Module 1 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Cell theory (3)

A

o All organisms are made up of one or more cells

o Cell = most basic unit of an organism

o All cells come from other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cystic fibrosis

What type of mutation, affect what protein?

Predominantly affects which two systems?

What happens?

A

affected organs/systems, primary dysfunction; deletion/mutation of an AA leading to dysfunctional transmembrane PRO, Cl accumulates in the cell, resulting in build up of mucus in lungs/GI tract – trapping bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cell membrane (plasma membrane)

Components of the membrane (3)

Functions (6)

Differentiate - phagocytosis, pincocytosis, exo- and endo-cytosis

A

phos lipid bilayer + CHOL + integral PROs

 Selective permeability – substances going in/out
 Cell-cell interactions
 Recognition (receptors, antigens, other cells)
 Cytoplasm-external barrier
 Transduction – converting physical/chemical signals into intracellular events
 Between the membrane = integral and peripheral

o Endocytosis (phagocytosis, receptor mediated – hormones, growth factors, toxins, antibodies; pinocytosis – cellular drinking, non specific, small objects; fungi, bacteria, foreign/dead cells via macrophages, leucocytes) & exocytosis (enzymes, hormones, NTs; vesicle fusion to plasma membrane, releasing into environment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ribosomes

Shape? Location?

T or F - we can only see them with EM.

Synthesize what?c

A

spherical, only seen with EM, PRO synthesizers, float around or sit on organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Endoplasmic reticulum

location?

shape? what’s cisternae?

in some areas, ER is continuous with what?

Differentiate RER & SER

A

network of membrane enclosed sacs in the cytoplasm – folded into cisternae (tubules), cisternal space (lumen) has distinct ion and PRO composition compared to external; can be continuous with nuclear envelope membrane

 RER – ribosomes present for polypeptide synthesis – heading to cisternal space or stay in ER membrane; those with no address info are secreted out of the cell; some go to the Golgi apparatus
 SER – ex: in liver cells – synthesis/hydrolysis of glycogen, drug/alcohol detox, CHOL, steroid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Golgi apparatus (GA)

Function?

Receives material from where?

A

site of production/maturation of PRO and polysaccharides; materials from RER enter GA on cis face then leave at trans face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lysosomes

pH = ?

Digest food particles via _________

recycle organelles via ___________

Lysosomal storage diseases (LSD) - result of what?

How many forms are there?

A

build up of glycogen leading to progressive muscle weakness)
• Glycogen storage disease – type II (alpha-glucosidase)
• Alpha-mannosidosis and beta-mannosidosis
 Primary (inactive), secondary (post-fusion with phagosome), tertiary (residual – in long lived

food - phagocytosis

recycling organelles - autophagy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mitochondria

ATP production via what process?

Where can they be found?

What type of DNA?

Mito diseases typically affect which systems?

A

ATP production via oxidative phosphorylation
 Concentrated in force production tissues like muscle
 Maternal DNA
 Outer membrane (smooth), inner membrane (folded) to form cisternae (directly related to energy demands)
 Mitochondrial diseases – usually affect heart, brain/nervous, muscles, kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cytoskeleton

3 components

A

 Microtubules + thin filaments (actin) + intermediate filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Microtubules

3 examples

composed of?

function (2)?

A

cilia, flagella, mitotic spindles
• Straight, hollow cylinders made up of 13 protofilaments/globular
• Dimers of alpha-tubulin & beta tubulin
• Function: cell polarity/orientation, intracellular transport (vesicles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cilia and flagella

function?

arrangement of filaments?

A

• Cilia and flagella – move liquid/mucus, swim (sperm)
o 9 + 2 arrangement of filaments
o Microtubules within allow dynein to “walk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Microfilaments

in muscle - are composed of? (2)?

non muscular tissue - composed of ?

A

composed of actin filaments
• Muscle – arranged with myosin
• Non-muscular tissue – actin filaments only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Intermediate filaments

function? (1)

name 5

A
stabilize organelles – 5 types:
•	Keratin
•	Vimentim
•	Glial fibrillary acidic PRO
•	Desmin
•	Neurofilament PROs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Centriole vs. centrosomes

A

o Centriole – pairs right angle to one another
 Pinwheel - 9 triplet microtubules
 Critical for mitosis
o Centrosome – main microtubules organizing center (MTOC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nucleus

T or F: it is the smallest organelle

3 components of DNA

4 components of the nucleus

A

F - largest

sugar + phos + nitro base (A, T, G, C)

-lipid membrane, chromatin, nucleolus, nucleoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Chromatin

Wound up by?

Nucleosomes = chromatin + ______

hetero- vs. eu-chromatin

A

histones

histones

  • Heterochromatin – dense, non-active cells
  • Euchromatin – loose, metabolically active cells (more accessible for transcription – commonly used areas)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

center for ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis, control cellular survival and proliferation

what, or rather where is this?

A

nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Telomeres

3 potential functions

how is apoptosis related?

A

 To prevent adjacent chromosomes from attaching to each other
 Chromosome stability – prevent unravelling
 Limits cellular division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the central dogma? when can we go backwards?

A

DNA-RNA-PRO (viruses like HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DMD

symptoms?

x-linked _______

problem PRO = ________

A

o Rapidly worsening muscle weakness (legs/pelvis towards whole body including lungs/heart)
o X-linked recessive
o Dystrophin (structural PRO) is impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Epithelia

Describe the cells:ECM

2 types

A

cell aggregates, minimal ECM

 Covering/lining epithelia – skin, arteries, lungs, gut
 Glandular epithelia – sweat, mucus, serous glands

22
Q

Connective

Describe the cells:ECM

4 types

A

abundant ECM – “more filling, less cells” – bind, support, and package; protect, insulate, transport

 Bone
 Blood
 CT proper
 Cartilage

23
Q

Muscular tissue

Describe the cells:ECM

shape of the cells

two types

A

 Little ECM – cells packed densely
 Vasculated
 Cells are elongated
 Voluntary (skeletal) vs. involuntary (smooth or cardiac)

24
Q

Nervous tissue

functions (2)

2 types

A

monitor in/out - stimuli transduction

neuron, glia

25
Characterizing EPITHELIA 1) ciliated? 2) Cell shape (3 forms) 3) Cell stacking (4 forms) - specify #s or ranges of layers 4) keratinized?
squamous cuboidal columnar simple - 1 stratified - >10 pseudostratified - 2-3 transitional - <10
26
Basement lamina - interface between (2)? - composed of (2)? - functions (3) + (1 - specific to kidney) Basal lamina - manufactured by what? - composed of (2)?
epithelium and CTs basal lamina and lamina reticularis attach CT and epi cells, compartmentalize CT from other tissues, kidney filtration, polarity, regeneration lamina lucida and lamina densa ** superficial to deep**: epithelial cells-basal lamina (via junctional complex-CT
27
Junctional complex 3 types? what kind of forces can they resist? (tight junction - occluding) where is the adherentes layer found? what motion does it resist? what are desmosomes - what motion do they resist
occluding anchoring communicating staples on a piece of paper - no protection to mech. forces deep to occludentes - restricts planar motion desmo - buttons - help resist shear forces
28
6 connexins (transmembrane PROs) allow ions/GLU to flow; controlled by Ca ions found in cardiac muscle cells and neurons what is this?
gap junctions
29
Which cell would we not see any of the functional complexes?
Red blood cells and other circulating cells
30
microvilli + glycocalyx = ??????? hint: Seen as a dark lining in stained slides
brush border
31
Microvilli vs. sterocilia Microvilli - T or F: separate from internal cytoskeleton (intermediate filaments and actin filaments)
stereocilia - long, nonmotile processes (long branched microvilli) - FALSE CILIA F - anchored
32
Cilia vs. Flagella Cilia+flagella organization vs. basal bodies/centriole organization
cilia - active movement of material; flagella - mobility 9 doublets + 2 vs. 9 triplets
33
Differentiating glands 1) Where does it secrete? 2) How many cells? 3) how are they built? 4) what do they secrete?
endo (INTO BLOOD), exo uni - multi-cellular tubular, alveloar, acinar, mixed branching of netowrk - complex, branched, compound mucus or serous fluid (serous - pale, yellow, transparent)
34
3 types of fluid an exocrine gland can secrete
mucus - serous - mixed (of both)
35
watery secretion with enzymes lacrimal, pancreas, parotid usually cuboidal or columnar seen in acini
serous cells
36
secretion contains mucin (glycoprotein - viscous) lubricates/protects found in unicellular goblets, or grouped
mucus cells
37
Holocrine Merocrine Apocrine which one is most abdundant?
mero
38
Connective tissue 3 main functions 4 TYPES of CT
connect/anchor different matter in the body protection/defense medium for exchange (nutrients, waste) CT proper blood cartilage bone
39
CT PROPER Composed of...... (2) Primary function 3 criteria when considering CT proper differentiate between loose and dense CT proper. Name 3 specialized CT propers?
fibers + ECM Structural support - maintaining the form of organs ``` amount & type of ECM arrangement & type of fibers # & type of cells ``` loose - ECM empty, flexible fibers, many types of cells dense - ECM minimal, a lot of fibers - regular or irregular in organization adipose, reticular, elastic
40
T or F: ECM is composed of amorphous ground substance which contains glycoPROs, proteoglycans, and no water content T or F: these proteoglycans are the reason why people take "cartilage supplements"
F T
41
Fibers inside CT What is the structure of the collagen fiber? Describe 6 of the collagen types What is EDS?
tensile strength - three a-chain in helix refer to chart on slide 11 increased laxity in CT - inherited disorder (hypermobility)
42
Elastic fibers structure - what 3 main AAs would you see in there?
composed of elastin glycine, proline, hydroxyproline
43
Reticular fibers Abundant where?
lymph system, smooth muscle, endoneurium, glandular epithelium
44
Loose CT also known as? where can it be found?
between muscle fibers mucous tissue blood/lymph vessels pleural/cardiac and peritoneal cavities lamina propria
45
Dense CT T or F: has more cells that loose CT
F - less cells, mostly collagen fibers
46
Tendons: loose irregular CT or dense regular CT? - what type of cells could you find a lot the fibers? Ligaments: loose irregular CT or dense regular CT? Difference between tendons and ligaments?
Tendons: dense regular CT; fibrocytes Ligaments: dense regular CT yellow due to abundance of elastin
47
Give examples of: fixed cells transient / free or wandering cells
fibroblasts, adipose cells, pericytes, mast cells, and macrophages plasma cells, lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and macrophages
48
Fibroblasts: what is its mature form? synthesize? (4)
fibrocytes collagen, reticular and elastic fibers and amorphous, extracellular substances
49
Wound healing stages (include general time frame) Inflammatory phase (2) Proliferation phase (3) Remodeling phase which stages determine scarring?
inflammatory - 0-5 days - hemostatis - inflammation proliferative phase - 2 days - 3 weeks - granulation - contraction - epithlialization last two
50
Macrophages primary function? what is the mononuclear phagocyte system?
phagocyctotic activity - eat until they die