Molecular Biology MCAT Biology Diagnostic Exam 1B Flashcards

1
Q

Proteins are polymers of amino acids that play diverse roles in the body. Which of the following statements about proteins is true?

A. Proteins cannot contain more than 1000 amino acids.
B. The side chains of individual amino acids can have a significant effect on protein structure.
C. Protein synthesis always occurs in the 5

to 3

direction.
D. Protein functions include structure, transport, enzymatic catalysis, and emulsification of fats.

A

B. The tertiary structure of a protein (i.e., its final three-dimensional shape) is determined by interactions between the side chains of individual amino acids (choice B is correct). Proteins can contain any number of amino acids; some very large proteins include several thousand amino acids (choice A is wrong). Protein synthesis occurs in the NRight arrow.C direction; nucleic acid synthesis proceeds 5’ to 3’ (choice C is wrong). Proteins play structural roles, transport molecules around the cell and the body in general, and run reactions (among other functions), but emulsification of fats is carried out by bile, which is not a protein (choice D is wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Biomolecules: Amino Acids and Proteins

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2
Q

Transposons are mobile genetic elements that can “jump” around the genome, causing chromosomal aberrations. All of the following are true of transposons EXCEPT:

A. a chromosomal inversion can be caused by two transposons in the opposite orientations.
B. chromosomal deletions and translocations can be caused by two transposons in the same orientation.
C. if the protein coding region of a gene is disrupted by a single transposon, then proteins levels will likely decrease.
D. the insertion of a single transposon into the promoter or regulatory region of a protein coding gene will always decrease protein levels

A

D. Two transposons in opposite orientations could cause chromosomal inversion, where a section of a chromosome is flipped to the reverse orientation (choice A is true and can be eliminated). Two transposons in the same orientation cause chromosomal deletions and translocations (choice B is true and can be eliminated). If a single transposon inserts into a protein-coding region of the DNA, the protein coding region will be disrupted and proteins levels will likely decrease (choice C is true and can be eliminated). However, if a single transposon inserts into the promoter or regulatory region of a protein coding gene, protein levels can either increase or decrease (choice D is not true of transposons and is the correct answer choice).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: Mutations and DNA Repair

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3
Q

A biochemist uses a sensitive assay to quantify the amount of energy required to translate an unknown protein. Given that he found 404 ATP equivalents of energy to be consumed in the process, how long was the peptide of interest?

A. 99 amino acids
B. 100 amino acids
C. 101 amino acids Correct Answer (Blank)
D. 404 amino acids

A

C. Translation is one of the most energy-intensive processes in the cell. While initiation requires only 1 GTP, tRNA loading requires 2 high energy phosphate bond equivalents per amino acid/tRNA pair, and elongation for each subsequent amino acid requires 2 GTP. Termination requires 1 GTP. This can be summarized in the equation 4n, where n is the number of amino acids in a peptide chain, and the equation represents the number of high energy bonds required to make the peptide. In this question, you are given the total quantity of energy consumed and need to determine the length of the peptide. If 4n = 404, then n = 101 (choice C is correct).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: Translation

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4
Q

α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (α-KGDH) is an enzyme used in cellular respiration that catalyzes the decarboxylation of isocitrate (a 5-carbon compound) to succinate (a 4-carbon compound). Inherited deficiencies of α-KGDH result in permanent lactic acidosis, among other symptoms, and lead to death at an early age. α-KGDH is mostly likely found in the:

A. mitochondrial matrix.
B. mitochondrial inner membrane.
C. cytosol
D. mitochondrial intermembrane space.

A

A. α-KGDH, from the description in the question text, sounds like an enzyme in the Krebs cycle. This is the only place in the cellular respiration reactions where a 5-carbon compound is converted to a 4-carbon compound. Furthermore, the fact that individuals with α-KGDH deficiency suffer from permanent lactic acidosis suggests that the lack of this enzyme shuts down the Krebs cycle and puts the individual into permanent fermentation. Thus, this enzyme is most likely found in the mitochondrial matrix, where the Krebs cycle takes place (choice A is correct and choices B, C, and D are wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Glycolysis/Cellular Respiration

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5
Q

Enzymes are proteins that catalyze specific chemical reactions within a cell. Which of the following statements about enzymes is/are NOT true?

A common means of regulating enzyme activity is through phosphorylation of the enzyme.
Enzymes increase the energy of activation for a reaction, thereby making it go faster.
Enzymes shift the equilibrium of a reaction towards products.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

A

D. Statement I is true and therefore an incorrect choice: protein kinases and enzyme phosphorylases attach phosphate groups to enzymes and are often used to regulate enzyme activity (choices A and C can be eliminated). Both remaining answer choices include Statement II, so it must be a false statement: while enzymes do make reactions go faster, they do this by reducing the energy of activation, not increasing it. Statement III is also false and a correct choice: enzymes do not change the equilibrium of a reaction, they only help the reaction reach equilibrium more quickly (choice B can be eliminated and choice D is correct).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Enzymes and Enzyme Inhibition

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6
Q

High levels of ATP would:

A. stimulate phosphofructokinase and inhibit pyruvate kinase, thus stimulating glycolysis.
B. stimulate phosphofructokinase and stimulate pyruvate kinase, thus stimulating glycolysis.
C. inhibit phosphofructokinase and stimulate pyruvate kinase, thus inhibiting glycolysis.
D. inhibit phosphofructokinase and inhibit pyruvate kinase, thus inhibiting glycolysis.

A

D. High levels of ATP indicate that the cell does not need to run glycolysis, and instead can use glycolytic intermediate in gluconeogenesis (choices A and B are wrong). Phosphofructokinase produces fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, driving the cell toward glycolysis; high ATP levels would inhibit this enzyme to inhibit glycolysis. Pyruvate kinase catalyzes the final step in glycolysis, the conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate. This enzyme must be inhibited by ATP to inhibit glycolysis (choice C is wrong and choice D is correct).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Glycolysis/Cellular Respiration

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true about competitive inhibition?

A. The Km of the uninhibited reaction is lower than the Km of the inhibited reaction.
B. Competitive inhibitors bind at the active site of an enzyme.
C. Even if you greatly increase substrate concentration, the Vmax of the inhibited reaction will never reach the same Vmax of the uninhibited reaction.
D. Competitive inhibitors can resemble the transition state of a reaction.

A

C. Competitive inhibitors can resemble either the substrate of a reaction or the transition state of a reaction (choice D is a true statement and can be eliminated), and as such, bind at the active site of an enzyme (choice B is a true statement and can be eliminated). If the substrate concentration is significantly increased, then it becomes more likely to bind substrate at the active site than to bind inhibitor, and the inhibited reaction can reach the same Vmax as the uninhibited reaction (choice C is a false statement and the correct answer choice). Km is the substrate required to reach 1/2 Vmax. Because you need more substrate to run the inhibited reaction at the same rate (V) as the uninhibited reaction, Km increases (choice A is a true statement and can be eliminated). Note that this Km, the Km measured in the presence of an inhibitor, is called the “apparent Km.”

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Enzymes and Enzyme Inhibition

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8
Q

Phosphofructokinase (PFK) catalyzes the phosphorylation of fructose-6-P in the third step of glycolysis. If ATP levels in the cell are high, ATP can bind to PFK (at a site other than the active site) to inhibit the reaction. This is most accurately described as:

A. competitive inhibition.
B. negative feedback.
C. allosteric regulation.
D. positive feedback.

A

C. When a molecule binds to an enzyme at a site other than the active site and regulates the activity of that enzyme, it is best described as allosteric regulation (choice C is correct). This might be an example of negative feedback (an end-product inhibiting an earlier enzyme) but it is more accurately described as allosteric regulation (choice C is better than choice B). In competitive inhibition, a molecule similar to the substrate binds at the active site to prevent product formation (choice A is wrong). In positive feedback, the end product stimulates an enzyme earlier in the series of reactions, and this is not occurring here (choice D is wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Enzymes and Enzyme Inhibition

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9
Q

Which of the following statements about lipids is NOT true?

A. Phospholipids are amphipathic and are used in the formation of lipid bilayers.
B. Triglycerides are formed by joining three fatty acids to a glycerol molecule, and the three fatty acids are always the same.
C. Saturated fats are solids are room temperature because their hydrocarbon chains can pack together tightly.
D. Cholesterol is a lipid formed from several hydrocarbon rings; it is used in the derivation of steroids such as estrogen, cortisol, and vitamin D.

A

B. Triglycerides are formed by joining three fatty acids to a glycerol molecule, however the three fatty acids do not have to be the same, and frequently aren’t (choice B is not true about lipids and is the correct answer choice). All other answer choices are true.

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Biomolecules: Lipids

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10
Q

Mutation of which of the following codons would be most disruptive to the initiation of translation?

A. AUG
B. UGA
C. UUU
D. UAA

A

A. During translation initiation, the start codon (AUG) is recognized by the tRNA bound to methionine. By causing a mutation in this codon, the ribosome will either fail to initiate translation, or begin translation at an unintended site resulting in a protein which will likely be nonfunctional (choice A is correct). Also note that the codons UGA and UAA are stop codons (along with UAG).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: Translation

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11
Q

The pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) generates NADPH to be used as a reducing agent in biosynthetic reactions such as fatty acid synthesis, and generates ribulose-5-phosphate which can either be converted into ribose-5-phosphate or into glycolytic intermediates. Ribose-5-phosphate can also be generated from glycolytic intermediates without the reduction of NADPH. Which of the following would be favored in a rapidly dividing cell?

A. The formation of ribose-5-phosphate
B. The reduction of NADP+ to NADPH in the oxidative phase of the PPP
C. The conversion of ribulose-5-phosphate into glycolytic intermediates
D. The oxidation of glucose-6-phosphate to generate NADH

A

A. Cells that are rapidly dividing need to synthesize nucleic acids, thus the formation of ribose-5-phosphate, a precursor to nucleotides, would be favored (choice A is correct). NADPH is not necessary for nucleotide synthesis so the oxidative phase of the PPP would not be favored (choice B is wrong). The conversion of ribulose-5-P into glycolytic intermediates would shuttle the five-carbon sugar back into glycolysis when it would be more needed as a nucleotide precursor (choice C is wrong). NADH is not generated in the pentose phosphate pathway (choice D is wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Carbohydrate Metabolism

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12
Q

Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to lead to a spontaneous reaction?

A. A reaction with a large negative ΔH, run at a low temperature, that has a large increase in entropy.
B. A reaction with a small positive ΔH, run at a low temperature, that has a large increase in entropy.
C. A reaction with a small positive ΔH, run at a high temperature, that has a large increase in entropy.
D. A reaction with a large positive ΔH, run at a low temperature, that has a large decrease in entropy.

A

D. Consider the equation ΔG = ΔH – TΔS; reactions with a negative ΔG are spontaneous. ΔG can be negative under a variety of conditions. Reactions with an increase in disorder (entropy) have a large positive ΔS; when this value is combined with a large negative ΔH, or a high temperature, or a small positive ΔH, ΔG is likely to be negative and the reaction spontaneous (choices A, B, and C can be eliminated). However, a reaction with a large decrease in entropy is becoming MORE orderly and has a large negative ΔS. Combined with a large positive ΔH, this situation is least likely to result in a negative ΔG (choice D is the correct answer choice).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Thermodynamics/Kinetics

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13
Q

Which of the following differences between RNA and DNA could help explain the differences in secondary structure observed between the two types of nucleic acids?

A. The 2’ hydroxyl group present on RNA
B. The presence of thymine in RNA
C. Differing RNA binding proteins present in the nucleus of prokaryotes
D. Presence of a single phosphate per nucleotide in the RNA phosphodiester backbone

A

A. This question is asking for a difference between RNA and DNA and only one of the answer choices provided is a valid difference between the two nucleic acids. RNA contains a 2’ hydroxyl group, possesses uracil in place of thymine, and generally only exists in a single-stranded form in the cell (choice A is correct). Thymine should not be present in RNA and prokaryotes do not possess a nucleus (choices B and C are wrong). Finally, both RNA and DNA possess a single phosphate per nucleotide in their phosphodiester backbones (choice D is wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Biomolecules: Nucleic Acids

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14
Q

Which of the following is an example of reciprocal regulation of glycogen metabolism?

A. High levels of citrate stimulate phosphofructokinase and inhibit fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase.
B. High levels of AMP inhibit glycolysis and stimulate gluconeogenesis.
C. Glucagon inhibits glycogen phosphorylase and stimulates glycogen synthase.
D. Insulin stimulates glycogen synthase and inhibits glycogen phosphorylase.

A

D. Reciprocal regulation occurs when a single molecule stimulates a pathway in one direction while inhibiting the pathway in the opposite direction. Insulin is released when blood sugar is high; it stimulates glycogen synthase (to store glucose as glycogen) and inhibits glycogen phosphorylase (the first enzyme in glycogen breakdown, choice D is correct). Glucagon is antagonistic to insulin; it is released when blood sugar is low to stimulate glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen breakdown while inhibiting glycogen synthase (choice C is wrong). While citrate and AMP do reciprocally regulate the indicated enzymes and pathways, how they regulate those pathways is not described correctly. Citrate inhibits phosphofructokinase to slow down glycolysis and stimulates fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase to increase gluconeogenesis (choice A is wrong); AMP acts to stimulate glycolysis (because ATP is low) and inhibit gluconeogenesis (choice B is wrong). And in either case, this is not regulation of glycogen metabolism.

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Carbohydrate Metabolism

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15
Q

Which of the following statements about Km is true?

A. Km is the substrate concentration required to reach 1/2 Vmax, and is a measure of affinity between an enzyme and its substrate.
B. Km is a measure of affinity between an enzyme and its substrate; a high Km indicates a strong affinity.
C. Km is the substrate concentration required to reach Vmax, and a low Km indicates a high enzyme-substrate affinity.
D. Km is affected by enzyme concentration; if the enzyme concentration is reduced, Km decreases.

A

A. Km is the substrate concentration required to push a reaction to half of its maximum rate of product formation (choice C is wrong), and is a measure of affinity between an enzyme and its substrate. However a low Km indicates a high enzyme-substrate affinity, not the other way around. In other words, a low Km means that only a small amount of substrate is required to get to 1/2 Vmax, thus there must be a high affinity between the enzyme and the substrate. If Km is high, a lot of substrate is needed to reach 1/2 Vmax, indicating a low enzyme-substrate affinity (choice B is wrong). Km is unaffected by enzyme concentration; just because the amount of enzyme changes, does not mean its affinity for its substrate changes (choice D is wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Enzymes and Enzyme Inhibition

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16
Q

Protein synthesis is primarily regulated at the level of transcription. Which of the following could lead to an increase in protein synthesis in a typical eukaryotic cell?

Substitution of a strong promoter for a weak promoter when more of the protein is required
Inhibition of repressor binding to a gene regulatory region
Inhibition of an enhancer in a gene regulatory region
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

A

B. Item I is false: promoters are simply DNA sequences upstream of the transcribed region; they cannot be substituted at will when more of a particular protein is needed (choices A and C can be eliminated). Since both remaining answer choices include Item II, it must be true: preventing a repressor from binding to a gene regulatory region would increase transcription of that gene, ultimately leading to an increase in protein synthesis for that gene. Item III is false: enhancers increase transcription. If an enhancer is inhibited, transcription rates would be reduced, and there would be a decrease in protein synthesis (choice D can be eliminated and choice B is correct).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: Transcription

17
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. When ADP levels are high, pyruvate kinase is inhibited.
B. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate levels are reduced when glucose levels are low; this helps to drive gluconeogenesis forward.
C. The phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is an important regulatory step in gluconeogenesis.
D. High levels of citrate inhibit fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase to prevent gluconeogenesis when Krebs intermediates are plentiful.

A

B. When glucose levels are low, glucagon stimulates the enzyme that breaks down fructose-2,6-bisphosphate. This molecule typically stimulates glycolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis, so it’s absence due to increased breakdown inhibits glycolysis and stimulates gluconeogenesis, which is exactly what is needed when glucose levels are low (choice B is correct). Pyruvate kinase is the final enzyme in glycolysis, and when ADP levels are high it indicates a need for ATP. Thus, this would drive glycolysis forward and would not inhibit the enzyme (choice A is wrong). The phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is an important regulatory step in glycolysis, not gluconeogenesis (choice C is wrong). High levels of citrate stimulate gluconeogenesis; this indicates that Krebs intermediates are plentiful and some of these precursors can be shuttled into the gluconeogenesis pathway (choice D is wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Carbohydrate Metabolism

18
Q

All of the following are examples of a reduction EXCEPT:

A. the conversion of glucose to (ultimately) carbon dioxide during cellular respiration.
B. the creation of NADH during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
C. the conversion of oxygen to water along the electron transport chain.
D. the creation of ethanol from pyruvate during alcoholic fermentation

A

A. Glucose is oxidized through several different steps in cellular respiration, ultimately producing carbon dioxide (choice A is not an example of a reduction and is the correct answer choice). NADH is formed from NAD+; this gain of hydrogen represents a reduction (choice B is a reduction and can be eliminated). Oxygen is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain; the gain of electrons is a reduction (choice C is a reduction and can be eliminated). The creation of ethanol from pyruvate proceeds first through the decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetaldehyde, and the subsequent reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (choice D is a reduction and can be eliminated).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Oxidation/Reduction Biochemistry: Carbohydrate Metabolism

19
Q

A graduate student in a yeast lab that studies double-strand break (DSB) repair has a mutant strain that is unable to complete repair via nonhomologous end joining. Which of the following is true about this strain?

A. It can only repair DSB with minimal specificity.
B. It is able to form a joint molecule when repairing DSBs.
C. It will accumulate many chromosomal aberrations over time.
D. It can specifically repair DSB in a DNA polymerase-independent manner.

A

B. This mutant strain is unable to complete nonhomologous end joining and is thus relying on homologous recombination for DSB. This is a specific repair process (choice A is wrong) that involves formation of a joint molecule (choice B is correct) and uses DNA polymerase (choice D is wrong). A strain that repairs DNA via homologous end joining will be able to repair DSBs reasonably well, and will not accumulate many chromosomal aberrations over time (choice C is wrong).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: Mutations and DNA Repair

20
Q

Which of the following forms of eukaryotic post-transcriptional modification is most critical for ribosome association with an mRNA transcript?

A. Substitution of uracil for thymine
B. Intron splicing
C. Addition of the 3

poly-A tail
D. Addition of the 5’ cap

A

D. The 5’ cap contains the ribosome binding site in eukaryotes and is critical for ribosome association (choice D is correct). Of lesser importance are intron splicing and addition of a 3’ poly-A tail (choices B and C are wrong). Note that substitution of uracil for thymine is a characteristic of RNA, not a post-transcriptional modification (choice A is wrong).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: Regulation of Gene Expression

21
Q

β-Oxidation is a means of creating acetyl-CoA from fatty acids. This acetyl-CoA can then enter the Krebs cycle. Each turn of the β-oxidation cycle produces one acetyl-CoA molecule and a fatty acid two carbons shorter than it was at the beginning of the cycle. Additionally, one NADH and one FADH2 are generated per turn. Lauric acid is an 12-carbon saturated fatty acid. Including those produced in the Krebs cycle, how many total NADH and FADH2 molecules would be generated from the complete β-oxidation of lauric acid and subsequent entry of the acetyl-CoA into the Krebs cycle?

A. 24 NADH and 12 FADH2
B. 23 NADH and 11 FADH2
C. 12 NADH and 12 FADH2
D. 11 NADH and 11 FADH2

A

B. Each turn of the β-oxidation cycle produces one acetyl-CoA and a fatty acid two carbons shorter than before. Lauric acid, with 12 carbons, would ultimately produce 6 acetyl-CoA. If lauric acid enters the β-oxidation cycle, then after one turn of the cycle we would have one acetyl-CoA and a 10C fatty acid. After two turns of the cycle we would have two acetyl-CoA and an 8C fatty acid. This would continue in this manner until after the 5th turn of the cycle we would produce our 5th acetyl-CoA molecule, and all that would be left over would be another two-carbon acetyl-CoA molecule (the 6th acetyl-CoA). This last 2-carbon molecule does not need to go through the β-oxidation cycle again, so only 5 turns of cycle are necessary. Thus, 5 NADH and 5 FADH2 would be generated during β-oxidation. When the 6 acetyl-CoA molecules go through the Krebs cycle, and additional 18 NADH would be generate (3 per turn of the Krebs cycle) and and additional 6 FADH2 would be generated (1 per turn), for a total of 23 NADH and 11 FADH2.

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Protein/Fat Metabolism

22
Q

Question 22
A graduate student attaches a fluorescent tag to β-galactosidase and performs site-directed mutagenesis to generate a mutation in the operator of the lac operon. The mutation completely prevents repressor binding. Which of the following is the most likely observation following mutagenesis of these cells?

A. Increased fluorescence compared to control due to repressor inhibition, only in the presence of lactose
B. Increased fluorescence compared to control due to failed repressor binding, in the presence or absence of lactose
C. Decreased fluorescence compared to control, only in the presence of lactose
D. Decreased fluorescence compared to control, in the presence or absence of lactose

A

B. If the mutation prevents the repressor from binding to the operator, this would result in constitutive expression of the genes in the lac operon, including the fluorescent β-galactosidase (choices C and D are wrong). This would occur whether or not lactose was present (choice B is correct and choice A is wrong).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: Regulation of Gene Expression

23
Q

Some amino acids can be converted to pyruvate via several biochemical pathways. Pyruvate can then enter the cellular respiration pathways, either by decarboxylation to acetyl-CoA or by carboxylation to oxaloacetate. For a single pyruvate molecule, first converted to acetyl-CoA, then traveling through the Krebs cycle, how many NADH molecules are produced?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

A

B. The decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA nets 1 NADH, and as that acetyl-CoA travels through the Krebs cycle, an additional 3 NADH are generated, resulting in a total of 4 NADH per pyruvate (choice B is correct and choices A, C, and D are wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Glycolysis/Cellular Respiration

24
Q

A yeast colony is subject to the mutagen EMS (ethyl methanesulfonate) and subsequently fails to divide. Further analysis reveals excessive supercoiling in the S-phase and failure to progress in the cell cycle. Which of the following was the most likely gene target of EMS?

A. Topoisomerase
B. Helicase
C. DNA ligase
D. Single-stranded binding protein

A

A. Excessive supercoiling may result from unwinding DNA without the aid of topoisomerase which cleaves the DNA backbone to prevent such strain (choice A is correct). Helicase functions to unwind DNA; it produces supercoils in the DNA via unwinding, but these would not be excessive. The excessive nature of these supercoils is a failure in topoisomerase function (choice B is wrong), DNA ligase links the phosphodiester backbone between DNA fragments (choice C is wrong), and single-stranded binding proteins help to prevent re-annealing of unwound DNA (choice D is wrong).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: DNA Replication

25
Q

Eukaryotes running aerobic respiration net 30 ATP per glucose, while prokaryotes net 32 ATP. Why?

A. Prokaryotic glycolysis does not require the input of 2 ATP for the phosphorylation of glucose and fructose-6-P.
B. Prokaryotes generate more pyruvate from glucose than do eukaryotes.
C. In eukaryotes, the electrons from glycolytic NADH must be shuttled from the cytosol into the mitochondrion, and bypass the first proton pump.
D. Eukaryotes have a more efficient ATP synthase.

A

C. In eukaryotes, glycolysis occurs in the cytosol, while the PDC, Krebs cycle, and electron transport occur in the mitochondria. The NADH from glycolysis is oxidized in the cytosol (so that NAD+ continues to remain available for glycolysis), and the electrons are shuttled into the electron transport chain. However, the electrons bypass the first proton pump (NADH dehydrogenase) and are delivered to coenzyme Q, the second molecule in the electron transport chain. This results in the movement of fewer protons out of the mitochondrial matrix, and thus less ATP made when the protons reenter the matrix through the ATP synthase. Prokaryotes run glycolysis, PDC, and the Krebs cycle in the cytosol, with all NADH immediately available to the first pump in their transport chain (which is located in their cell membrane; choice C is correct). Prokaryotic glycolysis is the same as eukaryotic, requiring 2 ATP to phosphorylate glucose and fructose-6-P (choice A is wrong), and generating 2 pyruvate per glucose (choice B is wrong). If eukaryotic ATP synthase were more efficient, they would make more ATP than prokaryotes, not less (choice D is wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Glycolysis/Cellular Respiration

26
Q

Hemoglobin is an oxygen-carrying protein found in red blood cells. It is made up of four protein subunits that display cooperative binding. Myoglobin is also an oxygen-carrying protein, however it is found in muscle cells and it is made of only a single protein subunit. How would the saturation curves for hemoglobin and myoglobin compare?

A. Hemoglobin would have a sigmoidal curve while myoglobin would have a simple curve.
B. Both hemoglobin and myoglobin would have sigmoidal curves, but the curve of myoglobin would be right-shifted compared to the curve of hemoglobin.
C. Hemoglobin would have a simple curve while myoglobin would have a sigmoidal curve.
D. Both hemoglobin and myoglobin would have simple curves, but myoglobin would display only 1/4 the saturation level of hemoglobin.

A

A. Enzymes (or in this case, transport proteins) that display cooperative binding have sigmoidal curves (choice D is wrong). In order to display cooperative binding, a protein must be made up of more than one subunit. Since myoglobin is made of only a single subunit, it cannot display cooperative binding and would have a simple saturation curve (choice A is correct and choices B and C are wrong).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Enzymes and Enzyme Inhibition

27
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur during starvation?

β-oxidation in the mitochondrial matrix provides acetyl-CoA to feed into the Krebs cycle.
Ketone bodies are converted into acetyl-CoA and the acetyl-CoA is converted into glucose.
Fatty acid synthesis in the cytoplasm produces NADH to drive electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III

A

C. Item I DOES occur during starvation: β-oxidation of fatty acids provides acetyl-CoA that can turn the Krebs cycle (choices A and D can be eliminated). Both of the remaining answers include Item II, so Item II must NOT occur during starvation: while ketone bodies (used for fuel by the nervous system during times of starvation) can be converted into acetyl-CoA once they reach their target organs/cells, the acetyl-CoA is not converted into glucose. First, we lack the enzymes necessary to do that, and second, it isn’t necessary as the acetyl-CoA can enter the Krebs cycle directly. Item III does NOT occur during starvation: fatty acids are broken down, not synthesized (choice B can be eliminated and choice C is correct; both Items II and III do not occur during starvation).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Protein/Fat Metabolism

28
Q

An error was made during DNA replication that ultimately resulted in the synthesis of an mRNA with guanine substituted for cytosine in the codon UCA. This would represent which of the following types of mutation?

A. Insertion
B. Silent mutation
C. Missense mutation
D. Nonsense mutation

A

D. The mutation described here involves the substitution (choice A is wrong) of a guanine for a cytosine to generate the sequence UGA, which is a stop codon. Generation of an early stop codon is known as a nonsense mutation (choice D is correct). A silent mutation involves the change of a nucleotide in a codon without a change in the amino acid specified by that codon (choice B is wrong). If the amino acid does change, it is known as a missense mutation (choice C is wrong).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: Mutations and DNA Repair

29
Q

Following the binding of a loaded tRNA to its codon during translation, which of the following steps occurs next?

A. Translocation of the ribosome along the mRNA transcript
B. Dissociation of the tRNA present at the P site
C. Peptide bond formation
D. A release factor binds

A

C. Following the binding of a loaded tRNA to a codon, the growing peptide chain is transferred from the tRNA occupying the P site to the tRNA occupying the A site via a peptidyl transfer reaction (i.e., a peptide bond is formed between the last amino acid in the chain and the new amino acid on the tRNA in the A site, choice C is correct). Translocation of the ribosome then occurs along the mRNA (choice A is wrong), allowing the tRNA that had occupied the P site to dissociate (choice B is wrong) and opening the A site for a new tRNA. The release factor will bind when a stop codon appears in the A site; this will allow the release of the nascent peptide and dissociation of the ribosome from the mRNA (choice D is wrong).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: Translation

30
Q

Polysaccharides can be used for many different functions. Which of the following is/are polysaccharides that are used primarily for glucose storage?

Starch
Glycogen
Cellulose
  	A.  I only
  	B.  II only
  	C.  I and II only 
  	D.  I, II, and III
A

C. Item I is true: starch is the polysaccharide used by plants to store glucose (choice B can be eliminated). Item II is true: glycogen is the polysaccharide that animals use to store glucose (choice A can be eliminated). Item III is false: cellulose is a polymer of glucose, but is used primarily for plant structure (choice D can be eliminated and choice C is correct).

Concepts tested
Biochemistry: Biomolecules: Carbohydrates

31
Q

A biologist designs a fluorescent form of DNA helicase which emits visible light at the edge of spreading replication forks. She then images an unknown cell and observes several dozen fluorescent puncta. Which of the following best characterizes the cell and why?

A. Prokaryotic: multiple locations of active replication are visible on a single chromosome.
B. Prokaryotic: multiple locations of active replication are visible on multiple chromosomes.
C. Eukaryotic: multiple locations of active replication are visible on a single chromosome.
D. Eukaryotic: multiple locations of active replication are visible on multiple chromosomes.

A

D. The researcher observes several dozen fluorescent puncta which would indicate several dozen replication forks. Prokaryotic cells only possess a single origin of replication and would only display two replication forks and therefore two puncta (choices A and B are wrong). Eukaryotes possess multiple chromosomes with multiple origins of replication on each chromosome; many more replication forks would be observed during replication (choice D is correct and choice C is wrong).

Concepts tested
Molecular Biology: DNA Replication Microbiology: Prokaryotes vs. Eukaryotes