module 3 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

The rTPA exclusion criteria are the ff, except:
A Pretreatment SBP>185, DBP>110
-B Major surgery at least 6 days previously
C. age <18
D. Current oral anticoagulation PT INR>1.7

A

B

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2
Q

Management of ICP in acute stroke

A

Mannitol: 0.5 - 2 g/kg/dose

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3
Q

T or F: Patients who are potential candidates for rtPA therapy but who have persistent elevations in SBP >185 mmHg or DBP > 100 mmHg may be treated with large doses of IV anti-hypertensive medication (apresaline/beta blockers)

A

F

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4
Q

A stuporous and moderately hemiparetic px has a Hunt and Hess grade for subacute hemorrhage of

A

4

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5
Q

BP value in permissive hypertension in px w/ ischemic stroke

A

160/100

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6
Q

An ischemic penumbra will have the ff, except:

  • Increase in K+ levels
  • marginal perfusion
  • Depleted ATP
  • increase in creatinine phosphate
A

D

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7
Q

Reduction of cerebral blood flow (CBF) below 10-12 ml/100g per minute leads to

A

Cerebral infarction

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8
Q

T or F: If there is involvement of lingual gyrus or the visual cortex of both sides, will you still have an intact pupillary light reflex

A

T

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9
Q

This structure is involved when the eyes look towards the side of the weakness w/ the lesion on the other side; also the final nuclei for gaze

A

paramedian pontine reticular formation

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10
Q

T or F: Horner syndrome can be seen in both posterior and anterior circulation stroke

A

F

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11
Q

This midbrain stroke syndrome presents with CN III palsy ipsilaterally and hemiplegia contralaterally

A

Weber Syndrome

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12
Q

This clinical term describes the occurrence of transient monocular or binocular visual loss due to retinal artery ischemia

A

Amaurosis fugax

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13
Q

This condition is characterized by a cluster of neurological abnormalities arising from the partial or complete severing or lesioning of the corpus callosum, the bundle of nerves that connects the right and left hemispheres of the brain.

A

Split-brain syndrome (callosal disconnection syndrome)

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14
Q

T or F: Embolization before microsurgical resection is thought to increase the complication rates associated with surgical excision of AVMs in eloquent brain areas

A

F

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15
Q

Definitive study for assessment of intracranial vascular malformations

A

Cerebral angiography

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16
Q

The ff are risk factors of ischemic stroke in children

  • RHF
  • TOF
  • child abuse
  • meningitis
A

AOTA

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17
Q

These are factors associated with successful AVM radiosurgery except:

  • Mean nidus diameter of 2 cm or less
  • Patient 12 years old or older
  • Nidus volume of 3.8 cm or less
  • Maximum diameter of the nidus less than 3 cm
A

B

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18
Q

This is a type of CNS vascular formation without an apparent arterial component and consists of a myriad of small tapering veins arranged in a radial fashion in the deep white matter.

A

Venous angioma

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19
Q

Pedia px w/ unprovoked cerebral sinovenous thrombosis has a therapy duration of

A

6 – 12 months with a target INR of 2 – 3

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20
Q

Current recommendation for early aspirin therapy for most px w/ TIA

A

160 to 325 mg/day

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21
Q

W/c drugs are the cornerstone of pill therapy in the secondary prevention of stroke

A

Antihypertensives and statin

22
Q

T or F: warfarin is indicated for embolic stroke px w/ valvular arrhythmia

23
Q

IV of choice for IV repletion and maintenance fluid therapy

A

Isotonic saline without dextrose (NSS)

24
Q

As part of acute stroke evaluation, px with suspected stroke should have the ff studies urgently except:

  • CBC w/ platelet
  • O2 sat
  • non-constrast CT
  • finger stick blood glucose
25
The goal for mean arterial pressure in ischemic stroke px is
110-130 mmHg
26
Clippable aneurysms except: - Giant aneurysm (>25 mm) - paraclinoid segment aneurysm - Blister-type aneurysm - Fusiform aneurysm
NOTA
27
The ff describe non-surgical px, except: - massive bleed of >60cc - alert w/ subtle signs of hemiparesis - has no brainstem fxn - <24 from onset of neuro degeneration
D
28
On WFNS grading, px with aphasia and GCS 11 is w/c grade?
4
29
On Spetzler-Martin grading, 6cm, accessible, non-eloquent, with cortical venous drainage is considered which grade?
Grade I-II
30
T or F: Stereotactic Radiosurgery is an administration of a very high dose of radiation to the nidus of the AVM inducing endovascular fibrosis
T
31
The ff are local complications of conventional angiography, except: hematoma at puncture site, infection at puncture site, cotton fiber embolus, arterial thrombus
Cotton fiber embolus
32
At what level of the spine is the end of conus medullaris seen?
Between L1 and L2
33
T or F: Intramedullary lesions enlarge the spinal cord and impinge on the thecal sac
F
34
Request for conventional angiography for the ff reasons except - equivocal CTA, MRA or/and carotid ultrasound - evaluation of vasculitis - If cardiac output is too low to produce a diagnostic CTA - evaluation of complex aneurysms or vascular malformations responsible for intracranial hemorrhage
NOTA
35
Delta sign on MR is specific for…
superior sagittal sinus thrombosis
36
Best diagnostic clue for holoprosencephaly
Monoventricle + fused/uncleaved frontal lobes (absent anterior midline falx/fissures
37
On MRI, this posterior fossa malformation shows schwannoma arising from the dorsal nerve roots, having a “dumbbell” configuration and may compress the spinal cord
Arnold-Chiari Malformation (Chiari II)
38
This is the most common neurologic symptom of microgyria
seizure
39
This central neurofibromatoses manifests with schwannoma arising from the dorsal nerve roots, what is its characteristic lesion
Vestibular/acoustic schwannoma (usually bilateral)
40
Most common phakomatoses presenting with Café au lait spots, axillary freckling, cutaneous neurofibromas, Lisch nodules
Von Recklinghausen
41
Which Brunnstrom stage will patients usually be seen walking
3
42
T or F: Most patients with non-dominant temporal lobe lesion have neglect and may ignore opposite side of the body
F
43
Among therapy systems for dev’t of motor control, which two mostly improve motor function
Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation and Neurodevelopmental treatment
44
This approach encourages development of flexor and extensor synergies during early phase of recovery, with the intention that synergic muscular activation, with training, will convert into voluntary muscular activation.
Brunnstrom Approach
45
This therapy uses guided or facilitated movements as a treatment strategy to ensure correlation of input from tactile, vestibular, and somatosensory receptors within the body
Neurodevelopmental Treatment (NDT)/Bobath
46
W/c of the ff neuronal systems are vulnerable in Alzheimer’s Dse: hippocampal circuits, basal forebrain cholinergic system, monoamine systems, limbic thalamocortical system
AOTA
47
NMDA glutamate antagonist and what drug are most commonly used for Alzheimer’s Disease
``` Acholinesterasee INH (rivastigmine, donepezil, galantamine) ```
48
T or F: If dementia presents before onset of movement disorder symptoms, it’s called Lewy Body Dementia, not Parkinson’s Disease
F
49
T or F: If dementia presents before onset of movement disorder symptoms, it’s called Lewy Body Dementia, not Parkinson’s Disease
NOTA
50
The main clinical criterion of Alzheimer’s Disease
Amnestic syndrome of the ‘hippocampal type’