Module 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS) announcements include the following information (15 Items)
A
Airport Identifier Time Wind Direction and Speed Visibility Ceiling Temperature Dew Point Altimeter Setting Instrument Approaches and Runways in use NOTAMs applicable to landing Weather Advisories Braking Action Report Wind Shear Reports Construction Activity Other Information
2
Q
Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS) broadcasts their messages over which 2 items?
A
AWOS
Separate Assigned Frequency
3
Q
Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS) is updated how frequently (2 answers)
A
Every hour or
as needed
4
Q
who updates Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS)? 1 answer
A
Air Traffic Control Tower
5
Q
Who has legal responsibility regarding the hazardous waste? (4 Choices)
A
Generates the waste
Transports the waste
Owns the facility for storage, treatment or disposal of the waste
Operates the facility for storage, treatment or disposal of the waste
6
Q
A substance is considered hazardous when either listed on what? (Name the CFR) or possesses 1 of 4 characteristics (Name the 4 characteristics)
A
CFR Part 261 Ignitability Toxicity Corrosiveness Reactivity
7
Q
Define Ignitablity
A
Ignitability is how easily combustible or flammable the material is
8
Q
Define Toxicity
A
Toxicity means high concentrations of pesticides or heavy metals
9
Q
Define Corrosiveness
A
Corrosiveness is if the waste burns the skin or dissolves metals
10
Q
Define Reactivity
A
Reactive chemicals are unstable and go through rapid or violent chemical reactions with water
11
Q
Hazardous Waste Generators are classified into 3 categories based on volume, name them
A
Large Quantity Generator >1000 KG/Month
Small Quantity Generator 100-1000 KG/Month
Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator <100 KG/Month
12
Q
How do you determine what classification in hazardous waste generation an airport is (1 answer)
A
Total the weight of all the hazardous material the airport generates in a month
13
Q
What happens depending on your category of hazardous waste generation?
A
If the airport i Small quantity generator or Large Quantity generator (>100 KG/ Month), the airport must get an EPA ID #
14
Q
Why does one select a Runway Design Code?
A
To establish the planned Level of Service
15
Q
A Runway Design Code is made up of which 3 criteria
A
- Aircraft Approach Category
- Airplane Design Group
- Approach Visibility Minimums
16
Q
What are the three types of approach a runway is certified to operate?
A
- Visual
- Non Precision Instrument
- Precision Instrument
17
Q
What is the Aircraft Approach Category based on? (1 item)
A
Speed
18
Q
What is the airplane design group (ADG) based on? 2 items
A
- Tailheight
2. Wingspan
19
Q
What is considered “substantial use” of a runway? (1 of 2 things)
A
- 500 or more annual itinerant operations
2. The Largest scheduled commercial service aircraft
20
Q
The design aircraft approach speed translates into time and distance factors that identify which 3 criteria?
A
- Runway Length
- Visibility Requirements
- Approach Aids
21
Q
Why is an aircraft’s wingspan important for design characteristics? 2 reasons
A
Indicative of:
- Weight Bearing Capacity
- Physical Size
22
Q
The design aircraft dictate requirements for what two reasons
A
- Pavement strength
2. separation standards for wingtip and other clearances
23
Q
Airfield design should be developed with the intent of preventing what 1 thing?
A
Runway Incursions
Safety is the highest priority
24
Q
FAA requirements for federally funded projects must take into account what six factors?
A
- Safety
- Increased Capacity
- Reducing Delays
- Economic Viability
- Noise Reduction
- Environmental Protection
25
What does the Runway Design Code signify?
The design standards to which the runway is to be built
26
The first step to designing an airport is to choose what regarding the airport?
The Runway Design Code (RDC)
27
What is the composite of several different aircraft composed of the most demanding characteristics of each?
The Design Aircraft
28
The Design Aircraft is a combination of what 3 criteria?
1. Airport Approach Category (AAC)
2. Airplane Design Group (ADG)
3. Taxiway Design Group (TDG)
29
What is the design aircraft at an airport with multiple runways
Each runway has its own design aircraft
30
The Airport Approach Category, Airplane Design Group, and Taxiway Design Group will specify which two criteria regarding how airports are built?
1. Strength
| 2. Dimensions
31
Aircraft Approach Category A is what approach speed?
< 91 Knots
32
Aircraft Approach Category B is what approach speed?
91-121 Knots
33
Aircraft Approach Category C is what approach speed?
121-141 Knots
34
Aircraft Approach Category D is what approach speed?
141-166 Knots
35
Aircraft Approach Category E is what approach speed?
>166 Knots
36
Airplane Design Group 1 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?
< 20' Tail, <49' Wing
37
Airplane Design Group 2 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?
20-30 Tail, 49-79 Wing
38
Airplane Design Group 3 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?
30-45 Tail, 79-118 Wing
39
Airplane Design Group 4 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?
45-60 Tail, 118-171 Wing
40
Airplane Design Group 5 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?
60-66 Tail, 171-214 Wing
41
Airplane Design Group 6 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?
66-80 Tail, 214-262 Wing
42
Is the Airplane Design Group measured by the tailheight, or the wingspan?
Whichever is most restrictive
For instance, a 35' Tail (ADG 3) and 120' Wing (ADG 4)
use ADG 4
43
Instrument Flight Visibility Category is expressed in what values?
Runway Visual Range (RVR) values
44
Which is most restrictive? Not lower than a mile or Lower than 1/4 Mile
Lower than 1/4 Mile
45
What is the definition of the Airport Reference Code?
A designation that signifies the airport's highest Runway Design Code minus the visibility component of the RDC
46
What is the Airport Reference Code used for?
Planning and design purposes only, it does not limit aircraft operations
47
When must an airport incorporate a new design standard?
Any new construction after the effective date of a new design standard requires incorporation of that standard
48
Airport management cannot permit any changes to its facility that might adversely affect (3 things)
1. Safety
2. Utility
3. Efficiency
49
What must a modification to a design standard prove to be used as an alternative design?
That an equivalent level of safety and efficiency will be achieved
50
What are the design considerations for a new runway? (5 items)
1. ARC
2. Weather
3. Surrounding Environment
4. Topography
5. Volume of air traffic expected
51
Runway alignment is predicated on attempting to achieve a direction in which critical aircraft can use the runway within its max crosswind component what percent of the year?
95%
52
If 95% wind coverage isn't possible for a runway, what is the suggestion?
A crosswind runway should be considered as well
53
What are the items that affect runway layouts? (8)
1. Availability of airspace
2. Existing/planned instrument approaches
3. Missed approach procedure
4. departure procedures
5. control zones
6. special use airspace
7. restricted airspace
8. Traffic patterns
54
What are the 4 basic runway configurations
1. Single
2. Open V
3. Parallel
4. Intersecting
55
How many operations per hour can a single runway handle? Visual and Instrument
Visual: 99/Hr
Instrument: 42-53/Hr
56
What are the 4 kinds of parallel runways?
1. Close
2. Intermediate
3. Far Parallel
4. Dual Lane
57
What is the distance for a close parallel runway?
<2,500'
58
What is the distance for an intermediate parallel runway?
2,500 -4,300'
59
What is the distance for a Far Parallel runway?
>4,300'
60
What is the definition of a dual-lane runway
Pairs of parallel runways separated by 4,300' or more
61
Two runways that diverge at an angle but do not intersect is called what kind of orientation?
An Open V
62
At what kind of runway do operations drop by up to 50% depending on the wind, and why?
Open V if wind forces operations to both land towards the closed end.
63
When two or more runways cross they are considered
Intersecting Runways
64
Which runway configuration uses the most land?
Intersecting Runways
65
How many runways will be in use with intersecting runways if there is strong winds?
Only 1
66
The capacity of intersecting runways greatly depends on what? (2 things)
1. Location of the intersection.
| 2. The way the runways are operated
67
What is the typical runway cross slope?
1% - 1.5%
68
What is the typical runway shoulder cross slope?
1.5% - 5%
69
What is one characteristic of runway shoulders to prevent erosion from runoff or jet blast?
They must be stabilized
70
What material is a runway shoulder?
```
They can be paved (especially for large aircraft)
or Grass (especially for small aircraft)
```
71
In an Open V runway configuration, if takeoffs and landings are made towards the closed end, the number of operations per hour can be reduced by what percent?
50%
72
Which runway configuration is best for relatively strong prevailing winds that change over the course of the year?
Intersecting Runways
73
Which is the primary agency responsible for nationwide enforcement of environmental regulations
Environmental Protection Agency
74
Who can the EPA delegate environmental regulations to? (2 answers)
1. FAA
| 2. State environmental agencies
75
Federal environmental regulations state that an the airport or an individual can be liable for what two exposures in the case of violations?
1. Criminal
| 2. Civil
76
The outcomes of breaking an environmental regulation include what two outcomes?
1. Imprisonment
| 2. Fines or other financial penalties
77
Mr. Smith a resident nearby catches the airport breaking an environmental regulation. He presses charges claiming negligence and says he wants the airport operator in jail. Can Mr. Smith press criminal charges?
No. Citizens can seek civil redress only
78
Mr. Smith a resident nearby catches the airport breaking an environmental regulation. He claims negligence and says he is going to sue. Can Mr. Smith bring a civil suit?
Yes. ordinary citizens can seek civil redress under certain environmental statutes.
79
What does it mean that environmental statutes carry strict liability provision
It means that an airport executive can be convicted of a crime even if there was no intent
80
How often can one be penalized for an environmental infraction that ends up with a civil penalty?
Each day the infraction continues to exist
81
What is the definition of enforcement with regards to environmental law?
Covers all efforts to ensure compliance with environmental laws
82
What is the definition of compliance with regards to environmental law?
The condition that exists when a person or company fully obey the law
83
What is the fundamental aim of enforcement with regards to environmental law
to convince those who are regulated that compliance is preferable to an enforcement action
84
What three basic factors determine whether a given public or private employee is personally liable with regards to environmental law?
1. Ability to make timely discovery of the problem
2. The power to direct activities of persons who control the mechanisms causing the problem
3. The ability to prevent and abate the damage
85
What four options does the EPA use to respond to an environmental violation?
1. informal notice of non-compliance letter
2. Formal administrative legal order that may require corrective action within a time frame
3. Civil judicial response (lawsuits brought in federal court)
4. Criminal judicial response (when a person or company knowingly and willfully violated the law
86
What agencies investigate a criminal judicial case with regards to environmental law? (2 answers)
1. EPA criminal investigation agents
| 2. FBI
87
After a judicial decision in their favor, what does the EPA typically look for as a result of enforcement action with regards to environmental law? (2 answers)
1. Remedy
| 2. Penalty
88
What are the 5 basic remedies for an EPA enforcement action with regards to environmental law?
1. Require the violator to comply with the law
2. Require the violator to carry out a supplemental project for an environmental benefit
3. Impose Penalties
4. Place the offender on the EPA list of violating facilities
5. Imprison violators
89
What happens when an offender is placed on the EPA list of violating facilities? (3 answers)
The offender is suspended from receiving federal
1. Grants
2. Contracts
3. Loans
90
What part of the Airport Master Plan explains how to implement the findings and recommendations of the planning effort?
Facilities Implementation Plan
91
The Facilities Implementation Plan is sometimes fused with what other part of the Airport Master Plan Process?
Financial Feasibility Analysis
92
What does a Facilities Implementation Plan suggest?
It suggests projects to include in the future Capital Improvement Plan (CIP) also known as a Transportation Improvement Plan (TIP)
93
Is an airport Capital Improvement Plan the same as the FAA's Airport Capital Improvement Plan?
No.
94
What is the FAA's Airport Capital Improvement Plan?
The federal government's national listing of projects eligible for AIP funding at a particular airport
95
A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) addresses all of the airport's planned capital projects to ensure there's enough _______ and ______ resources are available and that it fits _______________ wise? (3 items)
1. Fiscal
2. Staff
3. Scheduling
96
A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) balances what 6 items?
1. Funding Constraints
2. Project Sequencing
3. Environmental Processing Considerations
4. Tenant Approvals
5. Contracts and Leases
6. Sponsor Preferences
97
The Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) must address all of what from the airport?
All of the airports planned capital projects (even those not included in the master plan)
98
A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) should provide information regarding key activities such as?
(8 items)
1. Board Approvals
2. Coordination with Tenants
3. Environmental Considerations
4. Design Considerations
5. Funding Sources
6. Land Acquisition Activities
7. Community Activities
8. Coordination with regulatory agencies
99
A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) may change year to year? True or False
True. A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) may change.
100
An airport Capital Improvement Plan (CIP) might change based on demand with specific improvements identified based on _______________
When specific milestones occur
101
What FAR Part provides the operator with detailed regulations relating to managing objects that may interfere with aircraft flying in the airport area?
FAR Part 77 Safe, Efficient use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace
102
In genral FAR Part 77 includes the following areas
| 5 answers
1. Establishes standards for determining obstructions in navigable airspace;
2. Sets forth the requirements for notice to the Administrator of certain proposed construction or alteration;
3. Provides for aeronautical studies of obstructions to air navigation to determine their effect on the safe and efficient use of airspace;
4. Provides for public hearings on the hazardous effect of proposed construction or alteration on air navigation; and
5. Provides for establishing antenna farm areas.
103
Any natural growth, terrain, permanent, or temporary construction or alteration is defined as
Object
104
Is a tree's leaves considered an object?
Yes.
105
Is a temporary construction crane considered an object?
Yes.
106
Is a helicopter in the air considered an object?
No.
107
Is an airplane hangar considered an object?
Yes.
108
Is stockpiled earth considered an object?
Yes
109
The FAA develops an approach to a runway and includes safety margins to account for? (4 items)
1. Pilot Deviations
2. Instrument Errors
3. Terrain
4. Obstacle Conditions
110
If terrain prevents an approach from meeting approach criteria then what are the options?
1. Displaced Threshold
2. If Displaced Threshold makes the runway too short, then the normal decision height can be raised to allow the aircraft to use the full runway
111
What is the normal decision height?
200 feet
112
What is the impact of raising a decision height?
It affects the number of successful approaches and landings made due to weather conditions at the airport
113
Name the principal imaginary surfaces:
| 5
1. Primary surfaces
2. Transitional surfaces
3. Approach surfaces
4. Horizontal surfaces
5. Conical surfaces
114
This surface starts 200 feet from the runway end and extends outward for up to 50,000 feet for a precision approach runway (less for others)
Approach Surface
115
What is the horizontal distance of the conical surface?
4,000 feet
116
Which imaginary surfaces go up at 20:1 Slope?
1. Conical Surface
| 2. Approach Surface for visual runways
117
At what height is the Horizontal surface a level plane?
150'
118
What is the range of the width of the primary surface
250' - 1000'
119
How far past the runway does the primary surface extend?
200'
120
The slope of the approach surface depends on what?
The type of approach
121
What is the slope of the transitional surface?
7:1
122
This imaginary surface is intended to accommodate for the safe operation and maneuvering of aircraft that are performing circle to land or missed approaches?
Horizontal Surface
123
What is the width of the Horizontal Surface? (2 answers)
5,000' for visual approaches
| 10,000' for instrument approaches
124
This type of surface has a 40:1 Slope?
The Approach surface for Non precision instrument approaches
125
What FAR Part defines obstruction and requirements to file notification as intending to sponsor a construction or alteration?
FAR Part 77 Safe, Efficient use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace
126
What organization does a sponsor of construction or alteration need notify if it is required to under FAR Part 77 Safe, Efficient use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace
The FAA
127
If construction is taller than what height is it required to contact the FAA according to FAR Part 77 Safe, Efficient use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace?
200'
128
Lawrence, Kansas airport has 2 runways, 5700' and 3900' respectively. A building is being built 15,000' from the airport. At a point that is in the surface and exceeds 100:1. Does this construction need to be reported according to Part 77?
Yes.
a. Within 20,000 feet of a public-use or military airport that exceeds a 100:1 surface from any point on the runway of each airport with at least one runway
129
Scott airport in Kansas is an airport with one runway that is 2145' Long. A building is being built 15,000' from the airport. At a point that is in the surface and exceeds 100:1. Does this construction need to be reported according to Part 77?
No.
b. Within 10,000 feet of a public-use or military airport that exceeds a 50:1 surface from any point on the runway of each airport with its longest runway no more than 3,200 feet in length
130
Carlisle is a heliport in Kansas. A building is being built 4,000' from the heliport. At a point that is in the surface and exceeds 100:1 but is less than 25:1. Does this construction need to be reported according to Part 77?
No.
c. Within 5,000 feet of a public-use heliport that exceeds a 25:1 surface.
131
Construction on airport at O'Hare is being done in a remote area on airport land. It is construction of a sound berm 15,000' away from the nearest runway but is below 100:1 surface. Does this construction need to be reported according to Part 77?
Yes.
5. Any construction or alteration located on a public-use airport or heliport regardless of height or location.
132
If notification needs to be made by the airport operator or other entity regarding construction what form needs to be filled out?
Form 7460-1 Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration
133
Who conducts the Part 77 study after a Form 7460-1 Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration is submitted
FAA
134
What are the 3 choices the FAA might answer with as a result of a Part 77 study?
1. Resist
2. Oppose
3. Recommend
Against the presence of objects
135
The FAA insists on what to promote compatible uses and also to protect the FAA's investment in airports and the airways?
Land Use Planning
136
The FAA will issue a Determination of Hazard to Air Navigation if the aeronautical study concludes that the proposed construction will what? (2 items)
1. Not exceed any of the obstruction standards
| & 2. Would not be a hazard to air navigation
137
If an object exceeds obstruction standards, does the FAA always oppose it?
No. The FAA can decide it is not a hazard to air navigation
138
If an object exceeds obstruction standards, but the FAA decides it is not a hazard to air navigation, what might the FAA do? (3 answers)
1. Might ask for temporary construction equipment
2. supplemental notice requirements
3. marking and lighting recommendations
139
What happens if the FAA determines that a proposed construction will interfere with operations of air navigation systems? (2)
1. FAA will seek modifications to the application
| or 2. Will change operational use of the affected airport or airspace
140
What are examples of operational changes the FAA might ask for if it determines a proposed construction will interfere with operations of air navigation systems?
(3 answers)
1. Displacing a Threshold
2. Raising approach minimums or visibility requirements
3. Raising the aircraft minimum descent altitude in the area
141
What might an operational change requested by the FAA having to do with a Part 77 obstruction do to an airport? (2 answers)
It may reduce
1. capacity or
2. operational capability.
142
Prior to construction, what must the airport executive have to ensure safe operational practices during flight operations and for the duration of the project?
Construction Safety Plan
143
For guidance on creating a Construction Safety plan, airport operators can look in what Advisory Circular?
AC 5370-2C Operational Safety on Airports During Construction
144
Who has the overall responsibility to plan, schedule, and coordinate construction activities?
Airport Operator
145
What steps regarding an Airport construction safety plan must an airport operator take to ensure safety of a construction project? (2 steps)
1. Develop or approve a safety plan
| 2. Require contractors to submit plans how they intend to comply with safety requirements
146
What steps regarding entities involved with an airport construction project must an airport operator take to ensure safety of a construction project? (2 steps)
1. Meet with all entities
| 2. Ensure accurate contact info for all entities
147
What entities should be contacted regarding airport construction projects? (4 entities)
1. Airport Operations
2. Airport Maintenance
3. Contractors
4. Tenants
148
When collecting accurate contact information for entities involved in a construction project, what is particularly important contact information to receive
Contractor's after hours point of contact
149
What information must an airport operator disseminate to contractors regarding a construction project ?
1. Ensure that construction personnel know of any changes in procedures, such as flight or vehicle ground operation, bad weather, or low visibility, that may affect their work;
2. Ensure that contractors are trained in the determined safety plan, which may include airfield driver training, security processes interaction with ATC, airport signs, marking and lighting, vehicle operation, and communication;
150
Regarding ARFF, what must an airport operator do before or during a construction project to ensure safety?
1. Notifying ARFF personnel of construction activities that may affect response routes
151
What responsibilities does a contractor have regarding construction safety? (3)
1. Providing safety compliance plans
2. Providing a safety officer point of contact
3. Restricting movement of construction vehicles
152
In what ways does the contractor restrict the movement of vehicles? (4)
1. Flagging
2. Barricades
3. Temporary Fencing
4. Escorts
153
A construction safety plan should focus on what procedures? (4)
1. Protecting the RSA, and TSA
2. Protecting Object Free Areas (OFAs)
3. Protecting Obstacle Free Zones (OFZs)
4. Threshold siting criteria
5. Protecting Navaids
154
At any time during construction what items may dictate more stringent safety measures? (4)
1. Aircraft operations
2. Weather
3. Security
4. Local Airport Rules
155
Airport operators need to ensure that both general and specific safety requirements are coordinated with what two stakeholders?
1. ATCT
| 2. Tenants
156
Who should be coordinated with on all bid documents, construction plans, and specifications with regards to airport construction projects?
1. ATCT
| 2. Tenants
157
General safety provisions regarding construction are in what sections of AC 150/5370-10 Standards for Specifying Construction on Airports?
1. 40-05 Maintenance of traffic
2. 70-08 Barricades, Warning Signs, & Hazard Marking
3. 80-04 Limitation of Operation
158
A comprehensive construction vehicle plan should include what information? (6)
1. Marking vehicles
2. vehicle operator training
3. escort requirements
4. Marking procedures for access roads
5. Radio Communication
6. Procedures to address violations of the safety plan
159
Open trenches and excavations are not permitted within what distance (or area) from the runway? (2)
1. 200'
| or 2. Runway Safety Area
160
For construction safety purposes, excavations must be prominently ___________ and when appropriate _________
Marked &
| Lighted
161
During construction, hazards and displaced threshholds including closed portions of a taxiway or runway must be appropriately ____________ (3 answers)
1. Marked
2. Lighted
3. NOTAM issued
162
Why must care be taken with construction stockpiles with regards to safety? (3)
```
To ensure stockpiles are not within
1) Object Free Areas
2) Obstacle Free Zones
and
3) Stockpiles must be secured from the wind
```
163
Many hazardous construction practices can be mitigated with what 2 things?
1. Effective Communication
| 2. Development of an enforceable safety plan
164
What Advisory Circular lists hazards to watch for during construction on airfields?
1. AC 5370-2E
165
What 4 audiences are there to consider with terminal design?
1. Passengers
2. Airlines
3. Airport Operators
4. Community
166
Which audience in the terminal is invested in providing facilities in the terminal that generate revenue?
Airport Operators
167
Which audience in the terminal places importance on effective orientation graphics and signs?
Passengers
168
Which audience in the terminal wishes for provisions of efficient and effective security?
Airlines
169
Which audience in the terminal wants coordination with the intermodal transportation system
Community
170
Which audience in the terminal wants convenient access, personal comforts such as a variety of concessions and comfortable lounges, minimal walking distances, entertainment or business support options (Wi-Fi, charging stations, etc.), and children’s play areas. They desire minimal landside congestion, sufficient close-in parking (and extended parking options), access to rental car facilities, and effective orientation graphics and signs. Passengers also desire that their trips be completed without delay at reasonable cost and maximum convenience
Passengers
171
Which audience in the terminal wants airport that accommodate the existing and future airline fleets, provide efficient means of passenger and baggage flow, and have provisions for efficient and effective security.
Airlines
172
Which audience in the terminal are focused on maintenance issues, heating ventilation and air-conditioning cost, and providing facilities that generate revenue from concessionaires and other sources.43 They also want to provide a modern facility that is economically efficient and in harmony with the expectations of the community
Airport Operators
173
Which audience in the terminal desires that the airport provide a positive image of the community, harmony with the architectural elements of the total terminal complex, and coordination with the intermodal transportation systems
Community
174
Which audience in the terminal are concerned with on-time performance, efficient allocation of personnel, airport operating costs, and profitability
Airlines
175
What are the two major passenger categories?
Business and Leisure
176
Which type of passengers want close-in car rental, short distances to aircraft boarding, and airline travel clubs,
Business travelers
177
Which type of passengers desire curb-side access, economy parking, and seating areas?
Leisure Travelers
178
What items in a terminal are typically used by both kinds of travelers?
Restaurants and retail stores
179
For this kind of passenger you might need separate passenger holding and security areas, duty-free stores, and currency exchanges
International travelers
180
Airport with international travelers have higher or lower peak hour activity?
Higher
181
International travel comes with higher peak hour activity for what reasons? (3 reasons)
1. Time zone changes
2. Airport Operating Restrictions
3. Trans-oceanic route availability
182
How long are international airplane turn around times typically?
2-3 hours
183
In addition to passengers, what two groups of visitors must an airport be able to accommodate?
1. Meet and Greeters
| 2. Service and Delivery personnel
184
Airports with limited landside access and limited parking typically have what to accommodate travelers who are being picked up?
Cell phone lots
185
What grant assurance requires the airport sponsor to keep the Airport Layout Plan (ALP) up to date at all times
Grant Assurance 29 - Airport Layout Plan
186
What item is used to graphically depict existing and proposed airport land, terminal, and other facilities and structures owned by the airport, protection zones, and approach areas?
Airport Layout Plan (ALP)
187
Which Advisory Circular has standards for Airport Layout Plans?
150/5070-6 Airport Master Plans
188
An Airport Layout Plan (ALP) has a narrative featuring what items? (5)
1. Basic Aeronautical Forecasts
2. Basis for proposed items of development
3. Rationale for unusual design features or Mod to Standards
4. Environmental features that might influence airport ops
5. A summary of various stages of airport development
189
A standard Airport Layout Plan (ALP) has what drawings included?
1. Cover sheet
2. ALP Sheet
3. Airport Property Map (Exhibit A)
4. Airspace Drawings
5. Inner Portion of the Approach Surface Drawing
6. Terminal Area Plan
7. Land Use Drawing
8. Runway Departure Surfaces Drawing
190
Is an Airport Layout Plan (ALP) approved or accepted by the FAA
ALP is approved and is a legal document
191
What FAA order provides supplemental guidance for preparation of an Airport Layout Plan (ALP)
FAA Order 5100.38 Airport Improvement Program Handbook
192
What does FAA's approval of an Airport Layout Plan (ALP) signify and not signify? (2 of each)
+ 1. FAA concurrence in the conformity of the plan to design standards
+ 2. Agreement between FAA and sponsor regarding proposed allocation of airport areas for specific operational/support functions
- 1. FAA release of any federal obligated land or property
- 2. FAA approval to use land for non-aeronautical purposes (this requires separate approval)
193
At West Jordan airport the airport manager added added hangars not show on the ALP and within the Building Restriction Line. What happens now?
1. The FAA determines if it will affect safety, utility, or efficiency of any federally owned/leased on/off airport property
2. If yes, FAA may require airport to eliminate the adverse effect or bear the cost of rectifying the situation
194
What are the 5 primary functions of an ALP?
1. FAA approved document for airport to receive AIP funding and continue to receive PFCs
2. Blueprint for development
3. Working tool for airport ops and maintenance
4. Public document for community reference
5. Enables the FAA and sponsor to plan
195
How far in advance does FAR part 157 require airports to notify the FAA regarding construction or change in use of an airport?
30 days
196
Notification of construction or alteration on an airport is provided on FAA Standard form _______?
FAA Standard Form SF-7460-1—Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration
197
Notification of construction or alteration of a landing area is provided on FAA Standard form _______?
FAA Standard Form SF-7480-1—Notice of Landing Area Proposal
198
How often should an ALP be reviewed and validated?
Every 2-7 Years
199
When is it advised that an ALP update may be necessary? (5)
1. When existing projects can't handle forecasted aeronautical need
2. Existing facilities do not meet airport design standards
3. When many physical changes have happened at the airport
4. When many "pen and ink" changes have been made to an existing ALP
5. When the Airport Capital Improvement Plan needs an update
200
An ALP is turned into to what FAA office?
Airport District Office (ADO)
201
What do grant assurances require to be kept up to date regarding the ALP?
1. Exhibit A
2. Location of all existing and proposed Non aviation areas on airport property
3. Location and nature of all existing and proposed facilities
202
A community may use an ALP for what reasons? (3 items)
1. Land use proposals
2. Budgeting
3. Resource Planning
203
What is the name of the electronic ALP system the FAA now uses?
eALP
204
What platform allows airport executives to share accurate airport data in an integrated environment?
eALP
205
What ALP drawing is intended to show all FAR Part 77 imaginary surface
Airport Airspace Drawings
206
What ALP drawing includes the existing and future airfield layout and facilities
ALP sheet
207
What ALP drawing is essentially a closer look at the facilities located on an airport
Facilities Layout Plan
208
What ALP drawing depict existing and recommended uses of all land within the ultimate airport property line and within the vicinity of the airport at least to the 65 DNL contour?
On airport / Off airport land use drawings
209
What ALP drawing contains airport and runway tables and wind rose?
Data Sheet
210
What ALP drawing show a profile view that presents all runway approaches and the locations of the objects as they affect approach.
Inner portions of the approach surface Drawing
211
What ALP drawing depicts major routes and modes of transportation that serve the airport?
Airport Access Plans
212
What ALP drawing depicts the airport terminal and its surrounding facilities.
Terminal Area Plan
213
On the ALP sheet lines depicting what areas are typically shown? (8 items)
1. RSA
2. OFAs
3. OFZs
4. RPZs
5. Property Line
6. Building Restriction Line
7. Runway Visibility Line
8. Location of the ATCT and other facilities (ARFF)
214
What ALP drawing depicts the location of sewer, and electric, and cable lines in and around the airport?
Utility Drawing
215
What ALP drawing depicts how various tracts of land were acquired?
Airport Property Map (Exhibit A)
216
What ALP drawing displays the legal interest and ownership of land that makes up the airport
Airport Property Map (Exhibit A)
217
What ALP drawing shows the ground access to the airport terminal area along with major highways routes from the airport to the Central Business District. Rail and water are sometimes shown as well
Terminal Area Plan
218
FAA approves ALPs to ensure that all existing and proposed airport development will fit in with 3 terms
1. Safe
2. Efficient
3. Useful
219
In terms of ALP development, what does safe mean?
Airport meets design standards and provides for safe operation of aircraft
220
In terms of ALP development, what does efficient mean?
Planned capacity is sufficient for forecast demand
221
In terms of ALP development, what does useful mean?
In relation to airport purpose. Making the best use of land while minimizing off airport structures
222
What three levels of approvals does the FAA give regarding ALPs?
1. Unconditional
2. Conditional
3. Mixed
223
Which level of FAA approval regarding ALPs is proposed development requiring environmental processing have received environmental approval?
Unconditional
224
Which level of FAA approval regarding ALPs means near term projects depicted in the ALP have completed the NEPA reviews?
Mixed
225
Which level of FAA approval regarding ALPs means that environmental processing has not been completed for all of the items of proposed development requiring it?
Conditional
226
Bryce Canyon airport has a Mixed Approval ALP. They want to construct a new Taxiway R that has received conditional approval but their airport sponsor is nervous because the entire ALP is not unconditionally approved. Is this ok?
Yes, In a Mixed Approval, those elements that are unconditionally approved can be implemented
227
What term does the FAA use for near term projects with regards to an ALP?
"Ripe for decision"
228
What are the two primary types of radar facilities in the United States?
Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC)
| Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
229
Who staffs Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) and Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facilities?
FAA
230
What is the primary purposes of Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) and Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facilities?
Providing sequencing and separation to pilots in US airspace
231
Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) link the ________ to the _______ structure of the National Airpspace System
Departure Airport
| En Route
232
How high does terminal airspace typically extend?
10,000'
233
How far out from the facility does terminal airspace typically extend?
30 NM
234
Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) typically exist around what size of airport?
Large-Hub
235
What are the controller positions typically found in a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) ? (4)
Approach Control
Departure Control
Clearance Delivery
Flight Data
236
Which position in the Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) or Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) is responsible for ensuring the safe transition of the aircraft out of terminal airspace and into en route navigation?
Departure Control
237
What is the primary function of Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC)?
To separate participating aircraft traveling in en route airspace
238
Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) typically work with what kind of traffic?
Traffic on an IFR Flight plan
239
What is a radar system comprised of? (4)
Transmitter
Antenna
Receiver
Display
240
What are the primary types of Radar? (5)
```
Air Surveillance Radar (ASR)
Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR)
Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM)
Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
```
241
This type of RADAR is used by the US Military and provides both vertical and lateral guidance
Precision Approach Radar
242
This type of RADAR has a long range and is used by Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) for en route flight separation and identification
Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR)
243
What range does Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR) have?
100-250 NM
244
This short range RADAR is used by ATCT to augment and confirm information and vehicle position reporting
Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)
245
This type of short range RADAR is used for separating and identifying traffic in and around airports
Air Surveillance Radar
246
What RADAR equipment is used by ATC to detect potential runway conflicts by providing detailed coverage of taxiway and runway movement?
ASDE-X
247
How far out can Air Suveillance Radar detect?
60 NM
248
This type of RADAR is used by the TRACON in conjunction with Air Suveillance RADAR (ASR) and can receive transponder signals
Automatic Radar Terminal System (ARTS)
249
This type of RADAR is used for accurate airport use and allows inbound use of two parallel runways to be closer that 4,300'
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM)
250
What is the name of the restricted area between two approach corridors as used by Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM)
No Transgression Zone
251
How far away from the airport can ASDE-X equipment provide surveillance?
5 Miles
252
Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE) works together with ________________ to alert pilots that a runway is active or that a potential conflict with another aircraft exists
Airport Movement Area Safety System (AMASS)
253
A beacon device installed on an aircraft and used to send data on the aircraft's position and altitude is known as?
Transponder
254
Pilots can "Squawk" emergency codes on their transponder. What are 3 important ones
7700 - Aircraft Emergency
7600 - Radio Failure, Communication Issue
7500 - Hijacking
255
Mode C transponder has what kind of encoding capability
Altitude
256
Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) just received a squawk of 7500 from a nearby plane. What does that mean?
Hijacking!
257
What altitude increment can a Mode S transponder report in
25'
258
Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) just received a squawk of 7600 from a nearby plane. What does that mean?
Communications Error
259
In response to the global concern of sustaining compliance with environmental regulations and policies, airport administrations are now utilizing comprehensive _______________
Environmental Management Systems (EMS)
260
What FAA Advisory circular provides guidance on establish methods for Environmental Management Systems (EMS)
AC 150/5050-B Environmental Management Systems for Airport Sponsors
261
What are the 6 main steps for developing a sufficient Environmental Management Systems (EMS)
1. Establish a position on environmental compliance
2. Communicate compliance goals to stakeholders
3. Audit current level of compliance
4. Establish programs to gain compliance
5. Create processes to correct & maintain compliance
6. Implement strategies to build environmental capacity
262
Three Key activities for maintaining environmental compliance are?
1. Employee /tenant training
2. Audits of airport EMS programs
3. Sound record keeping processes
263
Environmental Management Systems (EMS) benefits include (5)
1. increased efficiency
2. reduced costs and liability
3. increased employee awareness of environmental responsibility
4. improved community relations
5. Increased accountability
264
What are the 5 components of the Environmental Management System (EMS)
1. Commitment and Environmental Policy
2. Management Review
3. Planning
4. Implementation and Operation
5. Checking
265
What is the basis for effective decision making in airport planning with regard to the Airport Master Plan (AMP)
Forecasting of future levels
266
What is the expectation of forecasts with regard to the Airport Master Plan (AMP)
1. Based on current data
| 2. Forecasts are expected to be realistic
267
What is the length of short term, medium term, and long term forecasting effort with regard to the Airport Master Plan (AMP)?
Short: < 5 Years
Medium: 6-10 Years
Long: > 10 Years
268
What forecasts are available for use in developing Master Plan Forecasts (8)
1. Terminal Area Forecast
2. Historical Data
3. National Aerospace forecasts
4. FAA Long Range Aerospace Forecasts
5. State Aviation System Plans
6. Official Airline Guide (OAG)
7. FAA Form 5010
8. Airport Master Record
269
Who publishes the National Aerospace forecasts and the FAA Long Range Aerospace Forecasts?
FAA's Office of Aviation Policy and Plans
270
Define and Aircraft Operation
A takeoff or landing at an airport
271
Loa Airport had 200 itinerant departures per year, 400 itinerant arrivals this year, and 1000 touch and go from student pilots this year. How many aircraft operations did they have?
2,600.
An aircraft operation is defined as a takeoff or a landing at an airport. The definition includes “touch and go” operations, which count as two sequential operations—one landing and one takeoff.
272
Operations are classified as one of what two kinds?
1. Local
| 2. Itinerant
273
Halls Crossing Airport has an operation from a student doing flying the pattern at the airport. What kind of operation is this?
Local Operation
274
ATCT routinely keeps record of what kind of operaton?
Itinerant
275
Moab airport just had a low pass happen at its airport. Does the tower record that as an operation?
Yes, it is considered a local operation
276
A forecast of __________ is needed for planning or upgrading navaids and landing systems?
Annual Instrument Approaches
277
What are the 5 required aviation demand elements for an Airport Master Plan
1. Local Operations
2. Itinerant Operations
3. Enplanements
4. Based Aircraft
5. Aircraft Mix
278
What is the radius for local training areas to be considered a local operation
20 NM
279
A forecast of Annual Instrument Approaches is needed for planning or upgrading what two things?
1. NAVAIDS
| 2. Landing Systems
280
What are the 5 categories of itinerant operations
1. Air Carrier
2. Commuter
3. Air Taxi
4. General Aviation
5. Military
281
Define an enplanement (3 terms)
1. Paying Passenger
2. Departing
on a
3. Commercial Aircraft
282
What type of passenger is not included as an enplanement
Non revenue Passengers
283
Who is a non revenue passenger?
1. Airline employee
| 2. Thru-passengers
284
What is a thru-passenger?
Departing on aircraft with the same flight number that they arrived and not requiring re-boarding
285
Cedar City airport has 400 originating passengers. 300 transfer passengers. and 500 thru passengers, and 100 Air Taxi passengers. How many enplanements are there?
800.
Originating and transfer passengers are included as are air taxi or charter passengers.
Not included are non-revenue passengers such as airline employees or thru-passengers
286
Ogden Airport has 1000 originating passengers. 600 transfer passengers. 100 thru passengers. 2000 charter passengers. 100 air taxi passengers. 600 private general aviation passengers. How many total enplanements are there?
3700.
Enplaned passengers are the total number of paying passengers who are departing on commercial aircraft.
Originating and transfer passengers are included as are air taxi or charter passengers.
Not included are non-revenue passengers such as airline employees or thru-passengers
287
St George Airport has 300 originating passengers. 0 Transfer Passengers. 100 thru passengers. 500 charter passengers. 500 air taxi passengers. 1000 private GA passengers. and 100 airline non-paying airline reps. How many total enplanements are there?
1300.
Enplaned passengers are the total number of paying passengers who are departing on commercial aircraft.
Originating and transfer passengers are included as are air taxi or charter passengers.
Not included are non-revenue passengers such as airline employees or thru-passengers
288
Salt Lake City airport carried 1000 tons of priority cargo. 1500 tons of non priority cargo. 500 tons of foreign mail, and 800 tons of passenger baggage on Monday. What is the total tonnage of enplaned cargo?
3000 tons.
includes the total tonnage of priority, non-priority, and foreign mail, express, and freight (property other than baggage accompanying passengers) departing on aircraft at an airport to include originations, stopovers, and transfer cargo
289
What does the aircraft mix refer to?
The categories of aircraft
290
The categories of aircraft is defined as?
Aircraft Mix
291
What are the sizes of airplanes typically defined in the aircraft mix? (3)
< 12,500 lbs
12,500 - 60,000
>60,000
292
Aviation Demand forecasts typically identify (2)
1. Airport's design aircraft
| 2. Fleet Mix
293
Aviation Demand Forecasts at commercial service airports usually include?
Number of passenger enplanements
294
Aviation Demand Forecasts at GA airports usually include?
Forecasts for based aircraft
295
Aviation Demand Forecasts at cargo airports usually include?
Forecasts of cargo tonnage
296
Knowing hourly peaks is critical at what kind of airports
Commercial service airports that service as hubs or have substantial international traffic
297
What factors are used to forecast the demand for individual airport Master Plans
1. Economic Characteristics
2. Demographics Characteristics
3. Geographic Characteristics
4. Aviation Related Factors
5. Other Factors
298
Economic characteristics are especially important in connection with what 3 groups?
1. Business Travelers at Commercial Airports
2. Business Travelers at GA
3. Cargo Traffic
299
Manufacturing, service industries, primary and resource businesses, agricultural flying, instructional flying, and aircraft sales account for which one of the forecast demand factors in the Master Plan?
Economic Characteristics
300
Fuel price fluctuations, changes in items such as the regulatory environment, the levels and types of taxes, fees, and currency restrictions, business activities, industry trends, mergers, consolidations, and new marketing agreements are all which demand factor in the Master Plan?
Aviation Related Factors
301
Minneapolis Airport just got a new international route to Zagbreg. When accounting for this in a master plan, what factor is this considered?
Aviation Related Factor
302
Park City has an airport that gets a lot of tourist clientele due to its proximity to the mountains. Which demand factor in the Airport Master Plan does this best relate to?
Geographic Factors
303
Economic fluctuations such as fuel price changes, currency and trade restrictions, political developments, international tension, changing regulations, and environmental impacts are all examples of what kind of demand factor in the Airport Master Plan?
Other Factors
304
An airport community's population and growth rate are examples of what kind of demand factors in the Airport Master Plan?
Demographic Factors
305
What FAA Order describes the Priority system for discretionary funds to determine which projects receive funding?
FAA Order 5100.39A
306
Highest Priority discretionary fund projects relate to the following goals (3)
1) Safety and security
2) Increasing Capacity
3) Improved compatibility with surrounding community
307
Discretionary funds are decided for use by what?
National Priority System (NPS)
308
Discretionary Funds using the National Priority System (NPS) use values from ______ to ______?
0 - 100 Points
309
How many National Priority System (NPS) points do you get for being a Large or Medium Hub airport?
5 Points
310
How many National Priority System (NPS) points do you get for being a Small or non-Hub airport?
4 Points
311
How many National Priority System (NPS) points do you get as a reliever or GA airport?
Depends on # of annual operations
312
What 3 categories are used for determining points in the national priority system other than airport size?
Purpose
Component
Type
313
What are some examples of purpose points for the National Priority System (NPS)? (4)
1. Capacity
2. Safety
3. Security
4. Reconstruction
314
What are some examples of Component points for the National Priority System (NPS)? (4)
1. Land
2. Planning
3. Apron
4. Building
315
What are some examples of Type points for the National Priority System (NPS)? (4)
1. Bond Retirement
2. Construction
3. Fuel Farm Development
4. RWY/TWY Signs
316
In the Purpose Category what projects get the most points for the National Priority System (NPS)?
Safety/Security - 10 Points
317
In the Purpose Category what projects get 9 points for the National Priority System (NPS)?
Statutory Emphasis Projects - 9 Points
318
In the Purpose Category what projects get 8 points for the National Priority System (NPS)?
Reconstruction, Planning, and Environmental Projects - 8 Points
319
In the Purpose Category what projects get 6 points for the National Priority System (NPS)?
Capacity and Standards - 6 Points
320
In the Purpose Category what projects get 4 points for the National Priority System (NPS)?
Other Projects - 4 Points
321
In the Component Category what projects gets the most points for the National Priority System (NPS)?
Runways - 10 Points
322
In the Component Category what projects gets the most points AFTER runways for the National Priority System (NPS)?
Helipads and Seaplane Bases
323
In the Component Category what projects gets the most points after runways, helipads, and seaplane bases for the National Priority System (NPS)? (2)
Taxiways and equipment
324
What are lowest in the component category for what projects gets the most points in the National Priority System (NPS)? (4)
1. Land
2. Public Buildings
3. Planning Projects
4. Residential or noise related projects
325
In the Type Category what projects gets the most points for the National Priority System (NPS)? (2)
1. Obstruction Removal
| 2. Construction and Noise in 75 DNL
326
In the Type Category what projects gets the most points for the National Priority System (NPS) after obstruction removal and construction and noise in the 75 DNL? (3)
1. Snow Removal Equipment
2. Weather Reporting Equipment
3. Safety-Zone Projects
327
Define Take off Distance Available
Available unobstructed airspace
328
Define Take off run available
Distance available for take off on pavement
329
Define Airport Reference Point
Latitude and Longitude of the geometric center of the runwaya
330
Define Landing Distance Available
Available pavement for landing
331
Define Airport Elevation
Highest elevation on a usable runway
332
Define Accelerate-Stop Distance
Distance the aircraft has to stop in the case of an aborted take-off
333
What is the width of the Object Free Area?
250-800'
334
How far past the runway end does the Object Free Area extend?
240'-1000'
335
What is the ceiling for the Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ)
150'
336
Define Obstacle Free Zone
airspace above the runway at any point but below the 150' floor of the horizontal surface
337
How far does the Obstacle Free Zone extend past the runway end?
200'
338
What is the range of the width of the Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ)
120'-400'
339
What does the size of the Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ) depend on? (2)
1. Visibility Requirements
| 2. Aircraft Size
340
With regards to maximum take off weights, what is the border between large and small aircraft?
12,5000 lbs
341
What shape is a stopway and a clearway?
Rectangle
342
Define a Clearway
Area off the departure end of a runway suitable for use in calculating aircraft take off performance
343
Clearway is factored into how much ___________ is available
Take off distance (TODA)
344
Define a Stopway
Area off the departure end of a runway used to support and minimize damage in case of an overrun
345
A Clearway and Stopway are both on which side of a runway?
Departure end
346
What shape is a Runway Protection Zone?
Trapezoid
347
The Runway Protection Zone (RPZ) starts how far off the end of a runway?
200'
348
What does the size of an Runway Protection Zone (RPZ) vary with?
1. Design Aircraft
| 2. Approach Minimums
349
What is the variance of length for a Runway Protection Zone (RPZ)
1,000 - 2,500'
350
What is the size of the smallest width of the trapezoid? (Not a number)
Width of the primary surface
351
What is the range in size of a Runway Safety Area?
120' - 500'
352
What is the range in size of a Taxiway Safety Area?
49' - 262'
353
What are the 5 attributes of effective wayfinding signage?
1. Conspicuous
2. Concise
3. Comprehensible
4. Legible
5. Location
354
Effective Wayfinding begins with _________
Airport Layout
355
What is regulatory airspace?
1. A,B,C,D,E airspace
2. Restricted Areas
3. Prohibited Areas
356
What is non-regulatory airspace?
1. Warning Areas
2. Alert Areas
3. Controlled Firing Areas
4. Military Operation Areas
357
How far out from shore does a warning area begin?
3 Miles
358
Warning areas denote airspace over __________
International Waters
359
________________ exists over the capitol, White House, and surrounding areas
Flight Restriction Zone
360
Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA) are areas where participating pilots can receive additional radar services and typically overlay what airspace?
Class D
361
What are the two shelf sizes of Class C airspace?
1. 5 NM Core up to 4,000'
| 2. 10 NM radius shelf from 1,200' -4,000'
362
What are the heights of Class E Airspace (2)
1. Up to 18,000'
| 2. 60,000' to limits of space
363
These areas are where participating pilots can receive additional radar services and typically overlay Class D Airspace
Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA)
364
What is another name for Class C towers?
IFR towers or Radar towers
365
_____________exist at airports without a control tower but that have an on-field FAA FSS in operation
Airport Advisory Areas
366
When a tower is not operational at an airport with Class D airspace, what does that airspace become?
Class E or Class G
367
If a pilot cannot remain clear of a Parachute Jump Area, what should they do?
Monitor the frequency of the aircraft carrying the skydivers
368
_______________ are for transitioning around, under, or through complex airspace
Published VFR Routes
369
This airspace are corridors that are identified as federal airways. They are designated to serve a variety of terminal or en route purposes including help to provide separation of VFR and IFR traffic.
Class E
370
Where can one find a published VFR Route?
VFR Sectional area chart
371
This airspace is generally from the surface to 4000' surrounding airports with an operational ATCT
Class C
372
Why are civil aircraft allowed in Controlled Firing Areas?
They are not depicted on aeronautical charts
373
What is one example of an alert area?
Pensacola Florida where naval aviators are trained, so civilian pilots are notified of high volumes of traffic
374
What is a military transition route?
One-way, high speed routes for traffic flying below 10,000 MSL
375
What are Military Operations Areas for?
Separating high speed military traffic from GA/Commercial Traffic
376
Below what height are Military Transition Routes?
10,000 MSL
377
What height does Class D airspace go to?
Surface - 2,500'
378
In what areas have there been many cases of aircraft colliding with military aircraft
Military Transition Routes
379
_____________ denote airspace that may be used for hazards that are visible to aircraft, such as aerial gunnery, guided missiles, or artillery firing.
Restricted Areas
380
Who is authorized in a restricted area?
1. Aircraft on an IFR flight plan
381
What should a VFR pilot do about a restricted area?
Should ensure the restricted area is not active prior to entering that airspace
382
__________ are airspaces in which an unusual activity is taking place. _________ are used to advise pilots of potential conflicts, but these areas have no special rules
Alert Areas
383
What areas are imposed to preclude aircraft from entering the area in which an incident or event is occuring?
Temporary Flight Restrictions
384
______________ are published locations where parachute activities occur.
Parachute Jump Areas
385
What height does Class A airspace exist?
18,000' - 60,000'
386
_________ contain airspace in which aicraft flight is not allowed - typically for national security
Prohibited Areas
387
______________ consist of airspaces of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where increased security and safety of ground facilities is necessary.
National Security Areas
388
________________ contain activities that could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft, but the activities are immediately suspended when spotter aircraft, radar, or a ground lookout indicates that an aircraft may be approaching.
Controlled Firing Areas
389
When IFR operates below 18,000' it is considered ________________
Controlled Airspace
390
These areas exist around all borders of the United States and Washington D.C.
Air Defense Identification Zone
391
What airports does Class E airspace exist at?
1. No control tower
| 2. Published Instrument Procedure
392
What height is generally Class B airspace?
Surface to 10,000'
393
What is required for aircraft to operate in Class B airspace?
ATC clearance
394
What is the VFR requirements for entering Class B airspace?
1. Clear of Clouds
2. Operable 2-way radio
3. Altitude reporting Mode C Transponder
395
_______________ consist of controlled airspace extending out from the end of the radius of controlled airspace around Class B and C airspace. These allow for the ascent or descent of IFR aircraft into those areas.
Transition areas
396
What refers to the area above 14,500' overlaying the 48 contiguous states?
Continental Control Area
397
_________ is the sum total of all airports, navigational aids, air traffic control, and airspace in the United States
National Airspace System (NAS)
398
Anytime a vehicle moves from a non-controlled area to a controlled area, it is entering the Movement Area; it must have clearance from whom in the ATCT?
Ground Controller
399
Pilots operating from a towered airport require 2 things
1. Two-way communication with the tower
| 2. Acknowledgement of tower instructions when given
400
the ____________ delineates those areas under the control and responsibility of the ATCT, and those under the airport’s control (i.e. the Movement and Non-Movement areas).
Memorandum of Understanding/ Letter of Agreement
401
The Memorandum of Understanding for an ATCT outlines the following responsibilities (6)
1. Hours of operation
2. Emergency notification responsibility
3. Authorized Vehicles
4. Type of Communication Equipment
5. Call signs to be used
6. Areas where ATC clearance is required
402
Non-towered airport procedures and communication practices for operating on the airport are found in the _________________
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)
403
Some large-hub airports have control personnel staffed by the airport or airlines called
Ramp Control
404
What is the difference between CTAF and UNICOM
1. UNICOM may offer weather, wind direction, and recommended runway
2. Often staffed by an FBO or Flight Service Station (FSS)
405
A ______________ has the responsibility of managing all aircraft and vehicular activity on the airport’s taxiways
Ground controller
406
Aurora airport's ATCT operates from 8 AM - 4 PM Monday - Friday. On Saturday is Aurora airport a towered airport
NO! A towered airport has an OPERATING control tower
407
Pilots should use UNICOM or CTAF whenever they are in these three places
1. Runways
2. Taxiways
3. Traffic Pattern
408
A __________ is responsible for handling arriving and departing aircraft on the active runways and within the assigned airports airspace
Tower (or Local) controller
409
At a small airport the Tower controller and Ground controller may be the same person but they will operate _____________
on different frequencies
410
Who has right of way at a non-towered airport?
Landing Aircraft
411
The general concept of ____________ is used at non-towered airports
See and Avoid
412
What are the two devoted position in an ATCT?
1. Ground Control
| 2. Tower Control
413
Why are air traffic patterns established? (2)
1. To maintain visual separation
| 2. To provide orderliness for aircraft using an airport.
414
What is typically the traffic pattern altitude?
600' - 1500'
415
A standard traffic pattern is what direction
Left Hand Pattern
416
What are the 6 legs of a typically traffic pattern
1. Departure
2. Crosswind
3. Upwind
4. Downwind
5. Base Leg
6. Final Approach
417
Which leg is considered the most important of the legs in the traffic pattern
Final Approach Leg
418
When does the departure leg begin and end?
The point the airplane leaves the ground and continues until the 90 degree turn onto the crosswind leg
419
Describe the base leg
Transitional part of the traffic pattern between the downwind leg and the final approach leg.
420
Which leg should a pilot typically enter the pattern for a landing
The downwind leg
421
When does the Final Approach leg terminate?
At Touchdown
422
If a pilot takes off and intends to stay in the pattern what should they do? (2)
1. Commence a turn towards the crosswind leg beyond the departure end of the runway
2. Stay within 300' of pattern altitude
423
Describe the crosswind leg
part of the rectangular pattern that is horizontally perpendicular to the extended centerline of the takeoff runway and is entered by making approximately a 90° turn from the upwind leg.
424
Describe the final approach leg
descending flight path starting from the completion of the base-to-final turn and extending to the point of touchdown
425
What would be the two reasons to use the upwind leg
1. Straight in approach
| 2. Go around (aborted landing)
426
Describe a downwind leg (2)
1. Parallel to the landing runway
| 2. Opposite direction of landing
427
Mike Smith is being brought to court for a near-miss near non-towered Olney airport. The allegation is that he used a right hand pattern instead of left that almost caused the incident. Is Mr. Smith liable?
No. The FAA recommends the standard traffic pattern for all non-towered airports, but the recommended pattern does not have the force of a regulation; pilots can fly any pattern they desire as long as turns are made in the proper direction.
428
What do pilots use to visualize an air traffic pattern?
Segmented Circle
429
What are two major reasons a flight pattern might be modified?
1. Obstacles
| 2. Noise abatement
430
What are the two primary benefits of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
1. Safety
| 2. Reduced Flight Disruption
431
What type of guidance does an Instrument Landing System (ILS) provide? (2)
1. Vertical
| 2. Horizontal
432
The components of Instrument Landing System (ILS) give __________, _________, __________ information during an approach to land
1. Azimuthal (Horizontal)
2. Elevaton
3. Range (Distance)
433
What are the components of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)? (5)
1. Localizer
2. Glide Slope
3. Outer Marker
4. Middle Marker
5. FAA Determined Decision Height
434
What policy has establishment criteria for Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
FAA Policy APO-83-10 Establishment and Discontinuance Criteria for Precision Landing Systems
435
How does an airport become eligible for an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
an Economic analysis that includes the establishment formula and cost-benefit factors
436
What are the 3 key establishment criteria for an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
1. Annual Instrument Approaches
2. Number of non-precision approach minimums on the candidate runway
3. Probability of IFR weather at the airport
437
What would an Instrument Landing System (ILS) cost benefit analysis consider? (6)
1. Value of air travel time
2. Value of the equipment's statistical life
3. Unit cost of injuries
4. Unit cost of damaged aircraft
5. Aircraft capability and utilization factors
6. Variable Operating Cost
438
An airport may earn an ILS with exemptions from meeting the criteria for reasons such as what three ways?
1. unique terrain
2. severe weather areas
3. Highly congested area
439
Any Instrument Landing System (ILS) installation must meet FAA design standards found in _________ and have an airspace allocation and flight route capability determined to be acceptable under __________
AC 5300-13, Airport Design
| FAA Order 8260.3 Terminal Approach Procedure
440
What end of the runway is the localizer located?
Departure end
441
How far past the end of the runway is the localizer located?
1000'
442
What kind of beam is a localizer based on?
RF beam
443
A localizer provides _____________ to the pilot in order to align the aircraft with the runway centerline
Lateral positioning guidance
444
How far is the line-of-sight distance for a localizer?
10 NM
445
What is the focused range in degrees for a localizer?
35 degrees left of right of the centerline
446
Aircraft approach an airport under ILS guidance must follow the localizer path in ____________ (2)
1. Single File
| 2. Spaced at intervals dictated by horizontal separation
447
What 5 typical airfield items greatly affect the RF signal of a localizer?
1. Other aircraft
2. Vehicles
3. Terrain
4. Buildings
5. Power lines
448
What is the size and shape of a localizer critical area?
250' in diameter extending 2,000' down the runway
449
Because of the localizer critical area when must maintenance and inspection be done? (2)
1. During VFR conditions
| 2. with ATCT approval
450
The normal operation and use of a localizer result in what is known as a ____________
Front course approach
451
Due to localizer siting issues, a __________________________ can be used for approach guidance, but it doesn't align with the centerline of the runway
Localizer Directional Aid (LDA)
452
What is the 2nd component of the Instrument Landing System (ILS)
Glide Slope
453
What is the typical offset for a glide slope in an Instrument Landing System (ILS)
250' from the side (NOT the centerline)
454
In the longitudinal direction, where is the Glide Slope?
1,000' from the runway threshold
455
What kind of guidance does a Glide Slope provide?
Vertical Guidance
456
What slope does a glide slope typically portray?
3 degree from the runway touch down zone
457
How does a glide slope work?
By reflecting or bouncing the electronic signal off the ground in front of the antenna
458
Because the glide slope works by reflecting or bouncing the electronic signal off the ground in front of the antenna, what is associated with its installation?
A Critical Area
459
What is the typical size of the Glide Slope Critical area
500' wide x 1200' long in front of the antenna
460
What factors are important that will affect the reflectivity of a glide slope signal?
1. Water accumulation
2. Piled snow
3. Uneven terrain
4. Objects (construction, aircraft, vehicles)
461
What Instrument Landing System (ILS) component is located along the localizer approach path at fixed distances?
Marker Beacons (MB)
462
What is the purpose of marker beacons in the Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
To convey to the pilot approximate distances from the runway threshold
463
Category II and III Instrument Landing System (ILS) use which marker beacons?
Outer Marker
Middle Marker
Inner Marker
464
What is the shape of the marker beacons signal?
Cone/Fan shaped
465
The marker beacon gives approximate distance to what item in the Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
The runway threshold
466
What are the distances from the runway threshold for the 3 types of marker beacons
Outer: 4-7 NM
Middle: 2,000 - 6,000'
Inner: 1,000'
467
Where is the actual distance to the runway threshold found to give an exact distance for each marker beacon?
Instrument Approach Plate
468
Category I Instrument Landing System (ILS) do not have which of the three marker beacons?
Inner
469
What is the typical decision height for a runway approach in Instrument Landing System (ILS)
200'
470
In a category I Instrument Landing System (ILS), what altitude is a plane typically flying at the middle marker?
200'
471
What color flashes on the plane's instrument panel at the outer marker?
Purple
472
John Jenkins is on approach towards a Category I ILS. He reaches the middle marker and cannot see the runway environment. What happens?
The pilot must abort the landing and execute a missed approach
473
What is the standard Instrument Landing System (ILS) category?
Category I
474
What are Instrument Landing System (ILS) approaches rated on? (3)
1. System Configuration
2. Equipment on board the aircraft
3. Special Pilot Training
475
What color flashes in the cockpit at the middle marker?
Amber
476
What happens at the decision height?
A pilot is required to have the runway environment in view
477
What is the distinction between Instrument Landing System (ILS) categories? (2)
1. Difference in Decision Heights
| 2. Visibility Requirements
478
How is the current landing visibility determined? (2)
1. Runway Visual Range
| 2. Trained observers
479
What are the 4 items of a Category I Instrument Landing System (ILS)
1. Outer Marker
2. Middle Marker
3. Localizer
4. Glide Slope
480
For category II and III Instrument Landing System (ILS), can the decision height be higher or lower than 200' when located at the Inner Marker?
Lower
481
What is the most stringent and precise Instrument Landing System (ILS) ?
Category III C
482
What is special about a category III C Instrument Landing System (ILS) ?
It allows a properly equipped aircraft and certified pilot to land in 0 visibility
483
Category II and III Instrument Landing System (ILS) require what items/equipment (6)
1. Outer Marker
2. Middle Marker
3. Inner Marker
4. Localizer
5. Glide Slope
6. Runway Visual Range
484
What is the name of the older type of Runway Visual Range equipment (RVR)
Transmissometer
485
How far apart are the two devices of the transmissometer work? (2)
1) at least 500'
| 2) 250' feet apart on either side of the runway outside the safety area
486
Runway Visual Range (RVR) transmissometer equipment measures readings from _____ to _____
600 - 3000 RVR
487
What increments does a Runway Visual Range (RVR) transmissometer read?
200' increments
488
What new systems are replacing the old transmissometers?
Scatter-effect RVR System
489
What are the benefits of scatter-effect RVR systems over the old transmissometers?
1. Lower maintenance costs
2. Eliminate steel structures on the airport
3. RVR readings as low as 0'
490
What increment does a scatter effect RVR report in? (3)
1. 100' increments up to 800'
2. 200' increments from 800' - 3,000'
3. 500' increments from 3,000' - 6,500'
491
How many RVRs are required per runway for Cat I, II, III
Cat I: 1 RVR
| Cat II, III: 2-3 RVRs depending on visibility minimums
492
Where would the three RVRs for a Cat II, III runway be located?
1. Touchdown point
2. Rollout Point
3. Midpoint of runway (if necessary)
493
Which categories of Instrument Landing System (ILS) require a Runway visual range?
Category II and Category III
494
If a category I Instrument Landing System (ILS) has a Runway Visual Range (RVR) where is it located?
At the midpoint of the runway
495
Landside planning takes into account what?
The number of users who arrive and depart from the airport using various ground transportation modes
496
What ground transportation modes are taken into account with landside planning? (6)
1. Private Car
2. Courtesy Car
3. Limo
4. Taxi
5. Public Rail
6. Public Busing
497
This is determined by the type and volume of ground vehicular traffic anticipated in the peak time on the design day
Curb Length
498
At some airports, a third-level terminal is used to segregate international arriving passengers to a separate level of the concourse/terminal facility, to keep them separate from domestic passengers until they are processed through the ______________
Federal Inspection Services
499
Curb length is determined by the type of ground vehicular traffic anticipated in the _____________ on the _____________
Peak Time
| Design Day
500
What is the typical curb length for
1. Cars
2. Taxis
3. Limos
4. Public Buses
Cars - 25'
Taxis - 20'
Limos -30'
Buses - 50'
501
How long are dwell times at the arrival lane and departure lane?
Arrival: 1-2 min
Departure: 2-4 Min
502
How long are dwell times in the public transportation line?
5-15 minutes
503
Curb length is determined by what in the peak time on the design day? (2)
1. Type
2. Volume
of ground vehicular traffic
504
How many vehicles should an outer access road be able to accomodate?
1200-1600 vehicles/hr/lane
505
Just outside the terminal building, how many vehicles can be accomodated?
600-900 vehicles/hr/lane
506
What percent of the individual parking at an airport is considered short term parking?
80%
507
Typically what is closer to the terminal, short term parking or long term parking?
Short Term Parking
508
Typically what has the longest dwell time, public transportation, arrivals, or departures
Public Transportation
509
How many park spaces do you need for every 1 million originating passengers?
1,000 - 1,400
510
Typically what has the longest dwell time arrivals or departures
Departures
511
In the environmental sense, who is responsible for careful and thorough planning of airport facilities?
The Airport Operator
512
As the lead federal agency for airport projects, the FAA complies with ___________ for all federal actions
NEPA
513
With regards to environmental compliance with NEPA. The FAA is responsble for
1. Determining if an airport action is a categorical exclusion
2. reviewing environmental assessments prepared by the airport
3. Ensuring EA's meet FAA requirements
4. Preparing Environmental Impact Statements
514
The _____________ includes all efforts to comply with NEPA and other federal environmental laws, regs, executive orders, and DOT orders that may apply to a proposed project
Environmental Review Process
515
What FAA order provides guidance for airport operators who are conducting development on airports with regards to environmental considerations
FAA Order 5050.4B National Environmental Policy Act: Implementing Instructions for Airport Projects
516
What law requires the preparation of environment of environmental statements for all major federal airport development actions that significantly affect the quality of the environment
Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970
517
Who is in charge of determining if an airport action is a Categorical Exclusion?
The FAA
518
Who is in charge of preparing an Environmental Assessment
The Airport operator and its consultants
519
Who is in charge of preparing an Environmental Impact Statement
The FAA
520
What FAA office oversees actions that affect the environment
FAA Office of Airports
521
What are the FAA's responsibilities with regards to an Environmental Assessment
1. Reviewing the environmental assessment
| 2. Ensuring the EA meets FAA requirements
522
The current Runway Safety Area (RSA) standards are based on what percent of overuns being contained?
90%
523
What is bigger, Runway Safety Areas (RSA) or Taxiway Safety Areas (TSA)
RSA
524
The Runway Safety Area (RSA) is a defined area of a runway and the surrounding surfaces that are prepared for ___________
Reducing risk of damage to aircraft
525
Runway Safety Areas reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft in the event of (4)
1. Undershoot
2. Overshoot
3. Excursion from the runway
4. Unintentional Departure from the runway
526
A Runway Safety Area (RSA) includes what elements adjacent to a runway? (4)
1. Structural Pavement
2. Shoulders
3. Blast Pads
4. Stopways
527
The _____________ begins and ends with the intermodal connections to the community that surround the airport
Access Interface
528
The access interface includes what entities (6)
1. Curb Frontage for unloading passengers
2. Parking
3. Public Transit
4. Taxi and Limo Services
5. Pedestrian Walkways
6. Service Roads for fire lanes that provide access for maintenance/vendors/air freight etc.
529
Socioeconomic factors in the Airport Master Plan include ____________? (9)
1. Demography
2. Disposable personnel per capita income
3. Economic Activity
4. Status of Industries
5. Geographic Factors
6. Competitive Position
7. Sociological Factors
8. Political Factors
9. Community Values
530
What is the number one factor in locating an ARFF facility?
Lowering Emergency Response Times
531
What are the factors for determining ARFF location (7)
1. Efficient Utilization of firefighting personnel
2. Direct access to the airfield and terminal areas
3. Non-interference what ATC line of sight or NAVAID interference
4. Maximum surveillance of the airfield
5. Compliance with Building Restriction Lines
6. Availability of utilities
7. Personnel Access
532
For operating and cost efficiencies sometimes ARFF's share their facility with (2)
1. Snow Removal Equipment
| 2. Structural Fire Equipment
533
If dual functions occur at an ARFF facility, what does the FAA still recommend
Having the ARFF vehicle room separate from the other facilities
534
Why does the FAA prefer having a separate vehicle room from other facilities in a shared facility? (2)
1. Avoid emergency vehicle delays
| 2. Operational conflicts (ensures accountability of fed $)
535
The basic requirements for a Snow Removal Equipment (SRE) building is what? (3)
1. Provide a warm, sheltered area for equipment repair/service
2. Protect equipment from moisture, contaminants
3. Provide centralized facility for airport maintenance personnel
536
Where is an Snow Removal Equipment (SRE) building typically located?
Where access to the Airport Operational Area (AOA) is direct and convenient
537
What are some factors in siting a Snow Removal Equipment (SRE) building (5)
1. How will employees and service vehicles gain access without compromising security or crossing RWYs and TWYs
2. Avoid interference with airport fire lane
3. Avoid Aircraft Operational Areas
4. Building Restriction Lines
5. ATCT visibility or Navaid operation
538
An inner approach obstacle free zone and inner transitional obstacle free zone exists for runways having ____________ or __________
1. An approach lighting system
| 2. Visibility minimums less than 3/4 mile
539
A pilot in command must be familiar with which items by using the Airport Facility Directory? (3)
1. Runway Lengths
2. Airport Elevation
3. Runway Slope
540
The Airport Facility Directory links the ______________ and the ________________________?
The actions of the airport operator
| conditions of the airport
541
Detailed information regarding requirements of the reporting program for the Airport Data Record can be found in what AC?
AC 150/5300-19 Airport data and Information Program
542
Once the 5010 form is updated, what temporary item can be canceled?
NOTAM
543
To update the Airport Facility Directory, what item is filled out?
The Airport Data Record 5010 form
544
If a runway has an approach lighting system or visibility minimums lower than 3/4 miles, what must be designated? (2)
1. Inner approach OFZ
| 2. Inner Transitional OFZ
545
What does the Airport operator fill out that the FAA uses to update the Airport Facility Directory?
The Airport Data Record 5010 Form
546
Airports can be classified by dominant type of passenger traffic. What are they called? (3)
1. Origination/destination
2. Transfer
3. Through
547
At an Origination/destination airport, what % or passengers begin or end their travel at the airport?
70-90%
548
Typically at a transfer airport, what % of enplaned passengers are transferring from one flight to another?
>50%
549
What kind of airport has a relatively high amount of originating passengers and a relatively low percentage of originating flights?
Through Airports
550
What kind of airport involve a high percentage of local passengers and turnaround flights?
Origination/destination
551
Airports where airlines conduct hub operations are frequently considered what kind of airport?
Transfer Airports
552
Because a large percentage of passengers remain on the aircraft at a through airport the _______ for amenities is _______ than other types of airports
Demand
| Less
553
A transfer airport typically has ground servicing times that average ________ to ________
30 - 60 minutes
554
What is the typical aircraft turnover rate at a transfer airport?
1.3-1.5 aircraft / gate /hr
555
Which type of airport will have significant space requirements for ticket counters, curb length, parking spaces, and all elements of the passenger processing system?
Origination/destination
556
Which type of airport has less landside ground transportation, lower requirement for curb frontage, less need for airline counter positions and baggage check in, and smaller baggage claim areas?
Transfer Airports
557
Which type of airport tends to have short aircraft ground times in order to minimize delay?
Through Airports
558
Which kind of airport has lower levels of activity, parking, curb, gate hold rooms, and have fewer space requirements?
Through Airports
559
Which kind of airport requires more space for inter/intraline baggage, more concessions, and increased need for centralized security?
Transfer Airports
560
What is the turnaround time at the gate for an Origination/destination airport?
1-3 Operations/Hr/Gate
561
Aircraft mix refer to the different ______, _____, _____ of aircraft
Sizes, Types, Styles
562
Terminals serving wide body aircraft need the ability to accommodate _____________
Large Passenger Surges
563
What shape is a runway protection zone (RPZ)?
Trapezoidal
564
What is the purpose of a runway protection zone (RPZ)?
To enhance protection of people and property on the ground
565
Must the runway protection zone (RPZ) be owned by the airport?
No. It must be under the control of the airport through ownership of easement
566
How far from the end of the runway does the RPZ begin?
200' from the end of a runway area that is usable for takeoff or landing
567
What type of ownership does the FAA suggest for a runway protection zone (RPZ)?
Fee simple ownership
568
What does the size of the runway protection zone (RPZ) vary with?
1. Design Aircraft
| 2. Visibility Minimums
569
What is the length of the runway protection zone (RPZ)?
1,000 -2,500'
570
List the phases of the master plan?
1. Pre planning
2. Public Involvement
3. Environmental Considerations
4. Existing Conditions
5. Aviation Forecast
6. Facility Requirements
7. Alternatives to development
8. Facilities Implementation Plan
9. Financial Feasibility Analysis
571
What does an ASOS report that is more than an AWOS?
1. Temperature
2. Dew Point
3. Present Weather
4. Sea-Level Pressure
572
Where is the ASOS typically located on an airport?
Near the touchdown zone of the primary instrument runway
573
What are the 3 components of a terminal system?
1. Access Interface
2. Passenger Processing
3. Flight Interface
574
This terminal component includes the concourses and connections to the other concourses to accommodate transferring passengers, departure lounge areas, etc.
Flight Interface
575
This terminal component includes areas the passengers typically don't see such as baggage sorting areas, underneath the terminal building, airport admin offices, etc.
Passenger Processing System
576
Which terminal component includes vendor storage space to maintain stock for concessionaires?
Flight Interface
577
This terminal component begins and ends with the intermodal connections to the community that surround the airport
Access Interface
578
This terminal component includes airline ticket counters, baggage claim areas, flight display screens, concessions, and public lobbys
Passenger Processing
579
This terminal component includes service roads and fire lanes to provide access for airport maintenance, vendor deliveries, and airfreight
Access Interface
580
The security-screening checkpoint is in what terminal component?
Passenger Processing
581
In essence what is included in the flight interface? (3)
1. Concourses
2. Departure Lounges
3. Jet Bridges
582
Is VOR greatly affected by atmospheric interference or terrain?
No
583
Is VOR restricted to visual line of sight
Yes
584
What type of approach is a VOR on an airport typically used for
Instrument Approach
585
Terminal VORs typically have how large of a range?
25 NM
586
What is the typical radius protection zone for a terminal VOR?
750' - 1000' radius
587
Airfield Capacity is affected by a number of airfield characteristics such as (9)
1. Runway length
2. Runway configuration
3. Distribution of arrivals vs departures
4. Fleet mix
5. Share of touch-and -go
6. Location and type of exit taxiways
7. Types of NAVAIDS
8. Availability of Radar Coverage
9. Weather Conditions
588
If parallel runways have a minimum spacing of 2,500' what is allowed under VMC and IMC?
Simultaneous departure and arrival conditions
589
At what spacing can runways operate completely independent of each other?
4,300'
590
Do staggered thresholds increase or decrease capacity for simultaneous operations?
It depends on where the arriving aircraft is approach the near or far runway threshold
591
A single runway can handle how many operations annually?
200,000
592
What affects gate capacity? (3)
1. Gate Type/size
2. Gate Mix
3. Gate Occupancy Time
593
If Gary airport applies for a grant for a 2nd runway because operations warrant it, what will the FAA want to confirm?
That their landside facilities and terminal can also accommodate the increased traffic
594
What does Gate Mix mean?
Percentage of wide versus non-wide bodied jets
595
What does gate occupancy time mean?
Length of time it takes to cycle an aircraft through the gate
596
What are the 4 traffic management initiatives used to limit the volume of traffic into an airport or airspace?
1. Mile in trail
2. Minute in Trail
3. Ground Delay
4. Ground Stop
597
What governs the capacity and delay characteristics of an airport? (4)
1. Aircraft separation rules
2. Runway occupancy
3. Spacing of arrivals/departures
4. Use of Parallel or converging runways
598
What is the name of the software packages that assist the management of aircraft traffic at and around airports?
Traffic Management Systems
599
What are the two least disruptive , but also least accurate traffic management initiative?
1. Minute in Trail
| 2. Mile in Trail
600
If airport traffic is expected to approach capacity at an airport, _____________ are the primary tools for limiting the number of arrivals
Ground Delay Programs
601
What traffic management tool is a last resort because it holds aircraft on the ground for varying periods?
Ground Stop
602
___________ Is designed to match the arrival of aircraft to the ability of the airport to handle that volume
Metering
603
________ is the volume an airport is able to handle
Acceptance Rate
604
What two ways typically satisfy metering?
1. Adjusting flight path
| 2. Adjusting Speed
605
Traffic reroutes are typically used for what two reasons?
1. Avoid Weather
| 2. Push traffic to an instrument approach runway with more capacity
606
Separation standards due to heavy jets can be from 4-8 minutes to avoid the leading aircraft's ________
Wake
607
__________ entails specifying the exact order in which aircraft takeoff or land
Sequencing
608
Sequencing takes into account what four things?
1. Operational Safety
2. Uniformity of Traffic Flow
3. Efficiency of Runway Use
4. Weather conditions
609
______ Involves establishing and maintaining the appropriate interval between successive aircraft
Spacing
610
Airports must appoint an individual as the _____________ to ensure appropriate procedures are carried out in the event of a hazardous waste emergency
Emergency Coordinator
611
What document is drafted to reduce or eliminate oil discharges to navigable waters of the United States?
Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasures Plan
612
A spill plan includes what information? (2)
1. Points of contact in the event of a spill
| 2. Facility layout and location of spill items such as drainage, treatment, storage
613
Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasures Plan (SPCC) include what? (4)
1. training of personnel in handling a spill
2. security
3. spill reporting procedures
4. container specific information
614
What is a non emergency spill considered?
One in which the spill does not reach the storm water system
615
Any release of hazardous substances in quantities equal or greater than their specified reportable quantities must be immediately reported to whom?
National Response Center
616
Who is the primary communications center for reporting major chemical and oil spills and other hazardous substances into the environment?
National Response Center
617
The FAA has several options in mitigating an object penetrating a runway threshold siting requirement or approach slope surface (4)
1. Relocating a threshold
2. Asking the airport operator to remove the object
3. Raising approach minimums
4. Raising the aircraft minimum descent altitude for the area
618
Airport terminal facilities are planned on the basis of ___________
Activity Forecasts
619
What annual forecast information do planners use to plan a terminal? (3)
1. Passenger Enplanements
2. Passenger Originations
3. Aircraft Movements (by size)
620
To get annual forecasts for terminal sizing sources for that information are found where? (4)
1. Current Airport Master Plan
2. FAA Published Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF)
3. Forecasts Developed by Airlines 4 America
4. Forecasts developed by the airlines serving that airport
621
For air carrier airports what are the two key factors in airport terminal design?
1. Annual Passenger Volume
| 2. Peak Hourly Demand
622
The heaviest concentrations at certain times of the day are know as the ______________
Peak Hour Demand
623
Is the Peak Hour Demand a clock hour?
No it is the peak hour activity based on an elapsed hour
624
The peak hour may occur at different times for what 3 options
1. Enplaning
2. Deplaning
3. Total
625
__________ are derived from projections of passenger forecasts which determine the duration and use of parking and curb frontage
Peak Hour Vehicle Volumes
626
What is used to determine the preliminary size of the terminal building?
The Annual Passenger Volume
627
For terminal design, what factor is used?
Peak Hour Demand
628
How do you relate Annual Passenger Volume to Peak Hourly Volume?
The peak hourly volume is usually 3-5% of the annual passenger volume
629
Where is the unit terminal typically found?
At high capacity airports
630
When multiple airlines share a common building the concept is known as
Combined-unit terminal buildings
631
When separate buildings were constructed for each airline with each building becoming its own unit terminal that concept is known as _________
Multiple Unit Terminal
632
Centralized terminal process is what?
Where all passenger processing is conducted in one building
633
What is a decentralized terminal process? (3)
1. Passenger processing is separated into multiple buildings
2. Certain processes are in one facility and aircraft loading in a separate facility
3. Separating linear terminal buildings connected by landside circulation roads through an Automated People Mover
634
What happens with an Environmental Assessment if the implementing or reviewing agency believes the environmental impacts won't be significant
Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI)
635
The FAA can issue a ________ when the ______ indicates that the selected alternative would not cause any significant environmental consequences
FONSI
| Environmental Assessment
636
The issuance of a FONSI may be dependent upon what?
The Airport sponsor taking certain mitigation actions
637
Another option is if the proposed mitigation actions involve certain elements, such as when an action is similar to one normally requiring an EIS, an action without precedent, actions redefined to include mitigation necessary to reduce potential significant impacts below significance thresholds, or actions that are highly controversial, the FAA may issue a FONSI with a __________
Record of Decision
638
Record of Decisions are linked with ________ for _________
FONSI
| Environmental Assessments
639
If a FONSI is not given does that mean an EIS is automaticall triggered?
No
640
Can a FONSI be given with a Record of Decision
Yes
641
Are FONSI issued with CATEX?
No, with Environmetnal Assessments
642
Can FONSI's be conditional?
Yes with the sponsor taking certain mitigating actions
643
What happens if an airport no longer needs airport land for aeronautical purposes? (2)
They may request that the FAA release the land for
1. Sale
2. Long-term lease for non aeronautical uses
644
Is releasing property typically a CATEX, EA, or EIS?
Catex
645
If releasing a property does not receive a Categorical Exclusion it may require an __________ in accordance with the provisions of FAA Order ______
Environmental Assessment
| 5050.4B
646
_____________ are treated similarly to sales of land with regard to environmental requirements
Long Term Leases
647
What agency established National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
EPA
648
What does compliance with National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) mean?
Ambient outdoor levels of these air pollutants are safe for human health and the environment
649
Who is responsible for designating areas that are attainment, nonattainment, and maintenance for each air pollutant?
States
650
What percent of airports are located in nonattainment areas?
25%
651
Airports are responsible for what % of emissions in some areas?
10%
652
Through National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) the airport must conform to what?
State Implementation Plans
653
What is part of a State Implementation Plan?
Conducting an inventory of all airport emission sources.
654
To obtain regulatory approval for air quality in non attainment areas, airports must what? (2)
1. Show that growth will conform to air quality plans for the region and
2. That enforceable programs will be established to offset increases in pollution
655
What does Voluntary Airport Low Emissions (VALE) allow airports to receive?
Credits for emission reductions that can be used for development projects to comply with clean air acts.
656
What percent of the earth is freshwater?
3%
657
What percent of water is available for human use?
1%
658
Contamination of surface and groundwater occurs when what happens?
Precipitation leaches pollutants from products or waste on the surface
659
What is the best way to protect groundwater?
To prevent contaminants from reaching the critical acquifer
660
________ discharge often represents the most prolific source of water pollution at airports.
Storm Water
661
A ____________ are the only people allowed to apply pesticides and fungicides
Certified Applicator
662
________ are areas of land saturated by surface or ground water.
Wetlands
663
What law established the stormwater regulatory program
Clean Water Act of 1987
664
What permitting program regulates discharges of potentially conatminated wastewater into waters of the US?
National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
665
_________ is the means for regulatory compliance for point source discharges at airports
National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
666
To receive a National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit, an airport operator must have what?
Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP)
667
What does a Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP) require an airport manager to do? (3)
1. Monitor all discharges
2. Maintain records
3. Make reports of unusual discharges
668
What is a Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP) designed to do? (2)
1. Identify and evaluate sources of pollutants associated with industrial activities that may affect the quality of storm water discharges
2. Identify and implement best management practices to reduce or prevent pollutants associated with industrial activities
669
Non Point Source pollution results from ____________ rather than a specific single location? (3)
1. Land Runoff
2. Precipitation
3. Seepage into a body of water
670
Non point source pollution is commonly associated with runoff from _________
agriculture
671
What are the 4 types of storm water permits?
1. General
2. Individual
3. Multi-sector
4. Construction
672
What are the 3 types of stormwater permits related to operations and facilities at an airport?
1. General
2. Individual
3. Multi-sector General
673
This stormwater permit relates to rehabilitiation or expansion activities that disturb 1 or more acres on an airport
Construction
674
Is a stormwater permit an eligible AIP cost?
Yes
675
What is the minimum amount of disturbed land to need an NPDES permit?
1 Acre
676
The SWPPP is used to implement __________
Best Management Practices (BMPs)
677
Can the EPA and states require tenants to be co-permitees for an NPDES permit?
yes
678
Best Management Practices (BMPs) emphasize _______ over ________ and are generally more cost effective
1. Prevention
| 2. Treatment
679
What are a list of Best Management Practices (BMPs) for stormwater management? (6)
1. Good Housekeeping
2. Inspections
3. Preventative Maintenance
4. Spill Prevention and Response
5. Personnel Training and Awareness
6. Record Keeping and Internal Reporting
680
To fulfill Best Management Practices (BMPs) for stormwater permits, how often should inspections occur?
2 inspections per week on days the facility is staffed
681
What is good housekeeping with regards to Best Management Practices (BMPs)
Keeping work and floor areas cleaning, storing materials correctly, etc.
682
Best Management Practices (BMPs) procedures should consider __________ of products used on airfield and what those products effect on health and environment may be.
Safety Data Sheets
