Module 1: Foundation, Structure And Defence Flashcards Preview

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1
Q

Some gram __________ bacteria can make endospores

A

Positive

2
Q

What is antigenic drift?

What is antigenic shift?

A

Antigenic drift: Small mutations causing changes in H and N on surface of virus
H = hemagglutinin
N = neuraminidase

Antigenic shift: sudden major change caused by transfer of genetic information between two different viruses invading the same cell

3
Q

What is catabolism?

What is anabolism?

A

Catabolism: break down
Anabolism: synthesis

4
Q

Enzymes work by stabilising the ____________ _____ of a chemical reaction.
This lowers the _____________ __________.

A

Enzymes work by stabilising the transition state of a chemical reaction.
This lowers the activation energy.

5
Q

What is:

  1. Hypertrophy?
  2. Hyperplasia?
  3. Atrophy?
  4. Involution?
  5. Metaplasia?
  6. Neoplasia?
A
  1. Hypertrophy: Increase in cell size
  2. Hyperplasia: Increase in number of cells
  3. Atrophy: Decrease in cell size
  4. Involution: Reduction in number of functioning cells
  5. Metaplasia: Change in type of cell
  6. Neoplasia: New growth
6
Q

What are the 5 Cardinal signs of inflammation and what do they mean?

A
Rubor = redness
Calor = heat
Tumor = swelling
Dolor = pain
Functio laesa = loss of function
7
Q

Name and explain which two places inflammatory mediators are derived from…

A

Cell derived: locally from cells at site

Plasma derived: synthesised in the liver and activated at the site

8
Q

What are the 3 main ways of action for antibiotics?

For each way, give examples of the major groups…

A
  1. Interfere with bacteria cell wall
    Major groups: beta-lactams, glycopeptides and bacitracin
  2. Interfere with protein synthesis
    Major groups: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol and Macrolides
  3. Interfere with DNA replication
    Major groups: quinolones, metronidazol, rifampicin and co-trimoxazole
9
Q

Give the name, age and description of all 8 of Erikson’s developmental stages…

A

Infancy = birth to 18 months = trust vs mistrust

Early childhood = 18 months to 3 years = autonomy vs shame

Play age = 3-5 years = initiative vs guilt

School age = 6-12 years = industry vs inferiority

Adolescence = 12-18 years = identity vs role confusion

Young adulthood = 18-35 years = intimacy and solidarity vs isolation

Middle adulthood = 35-55/65 years = generativity vs self absorption or stagnation

Late adulthood = 55/65-death = integrity vs despair

10
Q

What 7 motor reflexes is a child born with?

Which 3 of these remain?

A

Rooting, stepping, moro, babinski, eye blink, sucking and gag

The following 3 remain: eye blink, sucking and gag

11
Q

What are the 4 possible outcomes of acute inflammation?

A
  1. Tissue resolution
  2. Repair (fibrosis)
  3. Abscess formation
  4. Chronic inflammation
12
Q

Resolution arises from damage to what?

Repair arises from damage to what?

A

Resolution arises from damage to parenchyma in labile/stable tissues.

Repair arises from damage to parenchyma and stroma.

13
Q

What are the stages of healing by fibrosis? Explain them briefly…

A
  1. Granulation tissue
    Macrophages, fibroblasts and angiogenesis
  2. Fibrosis and scar formation
    Fibroblasts lay down matrix. Collagen laid down to increase strength of tissue, forming a scar
  3. Remodelling
    Over time the number of blood vessels are reduced and a pale scar remains
14
Q

What is an abscess?

A

Focal collection of pus (neutrophils, dead cells and fluid)

This necrotic core is surrounded by neutrophils and fibroblasts

15
Q

There are two basic types of secreted mediators of immunity: anti-microbial and regulatory/inflammatory. Give examples of 4 mediators from each group…

A

Anti-microbial:
immunoglobulins, complement proteins, interferons and lyric enzymes

Regulatory/inflammatory:
Cytokines, chemokines, prostaglandins, leukotrienes and histamine

16
Q

What cells are involved in innate immunity?

What cells are involved in adaptive immunity?

A

Innate immunity:
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells and NK cells

Adaptive immunity:
Tc lymphocytes (CD8+), Th lymphocytes (CD4+) and B lymphocytes
17
Q

What are the 9 immunoglobulin isotypes?
Which one is a dimer?
Which one is a pentamer?

A
IgM
IgG (4 types)
IgA (2 types)
IgE
IgD

IgA is a dimer
IgM is a pentamer

18
Q
  1. What are the 3 pathways for complement activation?

2. What step does each pathway start off with?

A
  1. Mannose binding lectin pathway, classical pathway and alternative pathway

2.
Mannose binding lectin pathway:
Microbial mannose + MBL + MASP

Classical pathway:
Antigen + IgM/IgG + C1q + C1r + C1s

Alternative pathway:
Interaction with microbial surface

19
Q
  1. When C3 is converted, what are the outcomes and what do each do?
  2. When C5 is converted, what are the outcomes and what do each do?
A
  1. C3 -> C3b = opsonisation
    C3a = mast cell activation and neutrophil recruitment
  2. C5 -> C5a = mast cell activation and neutrophil recruitment
    C5b = membrane attack complex and therefore lysis
20
Q

What are the 3 key features of the acute phase response?

A
  1. Fever - effect on hypothalamus
  2. Increased release of leukocytes from the bone marrow
  3. Acute phase proteins released from the liver
21
Q

Define the following:

  1. Drug affinity
  2. Drug efficacy
  3. Drug potency
  4. Tolerance
A
  1. Drug affinity = how tightly a ligand binds to a receptor
  2. Drug efficacy = the ability of an agonist to produce a biological effect
  3. Drug potency = amount of drug required to produce an effect of given intensity
  4. Tolerance = gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug
22
Q

Lymphatic system: most of the body drains into the ______ ________ _________ _______ via the __________ _________.
The top right hand corner of the body drains into the _______ _______ ________.

A

Most of the body drains into the left internal jugular vein via the thoracic duct.
The top right hand corner of the body drains into the right lymphatic duct.

23
Q
  1. What is the outcome of a B-cell recognition of an antigen?
  2. What is the outcome of a T-cell recognition of an antigen?
A
  1. Anti-bodies

2. Cytokines

24
Q

Tc cell receptor = CD? = HLA class ?

Th cell receptor = CD? = HLA class ?

A

Tc cell receptor = CD8 = HLA class 1

Th cell receptor = CD4 = HLA class 2

25
Q
  1. What is the immune function of CD8 Tc cells?

2. What is the immune function of CD4 Th cells?

A
  1. CD8 Tc cell: surveillance of all cells .eg. to kill virally infected cells
  2. CD4 Th cell: controlled and appropriate activation of immune cells .eg. For bacterial digestion by macrophages
26
Q

What are the 2 basic layers and the space in between in GRAM POSITIVE bacteria?
What are the 3 basic layers and the space in between in GRAM NEGATIVE bacteria?

A

Gram positive (top to bottom):

  1. thick peptidoglycan layer and call membrane with periplasmic space in between.
  2. Cell membrane has membrane proteins.

Gram negative (top to bottom):

  1. Outer membrane layer with lipopolysaccharides, phospholipids and porins
  2. Peptidoglycan layer with lipoproteins shared with outer membrane layer
  3. Periplasmic space
  4. Cell membrane with membrane proteins
27
Q

What are the 3 basic components of a virus particle?

A
Nucleic acid (genome)
Protein coat (capsid)
Lipid envelope
28
Q

Name and briefly explain the 6 stages of viral replication…

A
  1. Attachment: viral ligand + cellular receptor
  2. Entry: endocytosis + fusion
  3. Uncoating
  4. Macromolecular synthesis: multiple copies of viral genome and viral proteins
  5. Assembly
  6. Release: budding + cell lysis
29
Q

What are the 4 effects of viruses on cells?

A
  1. Acute cell death
  2. Chronic infection
  3. Latency
  4. Transformation
30
Q

What are the 5 types of intercellular cell junctions and what 4 roles do they do?

A

Zonula adherens and desmosomes:
Structural role - attach cells to eachother and to cytoskeleton

Hemidesmosomes:
Anchoring role - attach epithelial to basement membrane

Tight junctions:
Barrier role - prevent passage of substances between cells

Gap junctions:
Communication role - communication between cells

31
Q

What is the difference between the secretions of endocrine glands and exocrine glands?

A

Endocrine glands: release secretions directly into blood to act on different tissues

Exocrine glands: secrete products onto epithelial surface directly or via a duct

32
Q

What are the 3 ways of approaching an ethical problem, and what does each mean?

A
  1. Consequentialism: best outcome for majority
  2. Deontology: rational, moral rules regarding action
  3. Virtue ethics: what would a virtuous agent do in the circumstances?
33
Q

What are the 4 components of Beauchamp and Childress’ 4 principles approach?

A

Respect for autonomy
Beneficence
Non maleficence
Justice

34
Q
  1. What is a cytokine?
  2. Where does it bind?
  3. What does it trigger?
  4. Give 4 examples of cytokines…
A
  1. Cytokine: secreted proteins that regulate cellular activities
  2. Bind to cell surface receptors
  3. Trigger intra-cellular signalling pathways
  4. Interleukins, tumour necrosis factors, interferons and chemokines
35
Q

What are the anti-viral effects of antibodies in the following situations:

  1. Antibody alone
  2. Antibody + complement
  3. Antibody bound to infected cell
A
  1. Antibody alone: blocks binding and entry to cells
  2. Antibody + complement: damage to enveloped virus and opsonisation for phagocytosis
  3. Antibody bound to infected cells: antibody dependent cellular toxicity
36
Q

What 3 things does a killer cell use to kill a cell?

A
  1. Perforins
  2. Granzymes
  3. Fas ligand
37
Q

Embryology

  1. What day is the morula formed?
  2. What day is the blastocyst formed and what are the 3 cell types present?
  3. What day does implantation occur?
A
  1. Morula: day 3
  2. Blastocyst: day 5, embryoblast, trophoblast and blastocoele
  3. Implantation: day 6
38
Q

Embryology
1. What 3 things happen on day 8?

  1. What happens on day 9?
A
1. Amniotic cavity formation
Bilaminar disc (epiblast and hypoblast)
Syncytiotrophoblast invades endometrium
  1. Primary yolk sac formation
39
Q

Embryology

  1. What cavity is formed on day 13?
  2. How is it formed?
  3. What other connecting feature is formed?
A
  1. Chorionic cavity
  2. Formed by cavitation of extraembryonic mesoderm
  3. Connecting stalk from extraembryonic mesoderm
40
Q

Embryology

  1. The primitive streak is an indentation of which tissue type?
  2. What is the name of the process that happens during days 14-19 and what is formed as a result of it?
A
  1. Ectoderm

2. Gastrulation - 3 germ cell layers formed

41
Q

Embryology

What are the 3 germ cell layers called and what will they give rise to?

A

Ectoderm: skin and neural tissue

Endoderm: epithelial lining of the gut, respiratory and urinary systems

Mesoderm: muscle, bone, connective tissue, some organs and lining of body cavities

42
Q

Embryology

  1. What is the name of the process that occurs on day 19 and what does it result in the formation of?
  2. What day does the cranial neuropore close and what day does the caudal neuropore close?
A
  1. Neurulation: Formation of the neural tube
  2. Cranial neuropore closes on day 25
    Caudal neuropore closes on day 27
43
Q

Embryology

  1. What is the intraembryonic coelom?
  2. What weeks does the development of the face occur?
A
  1. Cavity within mesoderm that becomes body cavity (thorax and abdomen)
  2. Development of face: weeks 4-8
44
Q

Embryology

  1. When is an embryo at highest risk of a structural abnormality?
  2. When is an embryo at highest risk of a functional abnormality?
A
  1. Structural abnormality: weeks 3-8

2. Functional abnormality: weeks 8 onwards

45
Q

State the two types of reversible injury and describe them in 3 points each…

A
  1. Swelling = oncosis
    - metabolism disturbance
    - sodium influx into cell
    - water influx into cell causing swollen pale cytoplasm
  2. Fatty change = steatosis
    - fatty acid metabolism in liver forms triglycerides
    - accumulation of triglycerides in liver cells
    - lipid globules in cytoplasm
46
Q

Name the two types of cell death and briefly explain them…

Are they pathologic, physiologic or both?

A
  1. Necrosis = severe damage to cell membrane, enzymes leak from lysosomes into cytoplasm, digesting the cell. Cell contents leak out and there is a local reaction.
    PATHOLOGIC
  2. Apoptosis = cells kill themselves due to lack of growth hormones or damage to DNA/proteins. Energy dependent.
    PATHOLOGIC AND PHYSIOLOGIC
47
Q
  1. What are the two major pathways of apoptosis and what is the key component in each?
  2. Which enzyme do both pathways activate? Which enzyme is then activated after this?
A
  1. Intrinsic pathway: mitochondria
    Extrinsic pathway: Fas ligand
  2. Caspases
    Then nucleases
48
Q
  1. What is ischaemia?

2. What is an infarction?

A
  1. Ischaemia: impaired vascular perfusion, depriving tissue of vital nutrients
  2. Infarction: death of tissue as a result of ischaemia
49
Q

What 3 main cellular events occur during ischaemia?

A
  1. Reduction/loss of oxygen
  2. Membrane pumps fail
  3. Reactive oxygen species damages cells
50
Q
  1. Define pharmacokinetics using the ADME acronym…
  2. Define A
  3. Define D
  4. Define M
  5. Define E
A
  1. Pharmacokinetics: the study of the time course of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion.
  2. Absorption: process of transfer of the drug from the site of administration into the general/systemic circulation
  3. Distribution: process by which a compound is transferred from the general circulation to other parts of the body and into the tissues
  4. Metabolism: processes by which a drug is chemically altered in a way that facilitates its action or enhances its elimination from the body
  5. Excretion: processes by which drugs or their metabolites are removed from the body
51
Q
  1. What are the first 3 anaerobic systems for energy in order of onset from shortest duration to longest?
  2. What aerobic system comes into place after this?
A
  1. ATP, phospho-creatine and glycolysis

2. Oxidative phosphorylation

52
Q
The TCA cycle:
For every 1 glucose (2 acetyl CoA), the TCA cycle will generate how many of the following...
CO2?
NADH?
FADH2?
ATP?
A

4 CO2
6 NADH
2 FADH2
2 ATP

53
Q

Define the following:

  1. Prevalence
  2. Sensitivity
  3. Specificity
A
  1. Prevalence: the proportion of people in a population who have a given disease or attribute
  2. Sensitivity: proportion of people who have the disease and are correctly identified as such by the test
  3. Specificity: the proportion of people who do not have the disease and are correctly identified as such
54
Q

What energy substrates are used in the following conditions:

  1. Postprandial?
  2. Between meals?
  3. Starvation?
A
  1. Glucose (glycolysis)
  2. Fatty acids (beta oxidation)
  3. Fatty acids and ketone bodies