Mod. 1 Immunity Flashcards
Which of the following best describes stress in the context of the body’s response to change?
A. A rare, isolated experience that only results from negative experiences
B. A universal experience that can result from both positive and negative experiences
C. A constant state that leads to immediate, irreversible damage
D. Only caused by negative experiences, leading to long-term health issues
B. A universal experience that can result from both positive and negative experiences
Rationale:
Stress is a universal experience that occurs as a result of both positive and negative events, and it is a body’s response to any type of change. It can impact the body’s homeostasis and may have both beneficial and harmful effects depending on how it’s managed.
In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does the body release catecholamines and cortisol?
A. Alarm
B. Reaction
C. Resistance
D. Exhaustion
A. Alarm
Rationale:
During the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the body responds to stress by releasing catecholamines and cortisol to prepare for a “fight or flight” response. This is the first response to stress.
Which of the following statements best describes the local adaptation syndrome (LAS)?
A. It involves systemic changes affecting the entire body.
B. It confines damage to one specific area of the body.
C. It is part of the resistance stage in the general adaptation syndrome.
D. It occurs only in cases of chronic stress.
B. It confines damage to one specific area of the body.
Rationale:
The local adaptation syndrome focuses on localized responses to stress that affect one area of the body. It is a more specific, localized reaction as opposed to the general adaptation syndrome, which involves systemic changes.
Which of the following is true about the body’s normal defenses against disease?
A. The immune system is self-regulated and can easily be overwhelmed.
B. The body always attacks both harmful and beneficial agents indiscriminately.
C. The body must distinguish between self and non-self to prevent disease.
D. The immune system only protects the body from microbes and does not respond to injury.
C. The body must distinguish between self and non-self to prevent disease.
Rationale:
The immune system is designed to distinguish between self and non-self to protect against disease. This ability to differentiate is crucial for the defense mechanism, ensuring that the body attacks only harmful invaders while leaving normal body cells unharmed.
Which of the following is an example of innate immunity?
A. The production of antibodies in response to a vaccine
B. Skin acting as a physical barrier to pathogens
C. Activation of T-cells to target specific pathogens
D. Memory cells recognizing a previously encountered virus
B. Skin acting as a physical barrier to pathogens
Rationale:
Innate immunity is non-specific and provides immediate protection against all invaders. Physical barriers such as skin and mucous membranes are key components of innate immunity, offering an immediate defense against pathogens.
Which of the following is characteristic of adaptive immunity?
A. Provides protection against all invaders in a non-specific manner
B. Takes 7-10 days to respond and is specific to the antigen
C. Includes barriers like skin and mucous membranes
D. Responds immediately upon encountering a pathogen
B. Takes 7-10 days to respond and is specific to the antigen
Rationale:
Adaptive immunity is specific to the pathogen and can take several days (7-10) to provide protection after the body encounters an antigen. It is highly specialized and involves the activation of T-cells and B-cells, unlike innate immunity, which responds immediately but non-specifically.
What is the role of the body’s immune response in fighting off infections?
A. It involves only the destruction of harmful cells.
B. It is a self-limiting process that always requires medical intervention.
C. It defends against and attacks foreign agents, such as microbes, using a variety of mechanisms.
D. It is an adaptive process but cannot distinguish between harmful and non-harmful agents.
C. It defends against and attacks foreign agents, such as microbes, using a variety of mechanisms.
Rationale:
The immune response involves both defending and attacking harmful agents like microbes. It is a self-regulating system that works through various mechanisms, such as producing antibodies and activating immune cells, to protect the body from infection and disease.
What is an antigen in the context of the immune response?
A. A type of white blood cell that helps the body fight infections
B. A foreign agent that induces an immune response in the body
C. A protective protein produced by the body in response to infection
D. The part of the body that distinguishes self from non-self
B. A foreign agent that induces an immune response in the body
Rationale:
An antigen is any substance that triggers an immune response, usually because it is recognized as foreign by the immune system. Common examples of antigens include pathogens like bacteria and viruses.
Which of the following coping strategies would most likely minimize the effects of stress on the body?
A. Avoiding all social interactions and staying isolated
B. Engaging in physical exercise and relaxation techniques
C. Ignoring stressors and hoping they resolve on their own
D. Overloading the body with stimulants to maintain alertness
B. Engaging in physical exercise and relaxation techniques
Rationale:
Physical exercise and relaxation techniques are known to help manage stress effectively. These strategies can help the body return to a state of balance, reducing the negative impact stress can have on the body’s systems.
Which of the following factors can affect an individual’s stress response?
A. Genetics, age, gender, and history
B. Only the duration of the stressor
C. The level of physical activity alone
D. The specific coping strategy used, regardless of the situation
A. Genetics, age, gender, and history
Rationale:
Several factors, including genetics, age, gender, and personal history, can influence how an individual responds to stress. These factors can make stress responses more predictable or vary significantly from person to person.
Which of the following best describes the vascular response during the acute phase of inflammation?
A) Vasodilation and phagocytosis
B) Increased collagen production and tissue repair
C) Erythema, edema, heat, and vasoconstriction
D) Granuloma formation and chronic inflammation
A) Vasodilation and phagocytosis
Rationale: The acute phase of the inflammatory response involves immediate actions like vasodilation, which allows immune cells to reach the site of injury, and phagocytosis, where pathogens and dead cells are engulfed. The correct response also includes erythema (redness) and heat.
A patient presents with a severe allergic reaction to peanuts, characterized by immediate swelling and hives. Which hypersensitivity reaction is most likely occurring?
A) Type I (IgE-mediated)
B) Type II (Tissue-specific/cytotoxic)
C) Type III (Immune complex-mediated)
D) Type IV (Cell-mediated/delayed-type)
A) Type I (IgE-mediated)
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated and typically occurs with immediate reactions to allergens like peanuts. It involves mast cells and basophils, which release histamine and other chemicals, leading to symptoms such as swelling and hives.
In which type of hypersensitivity reaction are circulating antigen-antibody complexes responsible for triggering the complement system’s inflammatory response?
A) Type I (IgE-mediated)
B) Type II (Tissue-specific/cytotoxic)
C) Type III (Immune complex-mediated)
D) Type IV (Cell-mediated/delayed-type)
C) Type III (Immune complex-mediated)
Rationale: In Type III hypersensitivity, antigen-antibody complexes accumulate in tissues and activate the complement system, leading to inflammation. This reaction can occur both locally and systemically, causing damage to surrounding tissues.
A patient’s body is unable to produce a normal immune response due to the absence of functional antibodies. Which of the following would be the most appropriate diagnosis?
A) Autoimmune disease
B) Immunodeficiency
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Tissue transplant rejection
B) Immunodeficiency
Rationale: Immunodeficiency occurs when the immune system’s ability to respond to pathogens is impaired, often due to a lack of antibodies or other immune components. This can be congenital or acquired, leading to increased susceptibility to infections.
Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)?
A) The body rejects the graft due to immunocompetence
B) The graft attacks the body’s tissues, often seen after bone marrow transplants
C) Tissue rejection occurs because of mismatched organ antigens
D) An immune response leads to immediate tissue necrosis in the graft
B) The graft attacks the body’s tissues, often seen after bone marrow transplants
Rationale: Graft-versus-host disease occurs when the transplanted tissue (typically bone marrow) contains immune cells that attack the recipient’s body, recognizing it as foreign. This is a unique complication of bone marrow transplants.
What is the most common type of transplant rejection that occurs within a few days up to 3 months and is treatable with immunosuppressive therapy?
A) Acute tissue rejection
B) Chronic tissue rejection
C) Hyperacute tissue rejection
D) Graft-versus-host rejection
A) Acute tissue rejection
Rationale: Acute tissue rejection typically occurs within weeks to months of transplant. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever and edema and is often treatable with immunosuppressive medications. This is the most common type of rejection following a transplant.
In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) does the body release catecholamines and cortisol in response to stress?
A) Alarm stage
B) Resistance stage
C) Exhaustion stage
D) Recovery stage
A) Alarm stage
Rationale: The alarm stage is the initial response to stress, where the body releases catecholamines (e.g., adrenaline) and cortisol to prepare for a fight-or-flight response. These hormones increase heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose levels, enabling a quick response to the stressor.
Which of the following best describes Type IV hypersensitivity, and how does it differ from other types?
A) Immediate, IgE-mediated, local or systemic
B) Cell-mediated, delayed, and involves T-cells rather than antibodies
C) Immediate, tissue-specific, and results in cytotoxicity
D) Involves immune complexes and activates the complement system
B) Cell-mediated, delayed, and involves T-cells rather than antibodies
Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed, cell-mediated response, where T-cells are activated to release cytokines. This differs from other types that are antibody-mediated (Types I, II, and III). Type IV often involves tissue injury and fibrosis.
What factor(s) enhance the body’s defense mechanisms against infections?
A) Poor nutrition, aging, and stress
B) Adequate sleep, balanced nutrition, and physical exercise
C) Smoking and excessive alcohol consumption
D) Chronic illness and immunodeficiency disorders
B) Adequate sleep, balanced nutrition, and physical exercise
Rationale: A strong immune system is supported by healthy lifestyle factors such as adequate sleep, balanced nutrition, and regular physical activity. These factors enhance immune function, whereas stress, poor nutrition, and chronic illnesses impair defenses.
Which of the following examples best illustrates an autoimmune response?
A) An allergic reaction to pollen
B) Erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn)
C) Rheumatoid arthritis, where the body attacks its own joints
D) A transfusion reaction where mismatched blood causes hemolysis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis, where the body attacks its own joints
Rationale: Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own tissues. In rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system targets the joints, leading to inflammation, pain, and eventually joint destruction.
Which of the following best describes the role of T-cells in Type IV hypersensitivity reactions?
A) T-cells activate B-cells to produce antibodies that mediate an allergic reaction
B) T-cells directly destroy the target cells through cytokine release
C) T-cells stimulate mast cells and basophils to release histamine
D) T-cells form immune complexes with antigens that activate the complement system
B) T-cells directly destroy the target cells through cytokine release
Rationale: In Type IV hypersensitivity (cell-mediated), T-cells (especially CD4+ helper T-cells and CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells) release cytokines that activate other immune cells, causing tissue damage and inflammation. This is a delayed response, and T-cells are central to the process.
A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with asthma after a severe allergic reaction to dust mites. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for the allergic response in this condition?
A) IgE
B) IgG
C) IgA
D) IgM
A) IgE
Rationale: IgE is the immunoglobulin involved in allergic reactions, including asthma. When an individual is exposed to an allergen like dust mites, IgE binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine and other chemicals that cause inflammation and bronchoconstriction.
Which statement accurately describes the difference between IgG and IgM in the context of an immune response?
A) IgG is the first antibody produced during an immune response, while IgM is produced later
B) IgM is the first antibody produced during an immune response, while IgG is produced later and provides long-term immunity
C) Both IgG and IgM are produced simultaneously in equal quantities
D) IgG is found primarily in mucosal areas, while IgM is found in the bloodstream
B) IgM is the first antibody produced during an immune response, while IgG is produced later and provides long-term immunity
Rationale: IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced in response to an infection, and it plays a critical role in the early immune response. IgG follows and provides long-lasting immunity, often responsible for protection against reinfection.
A patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant is at risk for graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). Which T-cell-mediated process is responsible for the manifestation of this disease?
A) The host’s immune cells attack the graft tissue
B) The graft’s immune cells attack the host’s tissues
C) The recipient’s T-cells initiate a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
D) The recipient’s T-cells fail to respond to foreign antigens
B) The graft’s immune cells attack the host’s tissues
Rationale: Graft-versus-host disease occurs when the transplanted immune cells (from the bone marrow) attack the recipient’s tissues. This is a T-cell-mediated process, where the graft’s T-cells recognize the host’s tissues as foreign and initiate an immune response.
