Module 5 Flashcards

(24 cards)

1
Q

The nurse educator is asking a group of nursing students about the purpose of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone mechanism. The nurse educator knows that the students understand the purpose when they state?

A

The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone mechanism is a series of actions responsible for short and long-term management of blood pressure. You can remember this more easily if you remember that the medical terms for blood pressure abnormalities include hypotension and hypertension. The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone mechanism also includes a similar part of the words with -tensin.

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2
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with polycystic kidney disease. The nurse understands that this is:

A

Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is an inherited disorder in which clusters of cysts develop primarily within the kidneys, causing the kidneys to enlarge and lose function over time. Keep in mind these cysts are noncancerous. They are similar to other cysts in the body. The cysts are round sacs containing fluid.

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3
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who presented to the emergency department with symptoms of severe flank pain that is moving toward the pelvic area, urinary frequency, urinary urgency, nausea, and vomiting. The patient’s UA results indicate hematuria. The nurse understands that the most likely diagnosis is?

A

Renal calculi (renal stone, kidney stone) which is a crystalline structure that forms form components of the urine. The most common type of stone is calcium stones.

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4
Q

The nurse understands that a client with chronic renal failure must be placed into the correct stage of chronic renal failure as this affects the treatment recommendations. A client with a GFR of 20 would be identified as stage:

A

The client would be staged as having a severe reduction of renal function. The stages of renal failure are identified as follows:

Mild reduction of GFR to 60 to 89 mL/min/1.73 m2
Moderate reduction of GFR to 30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m2
Severe reduction in GFR to 15 to 29 mL/min/1.73 m2
Kidney failure with a GFR < 15 mL/min/1.73 m2, with a need for renal replacement therapy

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5
Q

The nurse understands that client education is very important to client care. In discussing chronic renal failure with a client what would the nurse include as potential causes?

A

Potential causes include hypertension, diabetes, polycystic kidney disease, obstructions of the urinary tract, glomerulonephritis, cancer, autoimmune disorders, disease of the heart/lungs, and chronic usage of pain medications.

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6
Q

A client with chronic renal failure has updated lab results that indicate a GFR of 10 mL/min/1.73 m2. The nurse understands that this is identified as renal failure and that the treatment for end-stage chronic renal failure that will prevent the build-up of waste in the body is?

A

The patient requires diaylasis to remove body wastes. If diaylasis is not preformed the client will not live because waste will build up in the body such as excess potassium which will result in cardiac arrest.

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7
Q

A client is being diagnosed with urinary incontinence which is the involuntary loss of urine. The nurse understands that the different types of urinary incontinence include:

A

*Stress incontinence: involuntary loss of urine from increased intra-abdominal pressure such as when coughing, sneezing, laughing or lifting objects.
*Urge incontinence: involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong desire to void (urgency).
*Overflow incontinence: involuntary loss of urine that occurs when the patient is unable to completely empty the bladder which leads to an overflow of urine, that then leaks out unexpectedly.
*Mixed incontinence: this is a combination of stress and urge incontinence.

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8
Q

Compare and contrast hypospadias and epispadias.

A

Hypospadias is the termination of the urethra opening in males on the ventral surface (bottom) of the penis. See figure A.
Epispadias is the termination of the urethra opening on the dorsal surface (top) of the penis. See figure B.

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9
Q

A male infant has been diagnosed with cryptorchidism. The nurse understands that this means the client:

A

This means the client has an undescended testicle. The testicle may be in the abdominal cavity, inguinal canal, or high scrotal area. The testes should have descended into the scrotum during the 7th to 9th month of gestation. If the testicle does not move into the scrotum by 3 months of age surgical treatment will be completed after the patient reaches 6 months.

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10
Q

An infant is 6 months old and cryptorchidism has persisted since birth. The parents have presented the child for a presurgical screening appointment. The parents ask the nurse why they cannot just leave the cosmetic problem of the testicle not being in the scrotum as it is rather than having surgery at this young age? What is the best response by the nurse?

A

The best response of the nurse is to educate the parents that this is not just a cosmetic issue. If the testicle is left in the incorrect location this can cause a sequelae of events with potential complications that include infertility, malignancy, psychological effects, and an approx 10 fold increase risk of testicular torsion.

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11
Q

A patient presents with sudden onset of severe pain rated 10/10 and testicular edema. The patient reports that he was running across the field in a football game and was inadvertently hit in the genital area. The nurse understands that the patient may have a diagnosis of _____________ which is a medical emergency and requires prompt treatment.

A

The client may have testicular torsion which is a twisting of the testicle. When the testicle rotates it will twist the spermatic cord and compress the vessels supplying blood. Surgical treatment is necessary or the testicle may not be salvageable. This could result in infertility.

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12
Q

A female client presents with symptoms of copious amounts of a green/yellow frothy malodorous discharge. The patient reports mild pruritus over the labia. The internal vaginal exam reveals an edematous cervix with strawberry spots. The most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms is?

A

The symptoms of this patient indicate a trichomoniasis infection. This is an anaerobic protozoan that feeds on the vaginal mucosa and ingests bacteria and leukocytes. This infection is typically treated with Flagyl unless there is a contraindication to this medication.

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13
Q

A male client presents with symptoms of dysuria and a dripping creamy yellow discharge from the urethra. What is the most likely STD that this patient has?

A

The symptoms of this patient align with gonorrhea. Most women are asymptomatic, however, when symptoms are present they could include pelvic pain, bleeding between periods, spotting after intercourse, and a yellow-white vaginal discharge.

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14
Q

A male client presents to the outpatient client with symptoms of testicular pain, dysuria, and a greyish faint yellow discharge from the urethra. The nurse knows that the most likely STD causing these symptoms is?

A

The nurse understands that these symptoms correlate with a chlamydia infection. This STD is frequently asymptomatic in both males and females.

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15
Q

A female client has recently been diagnosed with HPV. The client states that she is lucky because this is not the type of HPV that causes genital warts so she has nothing to worry about. How should the nurse respond to this statement?

A

Although, the HPV type you have contracted may not cause genital warts at this time the most serious complication of HPV is cancer. Cancer can result in areas that are infected with the HPV cells such as the cervix, oropharynx, anus, penis, vagina, and vulva. Cancerous cells on the cervix can be removed. You will need to maintain regular screening visits to check for precancerous and cancerous cells.

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16
Q

A client reports to the client with symptoms of painful blisters in the genital area. Some of these blisters have developed into ulcerations. The client reports that this happens periodically and she has had 3 occurrences of these blisters over the last 4 months. The nurse understands that the most likely diagnosis is?

A

The most likely diagnosis is HSV 2 (herpes simplex virus type 2, genital herpes). This virus will result in painful outbreaks of these blisters followed by periods of the patient appearing asymptomatic. The client can transmit this infection at all times not only during symptomatic outbreaks.

17
Q

HPV increases a female’s risk for

A

cervical cancer

18
Q

Undescended testicles place a client at risk for

A

infertility, malignancy, testicular torsion, and psychological effects

19
Q

Describe how a UTI will present differently in an elderly client compared to a young adult.

A

The elderly client may have symptoms of mental status changes compared to the dysuria, urinary frequency, and urinary urgency that the young adult may experience

20
Q

Symptoms of breast cancer include

A

a lump (mass), nipple discharge, dimpling of skin, changes in skin texture, and nipple retraction

21
Q

Brittle hair, hair loss, dry skin, and weight gain are all potential symptoms of this endocrine disorder

A

hypothyroidism

22
Q

Medication class found OTC that frequently results in GI ulcerations

23
Q

Symptoms of testicular torsion include

A

sudden, severe pain and swelling in the testicle