MODULE 8 Flashcards
1
Q
Determines Blood Type and Rh factor
A
Blood Bank: Blood Type and Screen
2
Q
Checks the compatibility between the donor’s and the recipient’s blood
A
Blood Bank: Cross-Match Test
3
Q
Determines the presence of infection, identifies the type or organism involved, and measures the extent of infection
A
Blood culture
4
Q
Evaluates the blood clotting function
A
Coagulation Test
5
Q
Screens for diabetes and other metabolic disorders
A
2-hour Postprandial Glucose
6
Q
Diagnoses problems in carbohydrate metabolism and checks the ability to metabolize glucose through the tolerance level
A
Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT) and Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
7
Q
Determines the lack of mucosal lactase which is responsible for conversion of lactose into glucose
A
Lactose Tolerance Test
8
Q
Verifies the probability that the patient fathered a particular child
A
Paternity/Parentage Testing
9
Q
Tests the drug levels at specific intervals to establish proper drug dosage and avoid toxicity
A
Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
10
Q
Treats polycythemia and hemochromatosis
A
Therapeutic Phlebotomy
11
Q
Checks the presence of toxins in the blood, hair, urine, and other substances
A
Toxicology Test
12
Q
Checks the presence of aluminum, arsenic, copper, lead, iron, and zinc
A
Trace Elements
13
Q
Highest priority where specimens must be collected immediately and delivered to the laboratory immediately
A
STAT Sample
14
Q
Average time for STAT Sample to complete
A
45 minutes to 1 hour
15
Q
Tests that exhibit a diurnal effect, where values in the patient vary throughout the day, are serum iron, corticosteroids, and other hormones.
A
Timed Sample
16
Q
Second or third priority
A
ASAP sample
17
Q
Average time for ASAP Sample to be collected
A
2 to 4 hours
18
Q
Collected in a reasonable time after being ordered but there is no urgency in getting the samples collected
A
Routine Sample
19
Q
Blood Bank specimen is collected in what type of tube?
A
Lavender or Pink top
20
Q
If there is no available lavender or pink EDTA for blood bank, what is the alternative tube to be used?
A
Red topped
21
Q
What are the rejected specimen/s for blood bank?
A
- not labeled
-grossly hemolyzed
-contain IV fluid - collected longer than 72 hours before testing
22
Q
test performed using the patient’s type and screen results to help select a donor unit of blood.
A
Cross match
23
Q
due to agglutination (clumping) and lysis (rupturing) of RBCs within a patient’s circulatory system.
A
Incompatibility
24
Q
True or false:
Donor Red Cells and Patient Plasma have no reaction is called compatible
A
True
25
True or false:
Donor red cells and patients plasma have antigen-antibody reaction is compatible
False
26
True or False
Donor red cells and patient plasma have antigen-antibody reaction is incompatible
True
27
What type: Agglutination in Anti-A
Type A
28
What type: Agglutination in Anti-B
Type B
29
What type: Agglutination in Anti-A and Anti-B
Type AB
30
What type: Agglutination in Anti-D
Positive
31
What type: No Agglutination in Anti-D
Negative
32
What type: No Agglutination
Type O
33
Blood group reagent for Anti-A
Blue
34
Blood group reagent Anti-B
Yellow
35
Blood group reagent for Anti-D
White
36
Does Blood Group O have Antigen?
No
37
On what vein donor units are normally collected?
Large antecubital vein
38
What additives are used for blood bags of blood donations?
Anticoagulant and CPD (Citrate Phosphate Dextrose)or CPDA1(CPD plus Adenine)
39
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Must be between 17-66 years old according to Philippine Red Cross
False. Must be 17-65 years old
40
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Between ages 17-66years old
41
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Have not donated for the past 8 weeks
True
42
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Have not donated for the past 6 weeks
False
43
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Hemoglobin for females 12.5g/dL
True
44
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Hemoglobin for Males- 13g/dL
False
45
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
No less then 37% hematocrit
False
46
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
No less than 38% for hematocrit
True
47
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Physical exam and medical history is not needed
False
48
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Weight for at least 50kg or 100lb
False
49
True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Weight for at least 110lb or 50kg
True
50
Hemoglobin of Females to be eligible for blood donation
12.5g/dL
51
Hemoglobin of Males to be eligible for blood donation
13g/dL
52
The tracing and testing of blood donors and recipients when a blood product has been determined to be potentially contaminated with a bloodborne pathogen.
Lookback Program
53
This can only occur when the blood service is made aware of the possibility of a transfusion-related infection.
Lookback Program
54
Process by which a person donates blood for his or her own use. This is done preoperatively for elective surgeries when it is anticipated that a transfusion may be needed.
Autologous Donation
55
True or false:
Eligibility of autologous donation
Hemoglobin of at least 11 g/dL or Hematocrit equal to or greater than 33%
True
56
True or false:
Eligibility of autologous donation
Minimum time between donation and surgery must be more than 48hours
False. Must be 72 hours
57
True or false:
Eligibility of autologous donation
If blood is not used during surgery, it must be stored back for the next use
False. Must be discarded because rules for autologous donation is less strict and does not meet safety standards
58
Medical procedure designed to recover blood lost during surgery to reinfuse it back into the patient
Cell Salvaging
59
A form of autologous blood transfusion
Cell Salvaging
60
Test that is recommended for cell salvaging prior to reinfusion
Residual-free hemoglobin
61
High level of hemoglobin indicates what in cell salvaging?
Too many RBC were destroyed during salvage process
62
What will happen if high level of hemoglobin and blood is reinfused?
Can result to renal dysfunction
63
Useful in assessing the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy once treatment is initiated.
Blood culture
64
Identify the type of organism responsible and the antibiotic to which it is most susceptible.
Blood cultures
65
if microorganisms multiply faster than the body can remove them
Blood infection
66
Bacteria in the blood
Bacteremia
67
microorganisms or their toxins in the blood
Septicemia
68
An overwhelming, unregulated response by the body to the blood infection that triggers inflammatory responses throughout the body that can lead to tissue damage, organ failure, and death
Sepsis
69
A life-threatening condition caused by bacteremia or septicemia.
Sepsis
70
Leading cause of death from infection
Sepsis
71
What are the symptoms for septicemia?
Fever
Chill
Malaise (feeling of discomfort or illness)
Low blood pressure
Changes in mental status
72
persistent fever with no obvious cause, has long been recognized as an indication of septicemia
Fever of unknown origin (FUO)
73
Most bacteremia is caused by?
Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
74
Effective antiseptic for blood culture
Tincture of iodine
Chlorohexidine gluconate
Povidine iodine
70% ethyl alcohol
75
Which is more effective to use?
Chlorohexidine or povidone-iodine
Chlorohexidine
76
What are the alternative antiseptics for blood culture?
Chlorhexidine gluconate in isopropyl alcohol
70% isopropyl alone
77
aerobic bottle is filled first because air in the tubing will be drawn into it before the blood.
Direct inoculation
78
anaerobic bottle is filled first and the aerobic bottle is filled last
Syringe Inoculation
79
What type of tube is used for Intermediate Collection tube?
Yellow-top Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
80
Why SPS is more recommended to used than anticoagulants for intermediate collection tube?
SPS reduces the action of a protein called complement that destroys bacteria. It slows down the ingestion of bacteria by leukocytes and reduces the activity of certain antibiotics.
81
Inoculation that uses butterfly and specially designed holder
Direct Inoculation
82
What must take note for syringe inoculation by avoiding the specimen to be hemolyzed
Syringe Inoculation
83
What does CTAD stands for?
Citrate, Theophylline, Adenosine, and Dipyridamole
84
What does special Coagulation tests used?
Anti-factor Xa
85
used to inhibit thrombocyte activation between collection of the specimen and testing in coagulation specimens
CTAD tube
86
Type of Diabetes:
Insulin dependence
Type 1 diabetes
87
Type of Diabetes:
Juvenile diabetes
Type 1 diabetes
88
Type of Diabetes:
Beta-cell destruction
Type 1 diabetes
89
Type of Diabetes:
Autoantibodies
Type 1 diabetes
90
Type of Diabetes:
Have high glucose values accompanied by high insulin levels
Type 2 diabetes
91
Type of Diabetes:
Patients have fasting plasma glucose levels within normal limits but are unable to metabolize ingested glucose properly
Type 2 diabetes
92
Type of diabetes:
when a patient’s blood glucose is higher than normal but not high enough to be classified as diabetes
Prediabetes
93
complicated disease that may cause more complications for the patient than just an increased blood glucose level
Diabetes mellitus
94
signal that a person might have diabetes mellitus
Hyperglycemia
95
Diabetes mellitus can develop:
Blindness (retinopathy)
Kidney damage (nephropathy)
Heart disease
Circulatory disease
96
Fasting hours for 2hour Postprandial Glucose Test
10-12 hours
97
Used to monitor insulin therapy
2 Hour Postprandial Glucose Test
98
Fasting hours for fasting blood glucose
8-10 hours
99
Normal fasting glucose:
70-99mg/dL (3.9 to 5.5 mmol/L)
100
Impaired fasting glucose
100-120mg/dL (5.9 to 6.9 mmol/L)
101
Provisional fasting glucose?
> or equal to 126 mg/dL (7.0 and higher mmol/L)
102
Normal glucose tolerance?
< or equal to 140mg/dL (< or equal to 7.8mmol/L)
103
Impaired glucose tolerance
140-199mg/dL (7.9-11.1 mmol/L)
104
Provisional Glucose Tolerance
> or equal 200 mg/dL (> or equal to 11.1 mmol/L)
105
GTT chronological procedure
FBS
Glucose Drink infested for 5 minutes
Start time for 2 hours
Collect blood
106
Fasting plasma glucose for gestational screen
> or equal to 92mg/dL (5.1 mmol/L)
107
One-hour plasma glucose gestational screen
> or equal to 180mg/dL (10mmol/L)
108
Two-hour plasma glucose gestational screen
> or equal to 153mg/dL (8.5 mmol/L)
109
Early stool passed by a newborn soon after birth before the baby starts to feed and digest milk or formula
Meconium
110
An area of the skin that is temporarily raised, typically reddened, usually accompanied by itching
Wheal
111
Elevated overgrowth of scar tissue at a wound or incision site
Keloid
112
Thickening and hardening of soft tissues of the body, specifically the skin
Induration
113
Concentration of medication that is effective and not toxic in patient management
Therapeutic range
114
To evaluate and manage medication therapy effectively and safely
Therapeutic drug monitoring
115
What is NPO?
nulla per os
116
Importance of fasting sample
To ensure accurate test results
117
What are the tests that exhibits diurnal effects?
Serum iron
Corticosteroids
Other hormones
118
Therapeutic drug monitoring ensure the given dosage of a drug produces _______ and ________
Maximal therapeutic benefit
Minimal toxic side effects
119
Cortisol test is drawn ____ hours apart
12
120
What are the variables that influence the effectiveness of the drug?
1. Drug half-life
2, concentration of medication
3. Form of drug administration
4. Age of patient
5. Weight of the patient
6. Liver & kidney function
7. Disease state
8. Interacting drug therapy
9. Patient’s metabolism
