Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Module 1 > Module 1-- test 1 material > Flashcards

Module 1-- test 1 material Flashcards

1
Q

Who is Florence Nightingale?

A

The “1st professional nurse” 1st epidemiologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Florence Nightingale most known for?

A

Florence Nightingale instituted sanitation. She realized that when things were clean her patient got well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why was Florence Nightingale considered the 1st professional nurse

A

She was educated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two types of formal education?

A

Diploma programs and Degree programs through academic settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name some of the qualities a nurse should have

A

Current knowledge of practice standards
Insightful and compassionate approach
Critical Thinking
Organized
Good communication
Clinical Experience
Patience and Competence
Physical stamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

During the professionalism lecture we talked about hard skills and soft skills what are some examples of hard skills?

A

Critical thinking, Admin meds, IV’s, foleys etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During the professionalism lecture we talked about hard and soft skill what are some examples of soft skills?

A

Compassionate, Patience etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In nursing what does being ethical look like?

A

Doing what is best, safe and right for the patient even when no one is watching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who comes first in patient centered care?

A

The patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When talking to the patient are you just speaking to the patient if family is present?

A

Unless specifically asked by the patient… you address both the patient and the family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a “professional” nurse?

A

A professional nurse can be defined as– an art, learning to deliver care with compassion, caring and respect for each patient’s dignity and inviduality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is one of the biggest skills that make us different from LVN’s?

A

Our ability to critcal think

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is one of the biggest skills that make us different from LVN’s?

A

Our ability to critically think

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Nurse Practice act?

A

Each state has a regulatory body that oversees the practice and function of nurses — The NPA– gives authority to regulate the practice of nursing and the enforcement of the law to the BNE. Essentially outlines what we can and cannot do as a nurse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the scope of practice decision making model help you do as a Nurse?

A

It helps you assess the task, activity, procedure, role or intervention and if you should continue with performing said activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the BNE?

A

Board of Nursing Education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does being an advocate for the patient mean to us as nurses?

A

Speaking up for the patient when we believe that something could be done better or something isn’t right with or for the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Are you protected under the doctor if you do something that negatively impact the patient that you could have prevented?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Standards of Practice and Standards of professional performance— What are the major goals?

A

Improve the health and well-being of all individual, communites, and populations
using standard based practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the nurse’s assessment?

A

The Rn collects comprehensive data pertinent to the patients’ health or situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the nurse’s diagnosis?

A

The RN analyzes the assessment data to determine problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the nurses outcome/identification?

A

The RN identifies expected outcomes for a plan invidulized to the patient or situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Nursing plan?

A

The RN develops a plan that prescribes strategies and alternatives to attain expected outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is implementation in the nursing process?

A

The RN applies the identified plan– “action” phase. Coordinates care delivery and uses strategies to promote health and a safe enviroment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the evaluation in the nursing process?

A

The RN gauges progress toward the attainment of outcomes? Did our plan improve or worsen the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does APRN stand for?

A

Advanced Practice Registered Nurse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Can a ARPN write orders for patients?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a novice?

A

A beginner. Student nurses are considered novice… An experienced starting a new specialized area would also be considered a novice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What kind of nurse is considered an Advanced Beginner?

A

New graduate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What kind of characteristics would we see in a novice nurse

A

inexperienced, task oriented and “learning the rules”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What kind of characteristics would we see in an advanced beginner nurse.

A

Focused more on situations rather than tasks, works to acquire in-depth experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When would a nurse be considered competent?

A

A nurse with 2-3 years’ experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of characteristics would you see in a competent nurse?

A

Focuses more on situation rather than tasks & works to acquire in-depth experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When would a nurse be considered proficient?

A

More than 2-3 years of experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What kind of characteristics would you see in a proficient nurse?

A

Sees the situation as a whole, performs care faster and more efficiently and can assist newer nurses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When would a nurse be considered an expert?

A

Several years of experience and diverse skills and knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What kind of characteristics would you see in an expert nurse

A

Recognizes what is needed before the condition worsens, well-developed nursing intuition and determines relevant problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Autonomy in nursing?

A

The ability to apply professional knowledge to patient care and clinical decision making.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some things as a nurse you can do independantly and without a doctors order?

A

Perform hygiene, vitals, turning patients, encourage eating when appropriate, encourage ambulating, encourage ROM excerzise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If you are not willing to be accountable for an action as a nurse should you do said action?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

True or false as a Nurse part of our role includes educating the patinet?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or false as a Nurse part of our role includes educating the patient?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 types of communication that we learned about?

A
  1. Verbal
  2. Non verbal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In nursing what is the purpose for communication?

A
  1. Develop a caring relationship
  2. increases patient satisfaction
  3. Improves patient safety
  4. Positive patient outcomes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Communication has the power to do what?

A

Hurt and heal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

True or False: Communication in nursing is a life long practice

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or False: Communication in nursing does not help reduce the risk of errors

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True or false: Good communication can help prevent duplication or omitting of important information?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

True or False: Communication is KEY to the nurse- patient relationship?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Should a nurse be empathetic or sympathetic towards a patient?

A

Empathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

True or False: As nurses when we communicate with patients we are not allowed to view or respect the patients’ spiritual beliefs because it will hinder the message being given.

A

False– We should always allow spiritual expression and do so in a non-judgmental manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

True or false: Not every patient believes the way you do

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A good nursing behavior is to promote interactive teaching and learning. What are some ways we can do that?

A

Engage the patient. Ask them to repeat back what you said, show them visualizations, answer questions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True or false: A nurses behavior/mood can affect the quality of communication

A

True- a patient can sense when a nurse seems annoyed or rushed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is therapeutic nurse-patient relationship?

A

A helping relationship that’s based on mutual trust and respect, nurturing of faith and hope, being sensitive to self and others and assisting the gratification of your patients, physical, emotional and spiritual needs through your knowledge and skill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

True or false: Nurses who develope critical thinking skills are better communicators?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What might a patient think of a nurse who does not seem confident?

A

That the nurse does not know how to do his/her job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are some tendencies when communicating that a nurse should be aware of

A
  1. perception influences thinking –> five scenses, cultrure, education
  2. perceptual bias–> steryotypes
  3. emotional intelligence –> self awareness, motivation, empathy and social skills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is intrapersonal communication?

A

Self-talk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is interpersonal communication?

A

Communication between others: 2 people–Commonly face to face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are some examples of when interpersonal communication is used during the nurse/patient contact?

A

During the initial assessment, for education, and to provide comfort and support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is considered small group communication?

A

More than 2 people–

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are some examples of small group communication?

A

Staff meetings, committee meetings, support groups, family teaching sessions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Nurses utilize public speaking in the unique form of group communication by?

A

Education, presentations and lobbying for health legislation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a type of electronic communication a patient can utilize?

A

Patient portal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

True or False: You should respond to a patient even when you are angry?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What kind of referents (stimulus that motivate us to communicate) might a nurse need to be on the look-out for when in the patient room?

A

sighs, sounds, sensations, perceptions, idea or subject matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

True or false: Different cultures interpret communication differently

A

True-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Is it okay to talk in medical terminology with a patient?

A

No- Unless you know for fact the patient will understand. ex- doctors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

True or False: Some patients have more knowledge than others when it comes to medical terms, history, dx etc…

A

true– a patient who has been dx with a condition or taking a med long enough may know more about it than a newly diagnosed patient. Therefore this patient will not need the same education as the newly dx patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is denotative?

A

Literal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is connotative?

A

Implied or emotional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the components to verbal communication?— need to do this flash card better

A

Vocab
Meaning of words
Pacing–> how fast or slow your delivery is
Intonation
Clarity
Brevity–>Use as few words as possbile
Timing
Relevance
Credibility of sender—-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Is it okay to give your patient false hope?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How can you clarify content?

A

You can restate what the patient has said to make sure you fully understand what they are saying.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

True or false: It is okay to validate a patients feelings?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are some communication techniques that can damage or hinder patient relationships?

A

Giving personal opinions, changing the subject, sympathy, asking for explanations, passive or aggressive responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Review-What are the components of nonverbal communication?

A

1.Personal Appearance
2.Posture and Gait
3.Facial expression
4.Eye Contact
5.Gestures
6. Sounds
7. Territoriality–> defined by the individual in a way not noticeable to others
8. comfort
9. Characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is intimate distance?

A

It is the area immediately surrounding a person that is defined as his or her personal space– We invade a patient personal or intimate space when we do assessments or provide other types of care. In some cultures, this is not liked or could make a patient uncomfortable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is personal distance?

A

Is from 18in up to 4ft. Interactions with clients and healthcare team member (clients health history, teaching, sitting at pt bedside) will commonly occur in this range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is social distance?

A

Is generally between 4 to 12 ft and is common for formal interaction or when communicating with a group. At this distance, individuals are not in range to physical touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is public distance?

A

Anything beyond 12 ft. this distance requires loud and clear enuciation for communication. Be mindful if speaking at long distances about PHI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

During our communication lecture we talked about phases of the helping relationship—

Stage one is the pre-interaction– what is the description and action that occurs during this phase?

A

Description– You are assigned a patient and you start gathering info prior to meeting patient.
Action– Recieve report–> Anticipate health concerns/issues–> plan for your initial interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

During our communication lecture we talked about phases of the helping relationship

Stage 2 is Orientation- What is the description and action that occurs during this phase?

A

Description– Intro to patient and fam. Establish rapport and trust and communicate to get things done.
Actions– Set the tone, Assess the patients health status, clarify roles/form contracts, prepare patient and family (when you leave)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

During our communication lecture we talked about phases of the helping relationship

Stage 3 is Working– What is the description and action that occurs during this phase?

A

Description- Activate part of the relationship, use techiniques that support theraputic communication
Actions– provide info to assist the patient to understand/modify the behavior, encourage/assist the patient to self explore/set goals, take action to assist the patient to meet goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

During our communication lecture we talked about the phases of the helping relationship

stage 4 is termination– what is the description and action that occurs during this phase?

A

Description- Conclusion of the relationship
Action- remind the patient that end of relationship is near, evaluate goals achieved reminisce, relinquish responsibility for patients care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the guidelines for impaired cognition verbal communication?

A
  • use short sentences
    -use yes/no questions
    -one question at a time/limit choices
    -be concrete and specific
    -avoid slang, jargon, medical terms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the communication guidelines for impaired speech and hearing patients?

A

-Nonverbal communication is crucial
-be positive and patient
-utilize hand gestures, picture board, white board, family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the communication guidelines for older adult patients?

A

-pick quiet enviroment
-face the patient
-check for hearing aides
-allow the patient time to respond
-give patient a chance to ask questions
-make sure the patient knows you are speaking to them
-speak clearly and slowly
-keep communication to the point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the SBAR

A

A tool that improves communication– typically used for nurse to doctor communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

When utilizing SBAR what 4 things will you address?

A
  1. Situation
  2. Background
    3.Assessment
    4.Recommendations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Other than nurse to doctor communication when else can the SBAR be used?

A
  1. during patient hand off
    2.anytime there is important communication in the interdisciplinary team.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Where is the ideal place to give report and why?

A

At patients bedside to allow patient and family to participate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What does inherent mean?

A

Inherent means that it is native to the host. Example is E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does contagious mean?

A

Spreadable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is a systemic infection?

A

Systemic means affecting the entire body, rather than a single organ or body part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is a secondary infection?

A

A secondary infection occurs during or after tx for another infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is a localized infection?

A

an infection that affects only one body part or organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is an Endogenous infection?

A

An endogenous infections lives within us

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is an exogenous infection?

A

A expgenous infection lives outside of us.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is an infection?

A

An infection is when a pathogen invades tissues and begins multi within a host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is coloization?

A

Presence and multiplication of microorganisms within a host put without tissue invasion or damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is communicable disease?

A

That which can be transmitted from one individual to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is a symptomatic infection?

A

When pathogens multiply and cause signs and symptoms of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is an asymptomatic infection?

A

Infection-when pathogens multiply but no clinical signs or symptoms are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is virulence?

A

The ability to produce disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the number one way to prevent infections?

A

Handwashing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Name types of barriers the prevent infection

A

Gloves, gown, mask, goggles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?

A

Antiseptics is typically used on skin whereas disinfectants are typically chemicals used to clean inanimate objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

True or Fase: Immunizations/Medications can prevent the spread infections?

A

True

111
Q

What is conscientious patient care in regards to preventing the spread of infection?

A

Keeping room clean and disinfected, emptying trash, cleaning bed pans etc…

112
Q

What are some prevention and control techinique?

A

Hand hygiene, barrier techniques, antiseptics/disinfectants, immunizations, medications, conscientious patient care.

113
Q

What are some prevention and control techniques?

A

Hand hygiene, barrier techniques, antiseptics/disinfectants, immunizations, medications, conscientious patient care.

114
Q

What is the most important action during hand hygiene?

A

FRICTION

115
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

Hosptial aquired infection

116
Q

True or false: Nosocomial infection is the same thing as Hospital acquired infection?

A

True

117
Q

What is the iceberg effect in regard to infections?

A

A present infection is just the tip of the iceburg what could be happening underneath could be far worse as things began to colonize

118
Q

What is our body’s first line of defense against infection?

A

Skin

119
Q

How can our mouth prevent infection?

A

Saliva has chemical that help break down and prevent infection. Cilla in the mouth also help with moving the infection otu

120
Q

How can our eye prevent infection?

A

Eyelashes help, tears

121
Q

How can your respiratory tract help prevent infection?

A

We have cilia lining our respiratory tact that help move out infections, our ability to cough and produce secretions help by also moving out impeding infections

122
Q

How can the Urinary tract help prevent infection?

A

By excreting things that do not belong

123
Q

How can the GI tract help prevent infection?

A

In our GI we have normal flora that help kill off unwanted bacteria, The environment along the GI tract also helps. In the lower GI we have acid on top and base on bottom to help get rid of unwanted infection. Movement within the GI tract also helps

124
Q

What is the first part of the chain of infection?

A

Infectious agent-bacteria, fungi, viruses, Rickettsiae, protozoa

125
Q

What is the second part of the chain of infection

A

Reservoirs “enviroment” -people,water, equipment

126
Q

What is the third part of the chain of infection?

A

Portal of exit- excretions, secretions, skin, droplets

127
Q

What is the fourth part of the chain of infection?

A

Means of transmission- direct contact, ingestion, fomites–inanimate objects, airborne

128
Q

What is the fifth part of the chain of infection?

A

Portal of entry- Mucous membrane, GI tract, GU tract, Resp tract, broken skin

129
Q

What is the sixth and final part of the chain of infection?

A

susceptible host- immunosuppression, diabetic, burns, elderly, babies

130
Q

What are some way that the reservoir stage in the chain of infection can be broken?

A

Enviromental sanitation, dirty work/space

131
Q

What are some ways that the portal of exit stage in the chain of infection is broken?

A

Poor or absent hand hygiene

132
Q

What are some way that the means of tranmission stage in the chain of infection is broken?

A

Standard percation not used, airflow, food handling

133
Q

What are some ways that portal of entry stage in the chain of infection is broken?

A

Poor aseptic technique, poor cath care, poor wound care,

134
Q

What are helminthes?

A

Worms

135
Q

What are some types of reservoris?

A

Humans, animals, food, water, insects/arthoropds, soiled or wet dressings, hospital equipment

136
Q

What is a reservoir?

A

It is where an infections organism reproduces and thrive

137
Q

What are some types of portals of exit

A

Respiratory sputum, cough , sneeze
G-U: reproductive secretions, urine
GI: Saliva, emesis, blood, poop
Venous System: Blood
MM & non-intact skin: Draining wounds,
Ear/eyes

138
Q

What are some types of “means of transmission”?

A

Direct contact
indirect contact: fomite inanimate objects
respiratory
vector– inseect

139
Q

What are some indirect contact areas?

A

Gowns, bed linen, beside furniture, handles, iv poles, bp machines, pulse ox, stethoscopes, accudata machines,

140
Q

What are the expectations when using bleech wipes?

A

Must keep the area you are cleaning wet for a min of 3 mins for bleech to be effective.
GOOD FOR CDIFF

141
Q

What are the expectations when using hydrogen peroxide wipes?

A

Surface area must stay wet for a min of one min
NOT EFFECTIVE WITH CDIFF

142
Q

What are some portal of entry sites?

A

GI-GU tract
mucous membranes
skin intgrity disruption
resp tract
eyes

143
Q

Who is considered a susceptible host?

A

immunocompromised
aged or very young patients
trauma/surgery patients
indwelling devices
skin, mucous membrane breaks,
poor o2
impaired circulation
chronic or acute disease
MDRO
Poor aseptic measures
poor nutrition
stress
crowded environment
poor sanitation
travel exposure

144
Q

What is isolation?

A

Isolation is the intentional separation and restriction of ill persons with a confirmed contagious, transmittable infection/disease

145
Q

What are the four most common PPE items that we use?

A

Gowns, Masks, eye protection, gloves

146
Q

What are the modes of transmission?

A

Contact, droplet and airborne

147
Q

Teir 1: Standard precautions includes who?

A

All patients in ALL healthcare settings

148
Q

Teir 2: expanded precautions include who?

A

Patients who are or are suspected of being colonized with a contagious, transmissible pathogen.

149
Q

If a patient comes in and we suspect that they are contagious what happens next?

A

PCP,CN RN, ICP or house supervisor will order an isolation cart–> Central supply will bring iso cart–>We will place single use equipment inside the patient’s room–> Sign placed on the outside of the door to alert everyone to take precaution–> if this patient leaves our floor for any reason you must notify receiving dept.

150
Q

A patient with MDRO which is MultiDrug resistant organism (Acinetobacter, pseudomonas, ESBL’s, CRE’s, etc) would be under what type of iso precaution?

A

Contact

151
Q

A patient with VRE which is Vancomycin resistant enterococci would be under what type of iso percaution?

A

contact

152
Q

A patient with rotovirus(diarrhea), LICE, SCABIES, wounds w/no dressing or containment of drainage would be under what type of ISO percaution?

A

contact

153
Q

A patient with clostridium difficile (cdiff) or diarrhea on admit would be under what type of iso precaution?

A

special contact

154
Q

A patient with influenza (flu), pertussis (whooping cough), bacterial meningitis would be under what type of iso precautions?

A

Droplet

155
Q

A patient with TB (tuberculosis), Varicella (chicken pox), Measels (rubeola), disseminated shingles (shingles everywhere not localized or if the patient is immunocompromised patient), would be under what type of iso precaution?

A

Airborne

156
Q

Walk yourself through entering and exiting a contact precaution room–

A
  1. Sanitize your hands
  2. Gown up
  3. glove up
  4. enter room
  5. ID yourself and patient
  6. take care of business
  7. when exiting
  8. unglove- throw in trash
  9. ungown- throw in blue linen bag
  10. sanitize or wash hands.
157
Q

If a patient on contact iso needs to be transported what 4 things should you do before transport.

A
  1. assess pain
  2. Cover with white sheet.
  3. notify recieving dept.
  4. clean railing
158
Q

Walk yourself through entering and exiting a SPECIAL contact room–

A
  1. Sanitize your hands
  2. Gown up
  3. glove up
  4. enter room
  5. ID yourself and patient
  6. take care of business
  7. when exiting
  8. unglove- throw in trash
  9. ungown- throw in blue linen bag
  10. WASH YOUR HANDS WITH SOAP AND WATER
159
Q

If a patient on special contact iso needs to be transported what 4 things should you do before transport

A
  1. assess pain
  2. cover with white sheet
  3. notify receiving dept
  4. clean railing with BLEECH
160
Q

When a patient has CDIFF what type of cleaning solution will you use?

A

Bleech.

161
Q

True or false: Droplet particles are larger than 5 microns?

A

False

162
Q

Walk yourself through entering and exiting a patient room who has droplet precautions

A
  1. Sanitize your hands
  2. Gown up. (optional but not needed)
  3. Mask up– Regular mask/mask with eye shield
  4. glove up
  5. enter room
  6. ID yourself and patient
  7. take care of business
  8. when exiting
  9. unglove- throw in trash
    8.remove goggles
    8.ungown- throw in blue linen bag
    9.unmask in room
    10.Sanitize or wash your hand
163
Q

If a patient on droplet contact iso needs to be transported what 5 things should do before transport?

A
  1. assess pain
  2. cover with white sheet
  3. put mask on patient.
  4. notify receiving dept
  5. clean railing
164
Q

Does the door of a patient who has droplet precaution have to be closed?

A

NO

165
Q

Walk yourself through entering and exiting the room of a patient who is on airborne iso precaution

A
  1. Sanitize your hands
  2. Gown up. (optional but not needed)
  3. Mask up– N95 REQUIRED
  4. glove up
  5. enter room
  6. ID yourself and patient
  7. take care of business
  8. when exiting
  9. unglove- throw in trash
    8.remove goggles
  10. ungown- throw in blue linen bag
    9.Sanitize or wash your hand
    -close door
  11. once outside of room unmask
166
Q

If a patient on airborne iso needs to be transported what 5 things should you do before transport

A
  1. assess pain
  2. cover with white sheet
  3. put mask on patient.
  4. notify receiving dept
  5. clean railing
167
Q

True or False: Particles over 5 microns are considered airborne

A

true

168
Q

What type of room are patients on airborne iso placed in?

A

Negative pressure rooms

169
Q

If a covid patient does not have or need aerosolized procedures what types of iso do we treat this as

A

Droplet + Contact

170
Q

If a covid patient requires aerosolized procedures what type of iso do we treat this as?

A

Airborne

171
Q

What is considered an aerosolized procedure?

A

Breathing tx, mechanical vents etc…

172
Q

Walk yourself through entering and exiting a patients room on special respiratory precautions

A
  1. Sanitize your hands
  2. Gown up.
  3. Mask up– N95 REQUIRED
  4. face shield on
  5. glove up
  6. enter room
  7. ID yourself and patient
  8. take care of business
  9. when exiting
  10. unglove- throw in trash
    11.remove goggles
  11. ungown- throw in blue linen bag
    13.Sanitize or wash your hand
  12. once outside of room unmask
173
Q

If a patient on airborne iso needs to be transported what 5 things should you do before transport

A
  1. assess pain
  2. cover with white sheet
  3. put mask on patient.
  4. notify receiving dept
  5. clean railing
174
Q

Walk yourself through entering and exiting a patient room on protective precautions

A

-Self screen before entering. If sick DO NOT ENTER.
-Wash your hands with soap and water
- use standard precautions + what ever else the doctor my put in place for patient ex. “masks”

175
Q

A patient on protective precautions should travel with what on each time.

A

-Clean linens and mask

176
Q

Should we allow a patients family/friends to bring fresh fruit/flowers/veggies to a patient on protective precaution? Why or why not?

A

NO. Because they can be reservoirs

177
Q

What type of room is a patient on protective precautions in?

A

Positive pressure room.

178
Q

True or False: The only part of you gown that gets dirty is the backside.

A

False– Anything facing the patient is considered dirty

179
Q

What is body mechanics?

A

Involves the coordinated effort of muscles, bones, and the nervous system to maintain balance, posture and alignment during moving, transferring, and positioning patients.

180
Q

Your long bones can act as what?

A

levers

181
Q

What are types of ranges of motion?

A

Flexion-like flexing
Extension- extend
Hyperextension
Abduction– think abduct– away
Adduction– think add– inwards

182
Q

What are types of ranges of motion?

A

Flexion-like flexing
Extension- extend
Hyperextension
Abduction– think abduct– away
Adduction– think add– inwards
Rotation
Circumduction–circular motion

183
Q

Duration, Frequency and Intensity are considered what?

A

Risk factors

184
Q

True or False: the ANA would rather you manually lift than use a devise to assist due to cost.

A

False

185
Q

Fact or fiction: Training nurses to use proper body mechanics ALONE will avoid injury

A

Fiction

186
Q

Fact or fiction: While lifting devices minimize risk, the risk of MSD’s cannot be eliminated altogether?

A

True

187
Q

MSD stands for what

A

Muscular Skeletal Disorder

188
Q

Fact or fiction: studies have shown that patients feel more comfortable and secure when a mechanical transfer device is used

A

True

189
Q

Fact or Fiction: I can actually take much longer to round up a team of colleagues to manually lift a patient than to find and use lifting equipment

A

True

190
Q

Patient risk factors include– (body mechanics)

A

-Weak unable to help with transfers,
- vision or hearing loss
-unpredictable
- overweight
-uncooperative
-experiencing pain
- poor communication

191
Q

Nurse risk factors include– body mechanics

A

-Previous injuries
-Not trained properly
- not compliant with policies and procedures
-poor physical health
-sleep deprived

192
Q

Task related risk factors include— body mechanics

A

-reaching and lifting w/loads far from the body
-lifting heavy loads
-twisting while lifting
-reaching
-unexpected changes in load demand during lift
-long duration

193
Q

True or false: To maintain good body mechanics you should face the direction of movement

A

True

194
Q

True or false: To maintain good body mechanics you should have proper body alignment

A

True

195
Q

True or False: To maintain good body mechanics the center of gravity does not matter

A

false

196
Q

True or false: To maintain good body mechanics you only need to worry about the center of gravity and not about balance?

A

False

197
Q

True or False: To maintain good body mechanics you should have a good base of support by standing with your feet together

A

False

198
Q

True or false: It is important to keep your center of gravity over a wide base of support

A

True

199
Q

What are the steps of good body mechanics principles

A
  1. get help
    2.Flex knees, keep feet wide apart
  2. keep back, neck, pelvis, and feet aligned and avoid twisting
  3. tighten stomach muscles and pull butt in
  4. keep object close to self
  5. use arms and legs not back.
  6. use coordinated movements
200
Q

How do you find out what type of activity a patient can do?

A

Check the patients activity report given to you in report at start of shift

201
Q

What is BR or CBR

A

Bedrest complete

202
Q

what is BR with BRP

A

Bedrest with bathroom privileges

203
Q

What is Up ad lib

A

As patient wants to or desires

204
Q

What is up as tolerated

A

as patient is able to or tolerate

205
Q

What is dangle in activity orders mean?

A

Patient may sit and dangle their feet over the edge of the bed

206
Q

What is Up in chair with assist?

A

Patient may transfer from bed to chair with help

207
Q

What does NWB mean (weight bearing)

A

Non-weight bearing

208
Q

What does TDWB mean (weight bearing)

A

Touch-Down Weight Bearing

209
Q

What does TTWB mean -weight bearing

A

toe-touch weight bearing

210
Q

What does WBAT mean– weight bearing

A

Weight bearing as tolerated

211
Q

What does FWB mean– weight bearing

A

Full weight bearing

212
Q

Red Rules and fall bundle–Standard patient require what

A

-call light within reach
-room free of clutter
-belongings within reach
-bed locked in lowest position
-non-skid socks

213
Q

Red rules and fall bundle– Moderate pt requires what in addition to a standard pt

A
  • fall magnet
    -yellow socks
    -yellow gown
214
Q

Red rules and fall bundle– high pts requires what in addition to standard and moderate pts

A
  • door opened
    -bed alarm/chair alarm
215
Q

True or false: It is okay to leave pts unattended in the shower

A

false

216
Q

What is considered to be high fowlers position?

A

HOB at 90 degrees

217
Q

What is considered to be fowlers position?

A

HOB 45 degrees or more

218
Q

What is considered to be semi fowlers position?

A

HOB raised to 30 degrees or more

219
Q

What is the trendelenburg position?

A

Entire bed tilted with HOB down

220
Q

What is the reverse Trendelenburg?

A

Entire bed tilted with FOB down

221
Q

Name different patient postures

A

-Supine– think supper ready to eat on back
-Prone– think prone to hit the floor if you dont watch your step
- lateral– think about how you sleep– on your side
-lateral recumbent– on side with leg bent
-orthopneic– good for patients who not breath–sitting up and leaned over to take pressure off
-lithotomy-think gyno appt.

222
Q

What points should you consider when moving a patient?

A
  • how capable is the patient
    -Do we need any assistive devices
    -does the equipment function correctly
223
Q

Name some of the different types of assistive devices

A

-gait belt
-air pal
-slide board
-trapeze bars
-hoyer left

224
Q

True or false: It does not matter where you place the gait belt

A

False– it should be placed above the hips, around the waist and above the belly button

225
Q

When holding on to the gait belt your thumb should make what kind of sign

A

thumbs up

226
Q

True or false: It is best practice to have the bed at the highest level that is best for all assisting in moving patient

A

true

227
Q

When sizing crutches how many fingers width should you allow between the axilla and top of crutch

A

2-3 fingers width

228
Q

What could be injured if you incorrectly size crutches

A

brachial plexus

229
Q

True or false: Your wrists should line up with grab bars when arms are relaxed when sizing crutches

A

true

230
Q

What degree should your elbow flexion be when grasping handgrips to size crutches?

A

15-30degrees

231
Q

What does BID, B.I.D, bid, b.i.d mean

A

two times per day

232
Q

TID, T.I.D, tid, t.i.d means what

A

Three times per day

233
Q

QID, Q.I.D, qid, q.i.d means what

A

four times per day

234
Q

What is IVPB– route of admin

A

Intravenous piggy back

235
Q

What is IVP– route of admin

A

Intravenous push

236
Q

Route of admin– what is TD

A

Transdermal

237
Q

Route of admin– what is PR

A

Per rectum

238
Q

Route of admin– what is SL

A

Sublingual, under tongue

239
Q

Route of admin what is ID

A

intradermal

240
Q

the prefix mc stands for what metric unit

A

micro

241
Q

How do you abbreviate microgram

A

mcg

242
Q

1 milliliter mL is equal to how many cubic centimeters?

A

1 cubic centimeter cc

243
Q

1 teaspoon tsp is equal to how many milliliters mL?

A

5 (mL)

244
Q

1000 mililiters equals how many liters?

A

1 liter L

245
Q

3 teaspoons (tsp) = how man tablespoons Tbsp

A

1 Tbsp

246
Q

1000 micrograms (mcg)= how man miligrams?

A

1 milligram mg

247
Q

2 tablespoons Tbsp is = to how many ounces?

A

1 oz ounces

248
Q

1000 grams (g) = how many kilograms kg

A

1kg

249
Q

30milliliters is = to how many ounces?

A

1 oz

250
Q

1 kilogram or kg is = to how many pounds?

A

2.2 Ibs

251
Q

1Ib is = to how many grams (g)

A

454g

252
Q

1 tbsp is = to how many mL?

A

15mL

253
Q

1 teaspoon is equivalent to how many mL?

A

5mL

254
Q

1 tablespoon Tbsp is equivalent to how many tsp?

A

3 tsp

255
Q

1 cup is equivalent to how many oz?

A

8

256
Q

1 cup is equivalent to how many Tbsp?

A

16 Tbsp

257
Q

1 cup is equivalent to how many mL?

A

240

258
Q

1 pint is equivalent to how many cups?

A

2 cups

259
Q

1 pint is equivalent to how many mL?

A

480

260
Q

1 quart is equivalent to how many pints

A

2pints

261
Q

1 quart is equivalent to how many cups?

A

4 cups

262
Q

1 gallon is equivalent to how many quarts?

A

4 quarts

263
Q

1 gallon is equivalent to how many pints

A

8 pints

264
Q

1 fluid oz is equivalent to how many Tbsp

A

2 Tbsp

265
Q

1 fluid ounce is equivalent to how many mL

A

30mL

266
Q

16 ounces (weight) is equal to how many pounds

A

1 pound

267
Q

1 gallon is equal to how many mL?

A

3785mL

268
Q

1ft is equal to how many in

A

12in

269
Q

1 in is equal to how many cm

A

2.54 cm

270
Q

39.4 in is equal to how many m

A

1

271
Q

1m is equal to how man mm

A

1000

272
Q

1km is equal to how many m

A

1000

273
Q

for review:To convert temp from degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit by multi by 1.8 and add 32

A

To convert temp from degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit by 1.8 and add 32

Module 1 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions