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Module 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The national plan of Integrated Airport Systems identifies how many airports that are considered significant to the national airspace system?

A

3,400

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2
Q

What type of plan recommends the general location and characteristics of new airports and the nature of development and expansion of existing ones.

A

Metro Airport System Planning (MASP)… MASP has big public input, is to understand the interrelationship of the airports within a specific region.
Accounts for intermodal access, provides ideas, similar to master plan.

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3
Q

FAA believes that and airport should

A

Be safe and efficient,
affordable: be self sufficient,
Flexible: be able to accommodate new aircraft types,
Permanent: remain open
Extensive: no more than 20 miles from NPIAS airport.
Contribute: to local economy

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4
Q

State & Metropolitan Airport Planning System

A

Designed to provide information and guidance, to provide balanced and integrated air transportation system.

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5
Q

MASP

A

Primary purposes is to understand the interrelationship of the airports within a specific region

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6
Q

Airport master plan

A

Study that identifies short, medium, and longer term development plans to meet future aviation demand. Provides a strategy for the development of the airport.

Provides a framework to guide that is cost effective, satisfies the need of the airport, the market and the community, while balancing environmental and socioeconomic impact.

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7
Q

ALP

A

An appropriate alternative to a full master plan, whenever the fundamental assumptions of the previous master plan have not changed. Otherwise done as part of the master plan.

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8
Q

ALP update (only)

A 
A mini master plan
ALP narrative report:
Forecasts,
Proposed developments,
Rationale narrative for unusual design,
Layout sketches.
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9
Q

Work products of an ALP

A 
Technical report (all of the data),
Summary report,
ALP,
Web page,
Public Information Kit
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10
Q

Steps of a master plan

A
  1. Preplanning
  2. Public involvement
  3. Environmental considerations
  4. Existing conditions
  5. Aviation forecasts
  6. Facility requirements
  7. Alternatives
  8. ALP
  9. Facilities implementation plan
  10. Financial feasibility analysis.
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11
Q

What is the Brooke’s Act?

A

Requires the the selection of a consultant to be based on qualifications according to a fair and open selection process.

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12
Q

Consultant Contract Options. What is preferable to FAA?

A

Fixed priced arrangement (minimum admin burden)

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13
Q

Type of contract if level of effort or duration of a project is uncertain

A

A cost plus fixed fee contract, or a time and materials contract ( typically done where there are big environmental issues)

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14
Q

Which step in the master plan focus on historical review of the airport and its facilities, airspace, structures, etc?

A

Existing conditions

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15
Q

Which relates to the public’s ability to use air travel?

A

Demographics

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16
Q

This type of GA airport serves regional airport

A

Local GA airport.

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17
Q

What document must be up to date in order to receive federal funding?

A

ALP

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18
Q

An airport executive needs to find out the airports plan for leasing areas on the airport’ should look to:

A

Airport land use drawing

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19
Q

On which ALP sheet can I find info on when and how specific parcels of airport property were acquired?

A

Exhibit A aka airport property map.

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20
Q

Airport excutive needs to find out the airport’s pand for leasing areas on the airport, where would he go to?

A

Airport Land Use drawing

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21
Q

Which ALP sheet can I find out when and how specific parcels of airport preperty were aquired?

A

Property Map aka Exhibit A

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22
Q

What is an example of a ‘formal’ response to an environmental violation?

A

Administrative responses carrying the weight of legal orders to comply

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23
Q

Waht did the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act do>

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, created a
two-tier system for waste management by categorizing hazardous
wastes and details regulations for the transport, storage and
disposal facilities – most significantly, it requires that hazardous
wastes are tracked from cradle to grave.

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24
Q

The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Control

Act of 1972

A

(FIFRA), protects ground water while using pesticides

and fungicides.

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25
Clean Air Act of 1970 required the EPA to
identify pollutants and set National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and requires states to develop State Implementation Plans (SIP).
26
the master plan will include the | following elements: (
1) pre-planning, (2) public involvement, (3) environmental considerations, (4) existing conditions, (5) aviation forecasts, (6) facility requirements, (7) alternatives to development and evaluation, (8) Airport Layout Plans (9) a facilities implementation plan, and (10) a financial feasibility analysis.
27
regarding Master Plan
After consultant selection, the creation of a public involvement (i.e., “outreach”) program is the first step in a master plan study. Throughout the master plan process, the public involvement program shares information and collaborates on decision-making. The public involvement program should include elected and appointed officials, residents, travelers, tenants and members of the general public. Collectively, this group is known as the stakeholders.
28
Regarding Master Plan
After the organizational and preplanning phase, an inventory of pertinent data is made. The first step is to collect all types of data pertaining to the airport service area. This step includes a historical review of the airport and its facilities, airspace structures and navigation aids (navaids), airport-related land use, aeronautical activity, and socioeconomic factors.
29
The | most common forecast techniques include:
1. Regression Analysis – a statistical technique tying aviation demand to enplanements, population and income levels. 2. Trend Analysis and Extrapolation – uses the historical pattern of aviation activity to project future trends. 3. Market Share Analysis – assumes a top-down relationship between national, regional, state and local forecasts where local forecasts represent a market share or percentage of national forecasts. 4. Smoothing – a statistical technique applied to historical data focused more on the recent trends and conditions at the airport.
30
the evaluation of peak hour demand is often based on
the peak hour of the average day of the peak month.
31
The airport layout plan is required to include
(1) the Airport Layout Drawing (known as the ALP sheet), (2) The Airport Airspace Drawing, (3) the Inner Portion of the Approach Surface Drawing, (4) the Terminal Area Drawing, (5) the Land Use Drawing, (6) the Runway Departure Surfaces Drawing, and (7) the Airport Property Map (usually referred to as the Exhibit A).
32
on-airport and off-airport land use drawings | depict
existing and recommended uses of all land within the ultimate airport property line and within the vicinity of the airport, at least to the 65 DNL noise contour.
33
The feasibility analysis
includes the preparation of a CIP funding plan, a review of the airport’s financial structure with recognition of certain constraints, such as bond, airline-use agreements, leases, and an analysis of historical cash flow.
34
Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR)
has a longer range (100-250 nautical miles) and is used for en route flight separation and identification.
35
Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)
is a shortrange radar system used by air traffic controllers to augment and confirm information and vehicle position reporting
36
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM)
is a high-update radar coupled with a high resolution ATC display that allows more accurate tracking of inbound aircraft, so much so that aircraft in IMC can fly closer than 4,300-feet (but not less than 3,000-feet) into two parallel runways.
37
For naviagation to be function it needs
Integrity, accuracy, availability, reliability
38
The most useful sources for terminal design information are:
(1) the current airport master plan, (2) the FAA published terminal area forecasts, (3) forecasts developed by Airlines for America (A4A), and (4) those forecasts developed by the individual airlines serving the airport.
39
Typically the peak month is
10 percent of | annual activity
40
The peak-month | enplanements are then divided by the
number of days in the peak month to arrive at the Average Day/Peak Month (ADPM) baseline
41
Through airports have a relatively
high percentage of originating | passengers combined with a low percentage of originating flights.
42
Short-term parking is normally | considered to be less than three hours and represents
approximately 80 percent of all parking at the airport
43
Key heliport design considerations include the
Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) and the Final Approach | and Takeoff Area (FATO).
44
Airport sponsors, in consultation with planners and environmental specialists, consider environmental factors for proposed airport development projects, and identify obvious, protected resources such as:
a. Endangered species b. Historic properties c. Wetlands d. Parkland
45
Environmental audits may be performed for | a number of reasons, such as
(1) determining the baseline environmental conditions of a facility or operation, (2) determining the potential environmental liabilities of a property before making an acquisition decision or before initiating condemnation proceedings, (3) identifying potential problems that could stop or delay a construction program, resulting in potential schedule and budget overruns, and (4) identifying tenant problems and ensuring correction of any non-complying conditions.
46
There are three basic factors that are likely to determine whether a given public or private employee is personally liable
(1) ability to make timely discovery of the problem, (2) power to direct the activities of persons who control the mechanisms causing the problem, and (3) ability to prevent and abate the damage.
47
An EMS is a
business management practice that serves as a strategic plan for addressing environmental matters.
48
Clean Air Act of 1970
required the EPA to identify pollutants and set National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and requires states to develop State Implementation Plans (SIP).
49
The Clean Water Act of 1977(CWA)
a
50
Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP).
Four types of storm water permit applications exist: (1) general, (2) individual, (3) multi-sector general, and (4) construction.
51
omprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, | and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)
is generally known as the | “Superfund.”
52
Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 | SARA
``` purpose of CERCLA and SARA is to provide authorities the means to respond to uncontrolled releases of hazardous substances from inactive sites that endanger public health and the environment. ```
53
SARA Title III created the
Emergency Planning and Community Right-to- Know Act (EPCRA), a statute designed to improve community access to information about chemical hazards and to facilitate the development of chemical emergency response plans EPCRA requires anyone who manufactures, processes, stores, or uses hazardous chemicals to report the information to appropriate state and local officials.
54
In 1986, Congress created the
Leaking Underground Storage Tank (LUST) Trust Fund to address releases from federally regulated underground storage tanks (USTs)
55
Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA), and the Federal Water | Pollution, Prevention, and Control Act of 1994 were
established to restore and protect the nation’s rivers and lakes to safe conditions for wildlife and humans. OPA requires various facilities and airports to make provisions for Spill Prevention, Control and Countermeasure Plans (SPCC Plans), and provisions that affect Facility Response Plans (FRPs).
56
LEED | is a certification process that
verifies a building or other infrastructure meets stringent environmentally safe building and related performance measures.
57
1987 Airport and Airway Safety and | Capacity Expansion Act (ACEA)
funding priority was given to airport projects that focused on enhancing safety and sustaining an airport’s overall capacity to handle aircraft and ground operations. The ACEA reauthorization of AIP funds also focused on objectives to increase the capacity of the airport and airway system.
58
When performing a capacity analysis
airport operators must investigate four distinct elements: (1) airspace, (2) airfield, (3) terminal, and (4) ground access. These are further broken down into the major system components of runways, taxiways, aprons, gate/terminal area, terminal/curbside interface, vehicle circulation and parking areas, and the access roadway
59
Throughput capacity
is defined as the rate at which aircraft can operate into or out of the airfield without regard to the amount of delay incurred
60
Practical | capacity is the rate at which aircraft can
operate without exceeding | a maximum acceptable level of delay.
61
PHOCAP is the
total combined capacity | measure of the runway, taxiway, and gate areas.
62
PANCAP is defined as the level of operation that results in
not more than four minutes average delay per aircraft in a normal, peak two-hour operating period.
63
Airport Acceptance Rate | AAR
which is used by Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) to calculate the desired interval between successive arrival aircraft.
64
Air Traffic Operations Management System | (ATOMS) in which
FAA personnel record aircraft that are delayed 15 or more minutes by a specific cause (weather, terminal volume, center volume, closed runways or taxiways, and National Airspace System equipment interruptions).
65
second source of delay information is through the
Airline | Service Quality Performance (ASQP) data collection
66
Airport Safety and | Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA)
provided a basis for a great majority of noise abatement planning at airports. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 150, Airport Land Use Compatibility Planning, was adopted in January 1985 as a result of the ASNA.
67
Part 150 regulations govern the development and review of an | integrated plan to achieve noise control objectives by encouraging
compatible land uses in and around airports through the development of Noise Exposure Maps (NEM) and Noise Compatibility Programs (NCP).
68
With passage of the 1990 Airport Noise and Capacity Act (ANCA), a limit was placed on
the number of Stage 2 aircraft (over 75,000 pounds maximum takeoff weight (MTOW)) that were allowed to operate in the U.S. Stage 2 aircraft have engines that represent newer technology than Stage 1 aircraft, but the former still had unacceptable levels of noise generation.
69
In 1992, the Airport and Airway Safety, Capacity, Noise Improvement and Intermodal Transportation Act was passed. This Act required the FAA to study
the social, economic, and health effects of airport noise at the 65, 60, and 55 dB (decibels) DNL (Day-Night average Level) noise areas
70
the perceived | loudness
doubles for every increase of 10 decibels
71
An Integrated Noise Model (INM) is the standard
airport noise prediction model used by airports and involves a complex and detailed procedure for determining the DNL noise contour area for a specific mix of aircraft.
72
A popular tool for airports is the establishment of the
Airport Influence Area or Public Airport Disclosure Maps that reveal potentially noise-impacted areas to current boards and planning commissions3
73
viation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) | is the
principal law supporting federal efforts to identify and reduce noise issues involving land use around domestic civil airports.
74
Noise Exposure Map (NEM)
is designed to clearly identify an airport’s present and future noise patterns and the land uses, which are not compatible with the noise impacts. It serves as the standard reference for anyone proposing noise sensitive development in the vicinity of an airport39.
75
The second part of a complete Part 150 study is the
``` Noise Compatibility Plan (NCP). ```
76
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, created a
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, created atwo-tier system for waste management by categorizing hazardouswastes and details regulations for the transport, storage anddisposal facilities – most significantly, it requires that hazardouswastes are tracked from cradle to grave. Anyone who generates ortransports hazardous wastes, or who owns or operates a facility forthe storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous wastes, falls underthe RCRA.
77
in November 1976, the Secretary of Transportation and the Federal Aviation Administration adopted the
Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP).

Module 2 (4 decks)

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