MOD 3 Flashcards

(77 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is the correct
Tall Man lettering for Chlorpromazine and Chlorpropamide?
a.CHLORPROmazine, CHLORPROpamide
b. chlorpromazine, chlorpropamide
c.CHLORPROMAZINE,
CHLORPROPAMIDE
d. ChlorproMAZINE, ChlorproPAMIDE

A

d. ChlorproMAZINE, ChlorproPAMIDE

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2
Q

A STATorder means that the drug should be administered
a. immediately
b. as needed
c. before eating
d. at bedtime

A

a. immediately

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3
Q

Drugs affected by the interaction is
referred to as the
a. Object drug
b. Precipitant drug-drug cauing the
interaction
c. Active drug
d. Inactive drug

A

a. Object drug

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4
Q

The following factors increase gastric
emptying rate except:
I. Atropine
II. Stress
IlI. Lying on the left side
IV. Metoclopramide
V. Mild exercise

a. IV and V
b. I, II, III
c. I, II
d. I, III, IV

A

b. I, II, III

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5
Q

A neonate is
a. Less than 1 day
b. 1 year to 12 years
c. 1 day to 1 month
d. 12 to 16 years

A

c. 1 day to 1 month

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6
Q

The following scenario will facilitate
excretion, except:
I. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be absorbed in an acidic medium for it to appear in its hydrophilic form in a low pH environment
II. For a weakly basic drug, it must be absorbed in a basic medium for it to appear in its nonpolar form in a high pH environment
III. For a weakly acidic drug, it must be absorbed in an environment with low pH to facilitate absorption IV. For a weakly basic drug, it must be absorbed in an environment with low pH to facilitate absorption

a. I only
b. I and Il
c. Il and III
d. Ill and IV
e. IV only

A

c. Il and III

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7
Q

When two interacting drugs result to the alteration of the metabolism of one of the drugs, this interaction is classified as a
a. pharmaceutical interaction
b. pharmacokinetic interaction
c. pharmacodynamic interaction
d. physico-chemical interaction

A

b. pharmacokinetic interaction

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8
Q

The following parameters are
objective, except
a. Pain
b. Temperature
c. Respiratory rate
d. Heart rate

A

a. Pain

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9
Q

Which of the following is/are valid
therapeutic use/s of a drug interaction?
I. Giving aspirin with warfarin to
enhance anticoagulation
Il. Giving multiple antihypertensive drugs to control
IlI. Taking ciprofloxacin with antacids to decrease G intolerance to oral therapy./

a. I only
b. Il only.
C. Il and III
d. I, Il and III

A

b. Il only

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10
Q

A prescription for Ammoniated
Mercury Ointment 7%, 450g, with a
Signa of apply ud bid, is received at
your pharmacy. The Pharmacy only has 3% and 10% Ammoniated Mercury available. Using alligation, calculate the amount of each available product needed to prepare this prescription.

a. 192.86g 10% and 257.14g of 3%
b. 225g of 10% and 225g of 3%
c. 257.14g of 10% and 192.86g of 3%
d. 200g of 10% and 250g of 3%

A

c. 257.14g of 10% and 192.86g of 3%

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11
Q

A formula for an antifungal shampoo contains 2% (w/v) of ketoconazole. How many grams of ketoconazole would be needed to prepare lot the shame?
a. 5
b. 500
c 5000
d. 50

A

b. 500

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12
Q

The following drug/s can increase
the clearance of another drug:
benzype ideer
I. Valproic acid
II. Grapefruit juice
III. Cimetidine
IV. Erythromycin

a. I and IV
b. I, II, III
C. AOTA
d. NOTA

A

d. NOTA

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13
Q

Which of the following is/are
considered as Error-prone
abbreviations; by the Institute for Safe Medication Practice?
I. mg
II. mcg
III. IU
IV. cc
V. units

a. I only
b. I and II
c. Ill and IV
d. IIl, IV, and V
e. V only

A

c. Ill and IV

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14
Q

Anemia commonly associated with
the use of chloramphenicol
a. Aplastic anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. IDA

A

a. Aplastic anemia

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15
Q

Message of physician to the
pharmacist
a. Signa
b. Subscription
c. Inscription
d. Superscription

A

b. Subscription

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16
Q

Which of the following statement
best describes thrombolytics and
antithrombotics?
a. An example of a thrombolylic is
Aspirin
b. Reteplase is an anti-thrombotic agent
c. Thrombolytic reduces clot formation while antithrombotic agents dissolve clot
d. Thrombolytic agents dissolve clot
while antithrombotics reduces clot
formation

A

d. Thrombolytic agents dissolve clot
while antithrombotics reduces clot
formation

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17
Q

In monitoring the inventory of drugs at the pharmacy which of the following transactions will DECREASE the “STOCK-ON-HAND" of a drug?
I. Dispensing of the drug to patient
Il. Receiving incoming supply %
Ill. Returning of drug due to recall order

a. I and ||
b. I, Il and Ill
c. I and Ill
d. II and Ill

A

c. I and Ill

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18
Q

End product of protein metabolism
a. Albumin
b. Creatinine
C. Uric acid
d. BUN

A

d. BUN

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19
Q

This observed risk is noted when a
patient takes an Atorvastatin with
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
a. Rise in uric acid levels
b. Rise in serum level of ACE inhibitor
c. Enzyme inhibition by Spironolocatone
d. Rise in serum potassium

A

d. Rise in serum potassium

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20
Q

The following is/are true regarding
Cotrimoxazole?
I. Consists of two drugs namely
Sulfisoxazole and Trimethoprim
II. Exhibits synergism
ilI. Used in the treatment of fungal
infections
a. Ill only
b. I, II, and III
c. I and II
d. II and III

A

d. II and III

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21
Q

The science that evaluates the value
of pharmaceutical product or drug
therapy compared to its effect
a. Pharmacogenomics
b. Pharmacoinformatic
c. Pharmacoeconomics
d. Pharmacoepidemiology

A

c. Pharmacoeconomics

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22
Q

Which of the following statement/s
is/are true?
I. The anticoagulant effect of Warfarin is monitored using PTINR
I. The lower the PT-INR the faster the clot formation
III. Warfarin is administered orally while Heparin Is administered intravenously
a I, Il and Ill
b. l and I|I
c. I and II
d. I only

A

a I, Il and Ill

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23
Q

Type A ADR is described by the
following statements, except:
I. dose-dependent
Il. an example is penicillin allergy
III. unpredictable

a. I only
b. I, II and III
c. Il and Ill
d. Il only

A

a. I only

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24
Q

Which of the following are people
are blinded in a triple-blind study?
I. Investigation
II. Statistician
III. Subjects

a. I, Il and Ill
b. land I
c. I and III
d. Il and II -

A

a. I, Il and Ill

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25
Antidote for Acetaminophen poisoning a. Pralidoxime-regeneruter for prophet b. Atropine cholinengie canis c. NAC d. Ethyl alcohol -rettano lupere
c. NAC
26
The serum creatinine of a 70-year old female weighing 154 Ibs was 1.7 mg/dL. What is her creatinine clearance? a. 97 b. 40 c. 34 d. 47
c. 34
27
Quinidine sulfate 200 mg capsule and Quinidine 200 mg tablet are products a. pharmaceutical equivalent b. pharmaceutical alternative. c. therapeutic equivalent d. therapeutic alternative
b. pharmaceutical alternative
28
The following statements regarding drug interaction are incorrect, except: a. All drug interactions can potentially cause an adverse response in the patient b. The clinical significance for each potential drug interaction must be considered individually c. A precipitant drug that inhibits the metabolism of the object drug causes a more serious drug interaction compared to a precipitant drug causing an increase in the bioavailability of the e. If the patient is prescribed drugs that can potentially interact, the prescriber should be called, and a different precipitant drug should be suggested
b. The clinical significance for each potential drug interaction must be considered individually
29
Specific situation in which a drug, procedure or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful to the person a. Precaution b. Warning c. Contraindication d. NOTA
c. Contraindication
30
Epoetin alfa is used in: a. Cancer treatment b. Alzheimers disease c. Dialysis d. Viral treatment
c. Dialysis
31
Below normal CD4 or Helper T-cell count may indicate: a. Dengue b. HIV-AIDS c. IDA d. Pernicious anemia
b. HIV-AIDS
32
Medication error wherein an error has occurred that resulted in temporary patient harm a. Category E b. Category F c. Category I d. Category X
a. Category E
33
A patient weighing 121 Ibs was administered 2.1 grams of a drug that was intended to be dosed at 30 mg/kg. What can you say about the dose administered? a. Correct b. Underdose c. Overdose d. Insufficient information
c. Overdose
34
S-license for prescribers a. S4 license b. S2 license c. S3 license d. P1 license
b. S2 license
35
Which of the following medications is safe to use in the third trimester of pregnancy? a. APAP b. Warfarin c. Captopril d. Aspirin
a. APAP
36
Drug names ending with "coxib" may treat which of the following medical conditions? a. Hyperacidity b. Hypertension c. Migraine d. Angina
c. Migraine
37
A 25-yr old female with UTL is being treated with Ciprofloxacin but has not been responsive to the antibiotic. Which of the following drugs that she is taking for other reasons could have decreased the effectiveness of Ciprofloxacin? a. Levocetirizine b. Levetiracetam c. B-complex vitamin d. Ferrous sulfate tablets ranti folate
d. Ferrous sulfate tablets ranti folate
38
The adverse drug effect of Methotrexate a. Diarrhea b. Hepatotoxicity c. Hemorrhagic cystitis d. Cardiotoxicity
b. Hepatotoxicity
39
Which of the following is true regarding palliative care for cancer patients? I. Addresses cure for disease like removal of tumor through surgery Il. Relief of pain and other symptoms of discomfort Il. Integration of psychological and spiritual aspects of patient care a. I, Il and III b. lI and Ill c. I and Il d. I and I||
b. lI and Ill
40
The following drugs may require Therapeutic Drug Monitoring because of their reported narrow therapeutic index: a. Phenytoin b. Gentamicin c. Digoxin d. AOTA
d. AOTA
41
Rofecoxib was withdrawn in the market because of: a. Neurotoxicity b. Hepatotoxicity c. Cardiovascular events d. Nephrotoxicity
c. Cardiovascular events
42
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors and food rich in tyramine will lead to I. increase BP II. non-metabolism of tyramine Ill. accumulation of pressor amines a. I only b. I, Il and III c. Il and Ill d. Il only
b. I, Il and III
43
The following is/are true about the following drugs and their risk in pregnant patients I. Ethanol - FAS I. DES - Vaginal adenocarcinoma III. Carbimazole - Aplasia cutis V. ACEls - Renal dysgenesis a. I only b. Il only c. Il and Ill d. Il, Ill and IV e. I, Ill, Il and IV
e. I, Ill, Il and IV
44
Laboratory parameter to monitor the anticoagulant activity of Heparin a. aPTT b. PT - INR c. Leukocyte count d. Hematocrit
a. aPTT
45
2nd most abundant intracellular cation a. Chloride b. Phosphate c. Magnesium d. Potassium
c. Magnesium
46
The following statements regarding drug interaction are true:
 I. Drug interaction may be beneficial 
Il. Drug interaction may be intentional
 III. Drug interaction may result to different responses of the patient for what the drug is primarily intended a. I, Il and Ill b. I and c. Ill only d. I and I
a. I, Il and Ill
47
What information a pharmacist should give t patients who are asking when to take Meclizine tablet? a. Take during travel b. Take 1 hour before travel c. Take 30 minutes before travel d. Take 24 hours before travel
b. Take 1 hour before travel
48
Which of the following types of diabetes has been previously classified as ;insulindependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)? a. Type I diabetes b. Type Il diabetes c. Gestational diabetes d. Adult-onset diabetes
a. Type I diabetes
49
Error that occurred when drugs that are physically o chemically incompatible are mixed: a. Unauthorized drug error b. Deteriorated drug error c. Wrong administration technique error d. Wrong drug preparation error
d. Wrong drug preparation error
50
These are the common clinical manifestation of hypoparathyroidism a. Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia b. Hypocalcemia and Hyperphosphatemia c. Hypocalcemia and Hypophosphatemia d. Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia
b. Hypocalcemia and Hyperphosphatemia
51
Which of the following drug products are considered “therapeutic alternatives a. Quinidine sulfate 500 mg capsule and Quinidine 500 mg tablet b. Mefenamic acid tablet and Ibuprofen tablet c. Paracetamol 500 mg tablet (Biogesic) and Paracetamol 500 mg tablet (Tempra) d. Verapamil SR tablet and Verapamil SC tablet
b. Mefenamic acid tablet and Ibuprofen tablet
52
Physico-chemical incompatibilities can be detected by: a. Change in color b. Formation of precipitate c. Evolution of gas d. AOTA
d. AOTA
53
Any substance that may be considered a food or par of a food and provides medical or health benefits, including the prevention and treatment of disease a. Nutraceutical b. Phytochemical c. Chemopreventive agent d. Designer food non ford furtified ml health
a. Nutraceutical
54
The following are anti-viral agents, except: a. Foscarnet b. Cycloserine c. Lamivudine d. NOTA
d. NOTA
55
When the prescription has the instruction: ;NO SUBSTITUTION a. Violative b. Impossible c. Erroneous d. Correct
a. Violative
56
Refers to the responsible provision of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve a patient"s QUALITY OF LIFE a. Drug therapy assessment b. Therapeutic drug monitoring c. Pharmaceutical care d. STGs
c. Pharmaceutical care
57
Which of the following components of parenteral nutrition is/are micronutrients? I. Dextrosex II. Fats x IlI. Vitamins IV. Electrolytes a. I, Il and I|l b. Ill and IV - c. IV only d. I and II
b. Ill and IV -
58
A new test for HIV does not detect the presence of the virus in someone who is infected. This is a case of a. True negative b. False negative c. True positive d. False positive
b. False negative
59
The only Insulin administered intravenously a. Detemir b. Aspart c. Lispro d. Regular Insulin
d. Regular Insulin
60
Post-marketing surveillance falls under what phase of clinical trials? a. Pre-clinical b. Phase 1 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 3 e. Phase 4
e. Phase 4
61
An obligation to respect patient as individuals and to honor their preference in medical care a. Autonomy b. Nonmaleficence c. Beneficence d. Confidentiality
a. Autonomy
62
Which of the following anti-asthma medications are I. Cromolyn sodium II. Salbutamol III. Atenolol Iv. Propranolol V. Budesonide a. I only b. II only c. I, II, and III d. II and III e. I and V
b. II only
63
The following pairings of unwanted effect and causative drug are true, EXCEPT? a. Throbbing headaches with Nitrates b. Lupus-like syndrome with Hydralazine c. Hypokalemia with Salbutamol d. Dry cough with Valsartan
d. Dry cough with Valsartan
64
Which of the following macronutrients are found in Total Parenteral Nutrition? a. Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats b. Carbohydrates, Vitamins, Proteins, Fats and Electrolytes c. Protein and Trace Minerals d. Protein, Fats and Electrolytes
a. Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats
65
Arithistamine that can be taken by Grab drivers. a Diphenhydramine b. Cetirizine C. Loratadine d. Two of the choices e. AOTA
d. Two of the choices
66
With which antibiotic does antibiotic antagonism occur when given with Penicillin? a. Tetracycline b. Streptomycin c. Erythromycin d. Two of the above
d. Two of the above
67
A beta-blocker that can also block alphareceptors a. Metoprolol b. Carvedilol c. Celiprolol d. Carteolol
b. Carvedilol
68
Parameters to be considered when storing medications a. Temperature b. Air velocity c. Humidity d. Two of the above
d. Two of the above
69
Which of the following is/are true regarding the dispensing of Dangerous Drugs? I. Partial filling is allowed II. Brand name is required in prescribing Dangerous drugs III. Not all Dangerous drugs require a Yellow Prescription for it to be dispensed a. l and Ill b. Il and Ill c. I, Il and Ill d. I and II
a. l and Ill
70
In a drug interaction scenario, what would best describe the result if Drug A induces the metabolism of Drug B? a. Increased blood levels of Drug A b. Increased blood levels of Drug B c. Decreased blood levels of Drug A d. Decreased blood levels of Drug B
d. Decreased blood levels of Drug B
71
Code carts located at nursing units and clinics are used primarily for what purpose? a. Securing PRN medications for individual patients b. Availability of unit doses for 24 hour medications for patients c. Availability of critical medications and supplies for emergency d. Securing controlled substances in the hospital
c. Availability of critical medications and supplies for emergency
72
The following drug has a MOA that involves enzyme iphibition: a. Acetazolamide b. Salbutamol c. Zafiriukast d. Cimetidine
a. Acetazolamide
73
If not specified, a prescription for an antibiotic is valid a. 14 days b. 7 days/ c. 1 month d. 3 days
b. 7 days/
74
The following are thiazide diuretics except: a. HCTZ b. Chlonhalidone c. Indaparide d. Furosemide
d. Furosemide
75
The following are sign of intoxication of physostigmine, except: a. Diarrhea b. Mydriasis C. Bradycardia d. Lacrimation
b. Mydriasis
76
Which of the following drugs produce positive inotropic effect? a. Lanoxin b.Actlyse c. Isoproterenol d. Plavix
a. Lanoxin
77
Cerebefar functonts assessed using ths test a. Dolls test owlose phiatic refur custate wrainstem b. Rombergs test c. Rinnes test d. Snellens chart