Modules 1, 2, & 3 Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

Define: QSEN

A

Quality & Safety Education for Nurses:

  • competency targets for nurses to provide safe care
  • framework for organizing data
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2
Q

SBAR

A

Communicating with physicians

  • Situation ( what’s the problem)
  • Background (brief, relevant history)
  • Assessment (Vitals/ Subj & Obj. data)
  • Recommendation (What do we need to do?)
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3
Q

IDRAW

A

Communicating (report) with next nurse

  • Identify the patient (2 identifiers)
  • Diagnosis
  • Recent Changes
  • Anticipated Changes
  • What to watch for
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4
Q

Define: Informed Consent

A

Nurse or doc talks about all relevant info regarding a procedure or treatment (full opportunity for questions, etc.) before asking the patient to sign a legal consent form.

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5
Q

Informed Consent has three criteria

A
  1. ) Consent must be voluntary
  2. ) Client must have full disclosure about risks, benefits , cost, potential side effects, other treatment options
  3. ) client must have the capacity & competency to understand the information
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6
Q

Kozier: On Consent

Consent has 3 components

A
  1. ) Disclosure
  2. ) Capacity
  3. ) Voluntariness
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7
Q

Define: Express Consent

A

a clear statement by the pt. Can be either oral or written

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8
Q

Define: Implied Consent

A

when the individual’s nonverbal behaviour indicates willingness

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9
Q

WBC Differential: Significance of elevated Neutrophils ?

A

Can indicate a bacterial infection.

Normal is 2-6 (x 10^9/L)

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10
Q

WBC Differential: Significance of elevated Eosinophils?

A

Can indicate allergic disorders & parasitic infections

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11
Q

WBC Differential: Significance of elevated Basophils ?

A

Can indicate parasitic infections & some allergic disorders

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12
Q

WBC Differential: Significance of elevated Lymphocytes ?

A

Can indicate viral infections

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13
Q

WBC Differential: Significance of elevated Monocytes ?

A

Can indicate severe infections. (phagocytosis)

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14
Q

Electrolytes: Sodium (Na+)

A

Normal : 135-145 mmol/L

Role: 
EC osmolality
Trans-membrane potential
Acid:base balance
Numerous chemical reactions

Hypernatremia
Hyponatremia

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15
Q

Electrolytes: Potassium (K+)

A

Normal : 3.5-5.0 mmol/L

Role: 
Transmembrane potential
Intracellular osmolalty
Acid:base balance
Intracellular enzyme reactions

Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia

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16
Q

Role of the kidneys

A

Dilute or concentrate urine

Regulate electrolytes

Effect blood chemistry

Effect BP

Respond to hormones – ADH, aldosterone, parathyroid

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17
Q

What is the BUN lab test?

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
Normal blood contains 3-7.5 mmol/L of urea
Urea and Creatinine are evaluated together

*Done to see how well the kidneys are working

Note: Urea is a waste product formed in liver when protein is metabolized. Urea then travels to the kidneys to filter and be excreted in urine. If the kidney is not working properly, it will not be effectively filtered through the kideys, thus the elevated urea level.

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18
Q

Fecal Occult Blood Test

A
Tests for blood in stool that is not able to be seen by the naked eye. 
If present, can indicate : 
1.) Colon cancer
2.) polyps in the colon or rectum
3.) ulcers
4.) Chron's disease 
etc.
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19
Q

X-ray

A

Are produced when electrons absorb some of a structure’s intensity as they pass through it at the speed of light

dense areas are white:air filled areas are black

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20
Q

Ultrasound

A
  • An imaging technique that uses high-frequency sound waves to acquire real time images
  • Useful for viewing abdominal contents, pelvis, muscles, pregnancies, vessels, the heart and other soft tissue structures
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21
Q

Angiogram

A

Allows x-ray visualization of arteries following the injection of contrast medium

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22
Q

CT, or CAT scan

A
  • Computerized X ray machine
  • Two dimensional image
  • Uses ionizing X rays
  • Contrast (IV) agents used (Highlight tissues, organs, blood vessels. Watch for allergies)
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23
Q

Routine Urinalysis

A
Usually a "dipstick". Tests for various things like:
pH
color
clarity
Protein
Glucose
Nitrates 
leukocytes
ketones
24
Q

Microscopic Urinalysis

A

Urine is spun in a cetrifuge so sediment will settle at the bottom. That sediment is spread on a slide & looked at under a microscope. Findings may include:

  • RBC or WBC: can mean inflammation, disease, injury to kidneys or bladder, infection
  • Crystals: large number may indicate kidney stones
  • Bacteria or yeast cells: could indicate infection
25
Pharmacokinetics
the rate of drug distribution among body compartments after a drug has entered the body (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion)
26
Liver Function Tests
ALT, AST, Bilirubin, Albumin
27
Significance of Liver function tests
When liver cells are damaged or destroyed, the enzymes in the cells leak out into the blood, where they can be measured by blood tests. If ALT or AST is found in blood, liver damage is most likely present Bilirubin -Liver damage or interference with the excretion into bile ducts Albumin: Total Protein -Liver inactivity or malnutrition
28
Define: Potency
amount of drug required to produce an effect
29
Define: Efficacy
producing a desired effect. Do drugs produce effects that are adverse?
30
Define: Agonist
molecules that activate receptors (NT, hormones). When drugs act as agonists they bind to the receptor and mimic the action of the body’s own regulatory molecules.
31
Define: Antagonist
produce their effects by preventing the activation of receptors by agonists. Can produce beneficial pharmacological effects by blocking: *actions of endogenous molecules at receptor site *actions of drugs at receptor sites
32
Define: Resistance
Reduction in effectiveness of a drug. Antimicrobial resistance (bacteria, virus, fungi, parasites) Narcotic resistance- (although what about the possibility of pharmacogenetics?) also, neuropathic pain may be resistant.
33
Define: Onset
the time it takes for the drug to create a response
34
Define: Loading dose
a higher amount of the drug given normally once or twice to prime the blood stream with a level of sufficient to induce a therapeutic response
35
Define: Peak
the amount of time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum response.
36
Define: Maintenance Dose
Before plasma levels can drop back towards zero, intermittent maintenance doses are given to keep the plasma drug levels in the therapeutic range.
37
Define: Duration
the length of time that the drug concentration is sufficient to create a response
38
Define: Half-life
the length of time required for a med to decrease conc. In the plasma by one half.
39
Define: Mechanism of action
- The relationship between the drug concentration and the response in the body - How is the drug producing the desired effect
40
Define: Frequency Distribution Curve
compares escalating doses in relation to how many people respond to the certain doses
41
Define: Median effective dose
The center of the curve. The dose or amount of drug that produces a therapeutic response or desired effect in some fraction of the subjects taking it.
42
Define: Median lethal dose
LD50 (abbreviation for "lethal dose 50%"), LC50 (lethal concentration, 50%) or LCt50 is a measure of the lethal dose of a toxin, radiation or pathogen. The value of LD50 for a substance is the dose required to kill half the members of a tested population after a specified test duration. LD50 figures are frequently used as a general indicator of a substance's acute toxicity A lower LD50 is indicative of increased toxicity.
43
Define: Median toxicity dose
the dose at which toxicity occurs in 50% of cases. -The type of toxicity should be specified for this value to have meaning for practical purposes. The value is generally lower than the median lethal dose, as toxicity needn’t be lethal.
44
Define: Therapeutic Index
The ratio between the toxic and therapeutic concentrations of a drug. -If the index is low, the difference between the therapeutic and toxic drug concentrations is small, and the use of the drug is more hazardous
45
Define: Graded dose response
As the concentration of a drug increases, the magnitude of its pharmacologic effect also increases. More drug more effect.
46
What is an equianalgesic conversion chart?
- a conversion chart that lists equivalent doses of analgesics (drugs used to relieve pain). - used for calculation of an equivalent dose (a dose which would offer an equal amount of analgesia) between different analgesics.
47
Dose consideration for peds
Dose is in mg/kg
48
Lifespan considerations for elderly people & giving medications
- Polypharmacy - inc. risk for drug interactions & side effects - Delayed onset- d/t inc. in gastric pH, dec. in peristalsis - Therapeutic response dec- d/t more fat on the body. More storage for lipid soluble drugs - Inc. risk of drug toxicity- d/t dec. in body water - Slower drug distribution- d/t slower CO - Slower breakdown of meds- d/t decreased liver fx - inc. risk of drug toxicity- d/t reduced renal flow- less filtration
49
Pharmacognosy
The study of drugs that are obtained from natural plant and animal sources
50
Pharmacotheraputics
The Tx of pathologic conditions through the use of drugs
51
Define: Chronic
describes prolonged trajectory and conditions that are generally incurable Many chronic conditions have pain and fatigue
52
Chronic conditions
health problems with associated symptoms or disabilities that require long-term management over 3mos. or longer
53
Four most common chronic diseases are:
- CVD (35%) - cancers (29%) - COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) - diabetes
54
Four main risk factors for chronic disease:
* Smoking (risk for resp. disease, CVD, several forms of cancer) * Unhealthy diet (several cancers, CVD, diabetes) * Physical inactivity (CVD, several common cancers, diabetes, osteoporosis) * Overweight and obesity (coronary heart disease, diabetes, cancer)
55
Clinical significance of a Procalcitonin test? (PCT)
PCT is a peptide precursor to calcitonin. produced by the thyroid and the lung & intestines. - Levels elevate in response to inflammation, usually from a bacterial infection - can be used as a marker for sepsis
56
Culture and sensitivity test
A culture is done to see what kind of organism (bacteria) is causing the illness or infection. A sensitivity test checks to see what kind of antibiotic will work best to treat the infection