathology is visible in this image? Colitis Colon cancer Appendicitis SBO Crohn’s disease

Appendicitis

What pathology is visible in this image? PKD Horseshoe kidney Wilm’s tumor RCC Renal Stone

Wilm’s tumor

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose all correct) Ascites Hematoma Infarct Neoplasm

Infarct

What pathology is seen in this image? Spinal Metastasis Tethered cord Spinal Meningioma Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Metastasis

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Pneumonia Lung Cancer Pneumothorax Interstitial lung disease

Pneumonia

What pathology is visible in this image? Neoplasm Hematoma Laceration Infarct

Infarct

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Interstitial Lung Disease Hemothorax Pneumothorax Tuberculosis

Hemothorax Pneumothorax

What pathology is seen in this image? CAD PE Pericardial Effusion Aortic Aneurysm

What pathology is visible in the following image? Compression Fracture Ankylosing Spondylitis Spinal Stenosis Subluxation

Ankylosing Spondylitis

What pathology is visible in this image? Splenic Laceration Lymphoma Gastric cancer Liver cancer

Lymphoma

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not Labeled

Navicular Cuneiform Tibia Talus Calcaneus Fibula

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D Not Labeled

Vertebral Foramen Sphenoid Sinus Anterior Arch of C1 Odontoid Process Transverse Foramina

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D Not Labeled

Uterus Bowel Urinary bladder Rectum Ovary

Urinary bladder A B C D Not Labeled

Urinary Bladder Vagina Psoas Muscle Uterus Sigmoid Colon

Identify the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Urinary Bladder Uterus Vagina Pubis Symphysis Ovary

Which of the following pathologies is visualized in this image? (choose all correct) Ping-pong skull fracture Basilar skull fracture Epidural hematoma Depressed skull fracture Linear skull fracture

Ping-pong skull fracture

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? ICB AVM Astrocytoma SDH EDH

EDH

Pneumothorax

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? (choose all correct) SDH Ischemic stroke Medulloblastoma ICB Edema

ICB Edema

What pathology is seen in this image? Pericardial Effusion Myxoma CAD CHF

CHF

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose all correct) Ascites Cyst Neoplasm Abscess

Ascites Neoplasm

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Metastatic brain cancer Pituitary Adenoma Medulloblastoma Acoustic Neuroma Astrocytoma

Astrocytoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple only if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Lung Cancer Pleural Effusion Hemothorax Tuberculosis

Lung Cancer

What pathology is visible in the image below? MS AVM Arachnoid Cyst Hydrocephalus Medulloblastoma

What pathology is visible in this image? RCC TCC Prostate cancer BPH Renal Stone

TCC

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? (choose all correct) Astrocytoma Brain contusions MS EDH SDH

Brain contusions EDH

What pathology is visible in the following image? Subluxation Compression Fracture Ankylosing Spondylitis Spinal Stenosis

Subluxation

What pathology is seen in this image? PE Pericardial Effusion CAD Myxoma

Myxoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Splenic Laceration Lymphoma Gastric cancer Liver cancer

Lymphoma

What pathology is seen in this image? Spondylolisthesis Ankylosing Spondylitis Compression Fracture Tethered Cord

Spondylolisthesis

What pathology is visible in this image? (choose multiple) SBO Colitis Appendicitis Crohn’s disease Colon cancer

SBO Colon cancer

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Medulloblastoma Pituitary Adenoma Metastatic brain cancer Acoustic Neuroma Astrocytoma

Pituitary Adenoma

Define Narcotic

Opium-based or opium-like analgesics. These drugs are potent pain-releivers with mood-altering side effects

Define Analgesic

Pain releivers

Define Sedatives

A drug that quiets nervous excitement

Define Cardiogenic Shock

a psychologic state in which inadequate tissuer pefussion results from cardiac dysfunction

Define Myocardial Infarction

Irreversible necrosis of heart muscle secondary to prolonged ischemia

Define Congestive Heart Failure

a clinical syndrome in which the heart fails to pump blood at the rate required by the metabolizing tissues

Define Cardiac Tamponade

a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D Not labeled

Hyoid bone Internal jugular vein SCM Muscle Vertebral Artery Parotid Gland

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not labeled

Transverse colon Liver Descending colon Renal cortex Renal Medulla

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C D E Not labeled

Trachea Radial Shaft humeral Shaft Olecranon Process Corocoid Process Ulnar Shaft

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D E

IVC Portal vein stomach large bowel spleen

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C Not labeled

frontal temporal bone occipital bone external occipital protuberance

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Medulloblastoma Pituitary Adenoma Astrocytoma Metastatic brain cancer Acoustic Neuroma

Metastatic brain cancer

What pathology is visible in this image? Abscess Ascites Cyst Malignant Neoplasm

Cyst

What pathology is visible in this image? Infarct Laceration Hematoma Neoplasm

Infarct

What pathology is visible in this image? Liver cancer Liver laceration Hemangiomas Cirrhosis

Liver cancer

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose multiple) Cholelithiasis Pancreatic Cancer Liver cancer GB Cancer Pancreatitis

Liver cancer GB Cancer

What pathology is seen in this image? Pericardial Effusion Aortic Aneurysm PE CAD

Aortic Aneurysm

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? EDH ICB Astrocytoma AVM SDH

EDH

What pathology is visible in this image? (choose multiple) Colon cancer SBO Crohn’s disease Colitis Appendicitis

Colon cancer SBO

What pathology is seen in this image? Tethered cord Spinal Meningioma Spinal Metastasis Spinal Ependymoma

Spinal Metastasis

What pathology is visible in this image? Colon cancer Appendicitis SBO Crohn’s disease Colitis

Colitis

What pathology is seen in this image? Myxoma Pericardial Effusion CAD CHF

CHF

What pathology is seen in this image? PE CAD Myxoma Pericardial Effusion

CAD

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Acoustic Neuroma Astrocytoma Medulloblastoma Metastatic brain cancer Pituitary Adenoma

Acoustic Neuroma

What pathology is visible in this image? RCC Renal Stone Wilm’s tumor Horseshoe kidney PKD

PKD

What pathology is visible in this image? Pancreatic Cancer GB Cancer Cholelithiasis Liver cancer Pancreatitis

Pancreatitis

Which of these procedures is focused on the absence of pathogenic organisms but does not require items to be sterile? Medical Asepsis Sterile Technique

Medical Asepsis

Define Non-toxic

elicits minimal adverse affects in the body

Define Stable

Does not break down in the body

Define Inert

Doe snot readily react woth other chemicals or medications

Define High Carrier Efficiency

small doses maximize contrst enhancement

Define Osmotically appropriate

Osmolarity of contrast agent matches that of surrouding tissue

Define Specificity

Contrast agewnt engages only the organs/tissues it is intended to effect

Define Non-flocculating

Does no cluster or clump together (especially Barium Sulfate suspensions)

Define Rapid Elimination

IS not retained or stored in the body

Label the anatomy in the following image A B C D Not Labeled

Temporal Lobe Cerebellum Sella Turcica Tentorium Occipital Lobe

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Lung Trachea Aorta Esophagus SVC

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D E F Not Labeled

ALL Intervertebral Disc PLL Spinous Process Interspinous Ligament Supraspinous Ligament Ligimentum Flavum

The lungs are connected to the mediastinum via what structure? Interlobular fissures Mediastinal pleura Lung roots Visceral pleura

Lung roots

What pathology is visible in the following image? Spinal Stenosis Ankylosing Spondylitis Subluxation Compression Fracture

Spinal Stenosis

What pathology is visible in this image? Gastric cancer Cirrhosis Lymphoma Splenic Laceration

Gastric cancer

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose all correct) Ascites Hematoma Infarct Neoplasm

Infarct

What pathology is visible in this image? Mark multiple if more than one pathology is visible or if clinical correlation is needed to distinguish between pathologies with similar imaging characteristics. Interstitial Lung Disease Hemothorax Pneumothorax Tuberculosis

Hemothorax Pneumothorax

Which of these lesions will only be seen growing near the periphery of the spinal cord? Spinal Metastasis Spinal Ependymoma Spinal Meningioma

Spinal Meningioma

What pathology is visible in the following image? Compression Fracture Ankylosing Spondylitis Spinal Stenosis Subluxation

Ankylosing Spondylitis

If a patient will not fit in the spine coil with the anterior aspect snapped down, which of the following would be the next best option to obtain the best possible SNR? Use the anterior piece of the head coil Use a c-collar Use a flex coil Use a halo

Use a flex coil

The linguine sign is: indicative of breast cancer indicative of thoracic aortic aneurysm indicative of intracapsular implant rupture a slice imaging plane for cardiac MRI

indicative of intracapsular implant rupture

If the R to R interval is 500 ms, the trigger window is 10%, and the trigger delay is 50 ms, what is the time available to acquire data? 500 ms 400 ms 460 ms 310 ms

400 ms

T/F: When using gadolinium, the T1 relaxation time of the water is reduced so enhancing lesions (such as tumors associated with free water) appear bright on a T1 weighted image.

True

Which artifact is produced as a result of motion of flowing nuclei? Phase ghosting Zipper effect Aliasing Truncation

Phase ghosting

How much does a typical patient's heart rate vary during an exam? 10- 20 % 40- 50% 20- 30% 60- 70%

10- 20 %

Which sequence is considered the gold standard for MR imaging? SSFP Gradient Echo Spin Echo Coherent Gradient Echo

Spin Echo

Which of these lab values may indicate a patient's potential for bleeding (choose all correct) INR Platelets PTT Hematocrit

INR Platelets PTT

How many vertebra of the spine are movable? 30 33 23 24

Which of the following describes a sac-like organ with variable appearance and orientation located in the center of the pelvic floor? Prostate Uterus Bladder Rectum

Uterus

A thoracic vertebra may be identified as it has which of the following? Costal facets Large vertebral body Transverse foramina All of the above

Costal facets

T/F: The external borders of the spinal cord are composes of white matter.

True

The gallbladder is located within which quadrant of the abdomen? LLQ RLQ RUQ LUQ

RUQ

The most superior bone of the pelvic bone is the: Ischium Ilium Pubis

Ilium

Which of the following does not help supply blood to the Circle of Willis? External Carotids None of the above Internal Carotids Vertebrals

External Carotids

The sphenoid sinus is located below which aspect of the sphenoid bone? Lesser wing Optic Canal Greater wing Sella turcica

Sella turcica

What pathology is visible in this image? Abscess Ascites Cyst Malignant Neoplasm

Cyst

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Acoustic Neuroma Pituitary Adenoma Metastatic brain cancer Astrocytoma Medulloblastoma

Medulloblastoma

What pathology is visible in this image? Liver cancer Liver laceration Hemangiomas Cirrhosis

Liver cancer

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose multiple) Cholelithiasis Pancreatic Cancer Liver cancer GB Cancer Pancreatitis

Liver cancer GB Cancer

Which of these conditions might demonstrate necrosis and cavity formation in specialty imaging? Pleural effusion Pneumonia Tuberculosis Pericardial Effusion

Tuberculosis

What pathology is seen in this image? Tethered cord Spinal Metastasis Spinal Meningioma Spinal Ependymoma

Tethered cord

What is the most common cause of kidney laceration? Hemorrhage Thrombus Infarct Trauma

Trauma

What pathology is visible in this image? Colon cancer Appendicitis SBO Crohn’s disease Colitis

Colitis

Which of these conditions is almost always associated with a skull fracture? (Choose all correct) Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH) Subarachnoid Hemorrhage (SAH) Intracranial bleed (ICB) Subdural Hemorrhage (SDH)

Epidural Hemorrhage (EDH)

What pathology is seen in this image? PE CAD Myxoma Pericardial Effusion

CAD

Which of these neoplasms is most likely to be associated with cystic developments in the intramedullary canal? Spinal Ependymoma Spinal Meningioma Spinal Metastasis

Spinal Ependymoma

Which of the following items are T1 and T2 relaxation times dependent on (hint: there are three)? How well the molecular tumbling rate matches the Larmor frequency of hydrogen The inherent energy of the tissue The number of electrons orbiting the nucleus How closely packed the molecules are Spin-spin interactions of oxygen atoms

How well the molecular tumbling rate matches the Larmor frequency of hydrogen The inherent energy of the tissue How closely packed the molecules are

What do T1 images typically best demonstrate? Anatomy Everything Bright fluid Pathology

Anatomy

T/F: Generally speaking, gradient echo sequences are faster than spin echo sequences.

True

What are the three types of motion present in an atom? (Select all that apply) Electrons spinning on their own axis. Electrons orbiting the nucleus. Nuclei spinning around each other. The nucleus itself spinning about its own axis.

Electrons spinning on their own axis. Electrons orbiting the nucleus. The nucleus itself spinning about its own axis.

In which direction does chemical shift artifact occur? (Choose all that apply) Anterior to Posterior Frequency Axis Phase Axis Slice Select Axis

Frequency Axis

T/F: The "warm zone" in MRI is the scan room itself.

False

Which of these procedures should be used during procedures that involve entry into a sterile body cavity? Medical Asepsis Sterile Technique

Sterile Technique

Which of the following could potential cause a vasovagal response? (Choose all correct) Pain Fear Anxiety Medications

Pain Fear Anxiety Medications

Which of the following applies to a patient with standard precautions? (Choose all correct) Hand hygiene Safe injection practices Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette Use of personal protective equipment

Hand hygiene Safe injection practices Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette Use of personal protective equipment

Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only sacral vertebrae? Transverse foramina Large vertebral bodies Fused transverse processes Facets and demi-facets

Fused transverse processes

Which aspect of the ear contains the auditory ausicles? Middle External Auricular portion Inner

Middle

he spinal cord ends at the level of which vertebra? C1 L1 T1 S1

Which of the following vessels do not enter the skull? Vertebrals External Carotid Internal Carotid None of the above

External Carotid

Label the anatomy in this image. A B C D E F

Internal jugular vein SVC Parotid Gland SCM Common Carotid Trachea

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

MAstoid Air Cells C1 C2 Transverse Process Sphenoid Sinuses

Which of the following is not an aspect of the cerebrum? Vermis Corpus Callosum Cerebral Cortex Insula

Vermis

The most superior point of the junction of what two bones is referred to as the vertex of the skull? Temporal Frontal Sphenoid Parietal

Parietal

Label the anatomy in the image below. A B C Not Labeled

Ulna Flexor Tendons Radius Extensor Tendons

The folds of the brain’s surface may be referred to as: Sulci Fissures Sinuses Gyri

Gyri

Label the antomy in the following image. A B C D E

C2 Vertebral Foramen Mandible Transverse Foramen C1

What is the most important indication of SBO? Bowel distention Bowel inflammation Hemorrhage Abscess

Bowel distention

Which of these fractures are most likely to affect children? (choose all correct) Diastatic fracture Ping-pong fracture Basilar skull fracture Depressed skull fracture

Diastatic fracture Ping-pong fracture

What pathology is responsible for the appearance of this image? GB Cancer Cholelithiasis Pancreatitis Pancreatic Cancer Liver cancer

Cholelithiasis

Which of these conditions will always present in imaging as an area of infarct in the brain? (choose one or both) Hemorrhagic stroke Ischemic stroke

Ischemic stroke

What pathology is visible in the image below? EDH Medulloblastoma SDH Chiari Malformation ICB

Chiari Malformation

Typical spin echo sequences produce images known as: Bright blood imaging Subtraction images Black blood imaging Phase imaging

Black blood imaging

Which of the following sequence(s)/techniques(s) can be used to produce images where vessels appear dark? GMN The Application of Pre-Sat Pulses Contrast Enhancement Gradient Echo Sequences Spin Echo Acquisitions

The Application of Pre-Sat Pulses Spin Echo Acquisitions

T/F: Using a long echo train decreases the SAR.

False

Which type of motion can we compensate for in MRI? Second order motion acceleration All of those listed can be compensated for First order laminar flow Third order motion jerk

First order laminar flow

How can we reduce truncation? Increase the number of phase encoding steps Increase the TE Increase the number of frequency encoding steps Increase the TR

Increase the number of phase encoding steps

T/F: The appendix extends from the cecum

True

Which of the following terms refers to the lateral aspects of the vertebral arch to which the vertebral body attaches? Articular Facets Pedicle Lamina Transverse process

Pedicle

The right lung has how many lobes? Three Two One

Three

The portal vein is formed by the confluence of which of the following vessels? (Choose all correct) SMV Renal veins IMV Splenic vein

SMV IMV Splenic vein

Structures within which portion of the ear also control equilibrium and balance? Inner Middle External Tympanic portion

Inner

Label the anatomy in the following image. A B C D Not Labeled

Liver Large Bowel Small Bowel Aorta IVC

Match the following external landmarks with the corresponding vertrebal level: Costal Margin Symphysis Pubis Mastoid Tip Umbilicus Iliac Crest ASIS Vertabra Prominens Jugular Notch Sternal Angle

L3 Coccyx C1 L3/4 L4 S1 C7 T2/3 T4/5

The superior aspect of the lungs are grossly termed the: Mediastinal surface Diaphragmatic surface Apex Base

Apex

Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only lumbar vertebrae? Transverse foramina Large vertebral bodies Fused transverse processes Facets and demi-facets

Large vertebral bodies

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Astrocytoma Metastatic brain cancer Pituitary Adenoma Acoustic Neuroma Medulloblastoma

Astrocytoma

What pathology is seen in this image? CAD Pericardial Effusion CHF Myxoma

CHF

Adrenal mass Renal Stone Kidney laceration RCC Wilm’s tumor

Wilm’s tumor

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? Abscess Astrocytoma Medulloblastoma MS Arachnoid Cyst

Abscess

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose all correct) Ascites Cyst Abscess Neoplasm

Ascites Neoplasm

What pathology is visible in this image? Wilm’s tumor Adrenal mass Kidney laceration Renal Stone RCC

Renal Stone

What pathology is visible in this image? Neoplasm Abscess Colitis Cyst

Colitis

Which of these pathologies is visualized in the image below? EDH ICB SDH AVM Astrocytoma

EDH

What pathology is visible in the following image? Compression Fracture Spondylolisthesis Spinal Stenosis Ankylosing Spondylitis

Spondylolisthesis

What pathology is visible in this image? Abscess Cyst Neoplasm Ascites

Abscess

Lesions in the brain may be associated with which of these intracranial conditions? (choose all correct) Ischemia Mass effect Bleeding Edema

Ischemia Mass effect Bleeding Edema

What pathology is visible in this image? Colon cancer Appendicitis Crohn’s disease Colitis SBO

SBO

What pathology is visible in this image? SBO Appendicitis Colon cancer Crohn’s disease Colitis

Colon cancer

What pathology is visible in this image? (Choose all correct) Laceration Hematoma Inflammation Neoplasm

Laceration Hematoma

Functional imaging techniques include which of the following (check all that apply)? fMRI Perfusion imaging DWI Spectroscopy

fMRI Perfusion imaging DWI Spectroscopy

What is VENC?

Velocity encodin - a parameter that must be specified before performing a phase-contrast (PC) MRI orMRA study.

How do you set VENC correctly?

VENC, measured in cm/sec, should be chosen to encompass the highest velocities likely to be encountered within the vessel of interest.

What does MOTSA stand for?

Multiple Overlapping Thin Slab Acquisitions

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