Mock Exam- Part 2 Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

As electrons strike the anode target, more than ______% of their kinetic energy is converted to________.

A

99% is converted to heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which type of target interaction is responsible for MOST of the x-rays in the diagnostic x-ray beam?

A

Bremstrahlung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In this interaction with matter, an electron drops down to fill the inner shell vacancy, and gives up it’s excess energy as a secondary photon?

A

Photoelectric Interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A quality image is produced using 25 mAs at 90 kVp with a 6:1 grid ratio. Calculate the change in exposure technique to maintain radiation exposure to the IR when changing to a 12:1 grid ratio.

A. 40 mAs at 90 kVp
B. 40 mAs at 80 kVp
C. 20 mAs at 90 kVp
D. 20 mAs at 80 kVp

A

A. 40 mAs at 90 kVp``

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This grid error will cause the lateral edges of the image to be highly underexposed?

A

Upside down Focused Grid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The air gap technique uses an increased ___________ instead of a grid.

A

OID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A radiographic image is produced using a 102 cm SID, a 18 cm OID and a .3 mm focal spot size. What is the magnification factor?

A

1.21 = MF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is responsible for the latent image formation in CR?

A

Photostimulable Phosphor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is the best light used to view digital images at the workstation?

A

Low Levels of Ambient Lighting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is the spatial resolution improved in digital radiography?

A

Increased matrix size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of digital system used amorphous selenium coated detectors to convert exit radiation directly to an electrical charge?

A

Direct Digital Imaging Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following matrix sizes would produce the best image quality?

64 x 64
256 x 256
1024 x 1024
2048 x 2048

A

2048 x 2048

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What would you need to do to the mAs when x-raying a patient with pneumonia?

A

Increase the mAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What generator has a voltage ripple of less than 1%?

A

High Frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What describes the release of electrons from a heated filament?

A

Thermionic Emission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which part of the x-ray tube is the actual x-ray source?

A

Focal Spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common cause of tube failure?

A

Tungsten Vaporization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to the American Heart Association, What is the compression to ventilation ratio for one rescuer CPR on an adult patient?

A

30:2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

An adult patient with a respiratory rate of 30 is considered?

A

To have Tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A technologist is performing a mobile femur exam on a patient. The patient is in traction for a femur fracture. Should the technologist remove the traction to perform the exam?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Patients with suspected spinal injuries are moved using the __________ method.

A

Log Roll Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be part of the 5 steps of the grieving process?

Bargaining
Denial
Anger
Anxiety

A

Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Malpractice prevention includes:

Competence
Confidentiality
Compliance
All of the Above

A

Competence
Confidentiality
Compliance

All of the Above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

You hear a fellow radiographer talking poorly about a radiologist to a patient. What is this an example of?

A

Slander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Place the exams in order from first to last as to when they should be completed: UGI IVU BE Lumbar Spine
Lumbar Spine IVU BE UGI
26
Informed consent from the patient may be: Written Oral Implied All of the Above
Written Oral Implied All of the Above
27
A 45 year old patient with a heart rate of 50 is _____________.
Bacycardic
28
Where is the pulse assessed when CPR is being preformed on an infant?
Brachial Artery
29
Barium sulfate should NOT be used for an exam on a patient with?
Suspected perforation of the intestines
30
The patient that has a syncope episode should be placed in the ______________ position.
Trendelenburg
31
A radiographer that speaks harshly to a patient and threatens him/her is guilty of:
Assault
32
Which of the following needles has the smallest bore? 25 gauge 21 guage 14 gauge 10 gauge
25 gauge
33
A(n) ____________ is a document prepared by a person prior to them getting sick which indicates their wishes about their medical care.
Advanced Directive
34
___________ s caused by infection that spreads to the bloodstream.
Septic Shock
35
Failure to perform radiologic technology with reasonable skill and safety would be a violation of the:
Code of Ethics
36
These x-rays are produced as specific energies and are considered to belong to the DISCRETE x-ray spectrum?
Characteristic X-rays
37
The primary side of the high voltage transformer is supplied with 220V and has 100 turns. The secondary side has 25,000 turns. What is the voltage on the seconday side?
55 kVp (How do you do this)
38
A 3 phase, 6 pulse generator with full wave rectification will produce _________ pulses per second.
360 pulses per second (check how to do this)
39
If the anode angle decreases from 20 degrees to 12 degrees, the size of the actual focal spot measured for a .5 mm filament will?
Remain the Same (What does this mean)
40
Which grid selection will allow the greatest positioning latitude? 16: 1; 103 lines/inch, focused grid 12: 1; 80 lines/inch, focused grid 8: 1; 103 lines/inch, focused grid 8: 1; 80 lines/inch, focused grid
8:1; 80 lines/inch, focused grid (how do you do this)
41
Selection of an image intensifier using the 17 cm magnification mode instead of 25 cm mode would result in? Decreased FOV mA Decreased Proportionally Increased Image Resolution Decreased Contrast
Decreased FOV | Increased Image Resolution
42
_________ is the primary controlling factor for receptor exposure (Density).
mAs
43
A 10 bit digital radiograph system can produce an image with __________ shades of gray.
1024 (How do you do this)
44
Attenuation increases if: Atomic Number Increases Beam Energy Decreases Thickness Increases
Atomic Number Increases Beam Energy Decreases Thickness Increases
45
What is the voltage ripple of a 3 phase, 6 pulse generator?
13 percent
46
The best image resolution comes from: ``` Short OID Long OID Short SID Long SID Small FSS Long FSS (should this be large focal spot size?) ```
Short OID Long SID Small FSS
47
Which of the following will produce the greatest receptor exposure (Density)? 90 kVp, 40 mAs, 100 cm SID, 8:1 Grid 70 kVp, 25 mAs, 100 cm SID, 12:1 Grid 100 kVp, 50 mAs, 100 cm SID, 6:1 Grid 70 kVp, 20 mAs, 100 cm SID, 8:1 Grid
100 kVp, 50 mAs, 100 cm SID, 6:1 Grid (highest mAs, because mAs is the primary controller of density)
48
An AP Axial Projection (Towne Method) of the skull with the OML perpendicular to the CR angled 30 degrees caudad passing through the EAM demonstrates the:
Occipital Bone
49
Contrast media is injected into the ____________ space during a myelogram.
Subarachnoid
50
______________ is a pathological condition that involves frequent hip dislocations that have been present from birth is?
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip
51
When performing a chest x-ray on a patient that is suspected to have free air in the pleural cavity, what radiographs should be taken to demonstrate this?
PA Inspiration an PA Expiration
52
The body habitus that has a high diaphraghm with a short/broad heart that is more toward the midline is?
Hyperstenic
53
A ____________ fracture involves the posterior distal tibia and both the medial and lateral malleoli.
Trimalleolar
54
The "neck" of the scottie dog is formed by the?
Pars Interarticularis
55
The radial head is demonstrated free of superimposition in the ___________ position.
AP Oblique Lateral Rotation
56
The cubiod is s demonstrated the best on the _____________.
AP Oblique Medial Rotation
57
In the electromagnetic spectrum, higher energy photons have? Longer wavelengths and lower frequencies Shorter wavelengths and lower frequencies Shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies Longer wavelengths and higher frequencies
Shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies
58
Which of the following will reduce patient dose? Use of intermittent fluoro An increased mA Use of latent image hold Operation in Mag mode
Use of intermittent fluoro | Use of latent image hold
59
Which of the following radiations have basically the same effect? X-ray Beta Alpha Gamma
X-ray Beta Gamma
60
Which of the following are considered high LET radiation? Alpha Beta Gamma
Alpha
61
LD 50/30 means what in relation to whole body radiation dose?
The dose is lethal to 50% of the population in 30 days
62
Which of the following somatic effects follow a linear, threshold-dose response relationship? Cataractogenesis Carcinogenesis Acute Radiation Syndromes Genetic Effects
Acute Radiation Syndromes
63
Hardening the beam results from?
Increasing filtration
64
The ACR's position on abdominal radiographs of female patients that have been requested after full consideration of the patient's clinical status to include the possibility of pregnancy?
Should NOT be postponed or selectively scheduled
65
The greatest occupational exposure is a result of what interaction?
Compton
66
Lead aprons used for fluoroscopy should contain?
.25 mm Pb equivalency
67
Dyspnea is classified as a ____________ reaction to contrast media.
Severe
68
____________ is a defect of the pars interarticularis.
Spondylolysis
69
The majority of x-ray photons in the beam come from what type of interactions?
Bremsstrahlung Interactions
70
Fixed fluoroscopic units are required to have a __________ minimum SSD.
38 cm
71
The exposure cord for mobile radiography can not be less than?
2 m
72
The proper placement of the radiation dosimeter for occupational monitoring is:
At the collar level on the anterior aspect of the body
73
The x-ray tube housing is constructed with a lead lining so that leakage radiation does not exceed?
100 mGy^^a/hr at 1 meter
74
Placement of the gonadal shield for the female patient should be placed:
2.4 cm medial to the ASIS
75
X-rays should scatter a minimum of _________ times before reaching the control booth barrier.
5 Times
76
The general population dose limit for non-occupational people for continuous or frequent exposure is:
1 mSv
77
Controlled work areas in the radiography suite equivalent dose limit per week is:
1 mSv
78
The TLD wear period is?
3 months
79
The sensing material in the OSL is?
Aluminum Oxide
80
The current genetically significant dose for the United States population is?
.2 mSv (Damn what is this?)
81
The first step to gonadal protection from ionizing radiation is?
Adequate Collimation
82
The sum total of air kerma over the exposed area of tha patient's body surface is ________________.
Dose Area Product
83
Federal regulations state that the ESE rates for general purpose intensified fluoroscopy can NOT exceed?
100 mGy^^a/min
84
A cumulative timing device for fluoroscopy will activate when the beam on time has reached?
5 minutes
85
A minimum total filtration for fixed fluoroscopic units that operate above 70 kVp is?
2.5 mm Aluminum Equivalent
86
How many half value layers are needed to reduce the radiation intensity from 300 mGy^^a to 75 mGy^^a?
2
87
Which of the following personnel dosimeters will provide an exposure report reading of "M" for occupational exposures below 1 mrem?
OSL
88
Which of the following area survey meters is used to measure output exposures in a fluoroscopic room?
Ionization Chamber/Cutie Pie
89
The cardinal principles of radiation protection include: Collimation Shielding Time Distance
Time | Distance Shielding
90
Somatic effects occur in?
The person that was exposed to ionization radiation
91
The _________ states that cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are not specialized or rapidly dividing.
Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau
92
____________ are changes that occur to the DNA that are passed to offspring.
Mutations
93
This unit is used to measure exposure rate in fluoroscopy.
Gy^^a
94
The greatest source of natural background radiation comes from?
Radon
95
Dose Limits are established from NCRP report #?
116
96
The most effective means of protection from the radiographer from ionizing radiation is?
Increasing Distance from the radiation source
97
A nasoenteric tube is placed?
Through the nose to the small intestines
98
A patient with a decreased immunity would be placed in what type of isolation?
Protective
99
A patient can withdraw consent for a procedure to be performed? After the consent is signed Before the procedure During the Procedure All of the above
After the consent is signed Before the procedure During the Procedure All of the above
100
A W^^R has been established for each of the following ionizing radiations: ``` X-radiations (W^^R=1) Fast Neutrons (W^^R=20) and Alpha Particles (W^^R=20) ``` What is the total EqD for a person who has received the following exposures? ``` X-radiation (.13 Gy) Fast Neutrons (030 Gy) Alpha Particles (.6 Gy) ```
18.13 Sv