Molecular Genetics and Applied Neuroscience Flashcards
(175 cards)
1
Q
What are the phases of the cell cycle?
A
G1 - growth phase 1 S - synthetic phase G2 - growth phase 2 M- mitosis phase Cells in the quiescent G0 phase of the cycle are stimulated by growth factors (e.g. EGF, PDGF, IGF) and result in activation of transcription factors, leading to the initiation of DNA synthesis, followed by mitosis and cell division
2
Q
During which phase of the cell cycle are the 46 chromosomes duplicated into chromatids?
A
S
3
Q
What is interphase?
A
G0 G1 S and G2 (all phases apart from mitosis)
period when the cell material is replicated and prepares for division
4
Q
What are the stages of mitosis?
A
Prophase - condensation of chromatid to form chromosomes, breakdown of the nuclear envelope and formation of spindles at opposite ends of the cell (poles)
Metaphase - alignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate (equatorial)
Anaphase - Separation of paired chromosomes followed by migration to opposite ends of the cells
Telophase - Chromosomes are packed into distinct new nuclei. Cytokinesis (division of cytoplasm begins)
5
Q
What are the phases of meoisis?
A
Meiosis I - reduction division. Crossing over occurs in prophase and there is non separation of chromatids in anaphase
Meiosis II - same as normal mitosis
6
Q
How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
A
4 (with half of the number of chromosomes)
7
Q
How many chromosomes are in human cells
A
46 (diploid) - 23 inherited from each parent
22 pairs of autosome and 2 sex chromosomes
8
Q
Which cells are haploid cells?
A
Gametes
9
Q
What is the centromere?
What’s a metacentric chromosome?
A
constriction in the chromosome that divides it into long arm (p) and short arm (q)
Metacentric chromosome has the centromere right in the middle - so the p and q arms are of equal length
10
Q
What is aneuploidy?
What causes aneuploidy?
A
When cells contain a different number of chromosomes
-non disjunction (failure of chromatids to separate)
11
Q
What is mocaicism?
A
When non disjunction occurs during mitosis after the gametes have fused - this leads to the formation of two cell lineages, each with different genetic makeup
12
Q
What is Down syndrome? Incidence? Findings in pregnancy? Clinical presentation? Complications after childhood? Methods of causation?
A
Trisomy 21
1:700
Reduced maternal levels of alpha fetoprotein, increased beta HCG and increased nuchal fold thickness on foetal ultrasound
LD, simian crease, prominent epicanthic fold, duodenal atresia, hypothyroidism, flat facial profile, heart disease (ASD).
Alzheimer’s and leukemia
95% meiotic non disjunction (rate 1:1500 in women <20 but 1:25 in women >40)
4% Robertsonian translocation
1% mosaicism
13
Q
What is Edward syndrome? Incidence? M:F? Clinical presentation? Life expectancy?
A
Trisomy 18
1: 8000
3: 1
Severe LD, rocker bottom feet, low set ears, small jaw, congenital heart disease, congenital kidney problems
Children don’t usually survive after the first year of life
14
Q
What is Patau syndrome?
Incidence?
Clinical presentation?
A
Trisomy 13
1:6000
Severe LD, microphthalmia, microcephaly, cleft lip/palate, coloboma eye, polydactyly, congenital heart disease
15
Q
What is metafemale/superwoman syndrome?
A
XXX
16
Q
What is Turner syndrome?
Incidence?
Clinical presentation?
A
XO
1:2000 female
Low hairline, broad chest, short stature, webbed neck
In 80% of cases the origin of the aneuploidy is paternal X chromosome so the X chromosome present is maternal
17
Q
What is the parental origin of meiotic error leading to aneuploidy in:
- Patau syndrome
- Edward syndrome
- Down syndrome
- Turner syndrome
- Klinefelter syndrome
A
- 85% maternal
- 90% maternal
- 95% maternal
- 20% maternal
- 55% maternal
18
Q
What is a nucleotide?
A
Nucleotides are phosphorylated versions of nucleosides.
Each nucleoside consists of two components: a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
19
Q
What are the components of DNA?
A
Each strand of DNA is made up of a deoxyribose phosphate backbone and a series of purine (adenine (A) and guanine (G)) and pyrimidine (thymine (T) and cytosine (C)) bases of the nucleic acid.
PUGA/PYCT
20
Q
What are the possible combinations of nucleotides?
A
TA
AT
GC
CG
21
Q
What’s a codon?
What are exons?
What are introns?
A
A set of three adjacent nucleotides
each codon codes for a specific amino acid
64 possible codon combos make up genetic code
the polypeptide coding sequences in DNA are call exons
the non coding sequences are introns. there are three types: satellite, mini and microsatellite
22
Q
What’s a gene?
A
sub portion of DNA
codes for a polypeptide sequence
23
Q
How many amino acids are there?
A
20 (10 are essential and cant be got from food)
24
Q
What is replication?
A
production of new DNA copies from template
25
What is transcription?
synthesis of RNA from nuclear DNA
transcripted RNA contains introns "junk" - hnRNA
this is spliced by nucleosomes and introns are removed - mRNA
26
What is translation?
| Where does it take place?
production of proteins from RNA
| it takes place in the cytoplasm, aided by ribosomes
27
What are the three steps of translation?
initiation, elongation and termination
28
What are modifications and where do they take place?
post translational changes to a protein before it becomes functionally active
occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum and golgi bodies
29
What is a mutation?
What is a point mutation?
What is a frame shift mutation?
A sudden, permanent and heritable change in the DNA sequence
point mutation= single base alteration (substitution: transition if purine replaced by purine, transition if purine replaced by pyrimidine)
frame shift mutation - deletion/substitution is not in a multiple of three codons so there is a shift in triplet reading frame
in frame mutation - changes in bases of three so there's no disturbance to the reading frame
30
What is a silent mutation?
What is a missense mutation?
What is a nonsense mutation?
silent mutation causes no change in the protein product
missense mutation - new codon specifies a different amino acid
nonsense mutation - new codon is a stop so a nonfuncting protein is produced
31
What is translocation?
exchange of chunks of genetic material from one chromosome to another
reciprocal = one segment exchanged for another
Robertsonian = non-reciprocal - p (short) arms are discarded and a single chromosome is formed from 2 with only trivial loss of genetic material - "balanced"
when gametes are formed only one can have the fused chromosome so there is unbalanced translocation in one gamete and trisomy in the gamete with the fused chromosome
32
What is the location of the microdeletion in DiGeorge syndrome and what is the mode of transmission?
What are the features?
22q11.2
Autosomal dominant
Mild-mod learning disability, cleft palate, cardiac abnormalities, hypocalcaemia, 25% chance schizophrenia/psychosis
33
What is the location of the microdeletion in William syndrome and what is the mode of transmission?
What are the features?
7q11
Hypercalcaemia, supravalvular aortic stenosis, mod ld, hyperacusis, disinhibited, litantic speech
34
What is the location of the microdeletion in Smith Magenis syndrome and what is the mode of transmission?
What are the features?
17p11.2
Severe to mod LD, self harming behaviour,
35
What is the location of the microdeletion in Angelman syndrome and what is the mode of transmission?
What are the features?
15q11-13 maternally inherited
jerky hand movements hand flapping, low IQ (happy puppet), seizures
36
What is the location of the microdeletion in Prader-Willi syndrome and what is the mode of transmission?
What are the features?
15q11-13 paternally inherited
obesity, short stature, skin picking, hyperphagia
37
What is the location of the microdeletion in Cri du chat syndrome and what is the mode of transmission?
What are the features?
5p15.2
Cat like cry, feeding problems, hypertelorism
38
What's the first Mendelian law?
law of uniformity - if two plants differ in just one trait and are cross the resulting hybrids will be uniform
39
What's the second Mendelian law?
law of segregation - for any particular trait, the pair of alleles of each parent separate and only one allele passes from each parent on to an offspring
40
What's the third Mendelian law?
principle of independent assortment - different pairs of alleles are passed to offspring independently of each other so new combinations of genes not present in either parent are possible
41
What is x inactivation?
Normally males inherit X from mother and Y from father - Y does not contribute much genetic material so to preserve equality one female X is inactivated - this is a Barr body
random process - some cells have paternal X inactivated and others have maternal X inactivated
this inactivation occurs via methylation
42
What's the mechanism for x linked recessive conditions?
if recessive disease causing mutation is in man then it will cause disease as there is no other X to compensate
females need double mutation which is very rare but may happen due to unfavourabel lyonisation
43
What is the location of the genetic mutation in Tuberous Sclerosis and what is the mode of transmission?
What are the features?
9q34/16p13 (Autosomal Dominant but most are spontaneous)
ash leaf spots, tumours, kidney cysts, mitral regurgitation
44
What is the location of the genetic mutation in Treacher Collins Syndrome?
What are the features?
5q31
Maxilla-mandibular hypoplasia, malformed pinna, down slanting palpebrae, mild - moderate MR
45
What is the location of the genetic mutation in Aspert Syndrome?
What are the features?
10q
craniosynostosis, shallow orbits, trapezoid mouth, mitten hands and feet
46
What is the location of the genetic mutation in Noonan Syndrome?
What are the features?
Chr12
short stature, pulmonary stenosis, cryptorchidism, nuchal oedema/webbed neck
47
What is the location of the genetic mutation in Hurler Syndrome and what is the mode of transmission?
What are the features?
4p16 (Autosomal recessive)
Deteriorating IQ after age 2, coarse facies, clouded cornea, joint stiffness
48
What is the location of the genetic mutation in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome and what is the mode of transmission?
What are the features?
Xq26-27 (x linked recessive)
Poor muscle control, and moderate mental retardation – year 1
Self-mutilating behaviors, characterised by lip and finger biting - by year 2
Hyperuricemia and hyperuricosuria - severe gout and kidney problems – can present anytime.
49
What is anticipation?
anticipation is a phenomenon whereby as a genetic disorder is passed on to the next generation, the symptoms of the genetic disorder become apparent at an earlier age with each generation
50
```
What are the tinucleotide expansions responsible for:
1. Fragile X syndrome
2. Friedreich AtaxiA
3 Huntington
4. Myotonic dystrophy
```
1. CGG
2. GAA
3. CAG
4. CTG
51
What number of trinucleotide repeats is necessary for the clinical phenotype of Fragile X?
200
Less than this = premutation carriers
they have risk of intention tremor; women are at increased risk of premature ovarian failure/ mild cognitive or behavioural abnormalities
52
What number of trinucleotide repeats is necessary for the clinical phenotype of Huntington's?
The CAG length is more unstable when inherited from which parent?
40-55 in adults
>70 in children
The CAG length is more unstable when inherited from the father
53
What is genomic imprinting?
Genetic imprinting involves a sex-specific process of chemical modification to the imprinted genes, so that they are expressed unequally, depending on the sex of the parent of origin.
54
What is polymorphism?
A gene is said to be polymorphic if more than one allele occupies that gene's locus within a population.
variant must occur in at least 1% of the population
55
What is Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism?
a type of polymorphism that results from variation in the DNA sequence recognised by restriction enzymes. These are bacterial enzymes used by scientists to cut DNA molecules at known locations.
56
What are SNPs?
To make new cells, an existing cell divides in two. But first it copies its DNA so the new cells will each have a complete set of genetic instructions. Cells sometimes make mistakes during the copying process - kind of like typos. These typos lead to variations in the DNA sequence at particular locations, called single nucleotide polymorphisms, or SNPs (pronounced "snips").
57
What are Variable Number of Tandem Repeats?
repeated DNA sequences at a defined locus. The repeats are clustered together and oriented in the same direction.
Satellite
Minisatellite: 20-70 bases
Microsatellite: 2-6 bases
58
Where do most polymorphisms occur: introns or extrons?
Introns
59
What's the significance of Serotonin transporter polymorphisms?
55% Europeans have long allele variant
| Those with short allele variant - higher incidence of affective disorders, neuroticism, anxiety and PTSD
60
What is Southern blotting technique?
used for detection of specific DNA sequence
61
What is Northern blotting technique?
used for detection of RNA
62
What is Western blotting technique?
detection of specific proteins after electrophoresis
63
What is PCR?
a process by which minute amounts of DNA are amplified over a million times. it has three steps:
1. DNA is denatured into single strands
2. DNA polymerase is used to extend the primers in opposite directions
3. Cycling is set to produce necessary numbers of amplification
*it can be used to detect the presence of abnormal trinucleotide expansions
64
What is FISH?
a molecular cytogenetic technique that uses fluorescent probes that bind to only those parts of a nucleic acid sequence with a high degree of sequence complementarity
65
What is concordance?
the probability that a pair of individuals will both have a certain characteristic, given that one of the pair has the characteristic.
66
What is heritability?
Statistic that estimates the degree of variation in a phenotypic trait in a population that is due to genetic variation between individuals in that population. It measures how much of the variation of a trait can be attributed to variation of genetic factors, as opposed to variation of environmental factors
*worked out from concordance
67
```
What is the estimated heritability of:
1 Schizophrenia?
2. Bipolar disorder
3. Major depression
4. Generalised anxiety
5. Panic disorder
6. Phobia
7. Alcohol dependence
8. ADHD
9. Autism
```
1. Schizophrenia? 80%
2. Bipolardisorder >80%
3. Major depression 40%
4. Generalised anxiety 30%
5. Panic disorder 40%
6. Phobia 35%
7. Alcohol dependence 60%
8. ADHD 80%
9. Autism 90%
68
What's the heritability of the five personality traits?
```
Openness: 57%
Extraversion: 54%
Conscientiousness: 49%
Neuroticism: 48%
Agreeableness: 42%
```
69
What are the macroscopic pathological findings of Huntington's?
Frontal atrophy
Marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen
Enlarged ventricles
70
What are the microscopic pathological findings of Huntington's?
Neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex
Neuronal loss in the striatum
Inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum
71
What are the principles of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
- No mutations must occur, so that new alleles do not enter the population.
- No gene flow can occur (no migration of individuals into, or out of, the population).
- Mating between individuals must be random (individuals must pair by chance).
- Population must be sufficiently large that no genetic drift (random chance) can cause the allele frequencies to change.
- Differences in genotype do not confer disparate survival or reproductive success on an individual (no natural selection occurs)
72
What's the Hardy-Weinberg equation?
p² + 2pq + q²= 1
```
p²= frequency of AA (homozygous dominant)
2pq= frequency of Aa (heterozygous)
q²= frequency of aa (homozygous recessive)
```
(p+q = 1) p remains 1
73
Conditions with AD inheritance pattern?
Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, Noonan's syndrome, 10% DiGeorge syndriime, Marfan
74
Conditions with AR inheritance pattern?
Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler's syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach's disease, Friedrich's ataxia, Wilson's disease, cystic fibrosis
75
Conditions with X-Linked Dominant inheritance pattern?
Vitamin D resistant rickets, Rett syndrome
76
Conditions with X-Linked Recessive inheritance pattern?
Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter's syndrome, Lesch-Nyhan
77
Conditions with mitochondrial inheritance pattern?
Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy, Kearns-Sayre syndrome
78
What are the genes of importance in Early onset Alzheimers?
amyloid precursor protein (APP) - accounts for 10-15% of EOFAD
presenilin one (PSEN-1) - accounts for 30-70% of EOFAD
presenilin two (PSEN-2) - accounts for 5% of EOFAD
*components of enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments of different length
79
Which chromosomes are the genes for EOFAD located on?
presenilin one (PSEN-1) - chromosome 14
presenilin two (PSEN-2) - chromosome 1
amyloid precursor protein (APP) - chromosome 21
80
What is the gene of importance in Late onset Alzheimers?
| How many alleles are there?
apolipoprotein E (APOE)
APOE2 - protective
APOE3 - neutral
APOE4 - increases risk by 10-30x if homozygous, 3x if heterozygous
81
Which chromosomes are the genes for Late onset Alzheimers located on?
Chromosome 19
82
What is CADASIL? Which gene and chromosome is involved?
CADASIL is a form of amyloid angiopathy that can
present with Alzheimer like features.
NOTCH3 is the gene involved
Chromosome 19p13.1-13.2
83
What are the major tauopathies?
Alzheimer's
Pick's (frontotemporal dementia)
Progressive supranuclear palsy
Cortiocobasal degeneration
84
What is the main function of the proteasome?
To degrade cellular proteins
85
What is the best estimate for the monozygotic twin concordance of autism?
DZ twin concordance?
MZ - 75%
| DZ - 34%
86
What are the important candidate genes for schizophrenia?
Important Candidate genes for schizophrenia include:
```
DISC1 - chromosome 1
RGS4 - chromosome 1
DTNBP1 (dysbindin) - chromosome 6 (6p 22.3)
NRG1(neuregulin 1) - chromosome 8 (8p 21-22)
DRD2 - chromosome 11
G72 - chromosome 13
DAOA - chromosome 13
COMT - chromosome 22
```
87
Amino acids are added to RNA molecules to form transfer RNA by which enzyme?
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase.
88
What is the inheritance pattern of Kleinfelter's syndrome?
Sporadic
89
Which enzyme is crucial to the process of transcription?
Polymerase
90
What is the MZ and DZ concordance rate in schizophrenia?
MZ concordance rate of schizophrenia = 50%
| DZ concordance rate of schizophrenia = 17%
91
What is an endophenotype?
An endophenotype is a heritable marker for a condition that is invisible to the naked eye and relies on some form of laboratory measurement.
92
What are the criteria for an endophenotype?
- It is associated with illness in the population
- It is heritable
- It is state independent (present whether or not disease is present)
- Within families, endophenotype and illness co-segregate (the endophenotype is more prevalent among ill relatives of ill probands than healthy ones)
- The endophenotype found in affected family members is found in non affected family members at a higher rate than in the general population.
93
What is a measure of the likelihood of two loci being within a measurable distance of each other?
LOD score
94
What is a measure of the distance between loci?
Recombination fraction
95
What is a molecular technique used to sequence DNA??
Physical mapping
96
What is the phenotypic variation due to modification in the way in which DNA is expressed rather than its sequence?
Epigenetics
97
Which genes predispose people to developing frontotemporal dementia? Which chromosome are they on?
PGRN (progranulin), MAPT (tau)
| Both on chromosome 17
98
Which genes predispose people to developing Huntington's?
IT15 (huntingtin)
99
Which type of chromosome is most susceptible to Robertsonian translocations?
Acrocentric chromosomes (very small p arms)
100
What is the main component of the neurofibrillary tangles seen in Alzheimer's?
Tau
101
Copy number variations have been most associated with which conditions?
autism, schizophrenia, and idiopathic learning disability.
102
What is used to determine the pattern of inheritance for a trait?
Segregation analysis
103
What's a mosaic?
A mosaic is an organism that has more than one genetically-distinct population of cells that arises from a single zygote.
104
A mutation in the SNCA gene that codes for alpha-synuclein has been linked to the development of which condition?
Parkinsons
105
What is the calculation for the probandwise concordance rate?
number of affected twins divided by total number of co-twins
106
What's a haplotype?
A haplotype is a set of DNA variations, or polymorphisms, that tend to be inherited together
107
A mutation affecting the transcriptional activity of a new gene associated with Alzheimers disease is reported. The mutation is most likely to be in which of the following?
Promoter region
108
Which protein attaches to unwanted cellular proteins to label them for degradation by the proteasome?
ubiquitin
109
What are the macroscopic changes of PSP?
Pallor of substantia nigra (with sparing of the locus coeruleus)
Mild midbrain atrophy
Atrophy of the superior cerebellar peduncles
Discolouration of the dentate nucleus
110
What are the microscopic changes of PSP?
Gliosis
Neurofibrillary tangles and tau inclusions in both astrocytes and oligodendrocytes (coiled bodies), particularly in the substantia nigra, subthalamic nucleus and globus pallidus.
111
Which gene is associated with frontotemporal dementia with parkinsonism?
MAPT gene
112
An increase in Brain-derived neurotrophic factor concentrations in cortical areas compared to controls has been demonstrated for which condition?
Schizophrenia
113
Which value of the log of odds [LOD score] is commonly used as a threshold level of significance in linkage studies?
More than 3
114
What is the commonest type of mutations seen in thalassemia?
Missense
115
The investigation of choice used in the diagnosis of Klinefelter's syndrome is?
Karyotyping
116
Which of amino acid constitute the initiation sequence of protein translation?
Methionine
117
Which diagnosis is associated with a mutation in KISS1 gene?
Kallmann syndrome
118
What is Kallmann syndrome?
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism along with anosmia, and occasionally learning difficulties
X-linked recessive
119
What is Kallmann syndrome?
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism along with anosmia, and occasionally learning difficulties
X-linked recessive, autosomal dominant and autosomal recessive patterns of inheritance are observed; however, many cases are sporadic with no Mendelian inheritance pattern
120
What is the value of one centiMorgan?
1% recombination frequency between two loci
121
What is the lifetime risk of schizophrenia in the sibling of a patient?
The lifetime risk of schizophrenia in the sibling of a patient is 9-10%.
122
Which phenomena explain most of the epigenetic variations?
DNA methylation and histone modification
123
A mutation in the shank3 gene is associated with which condition?
Autism
124
What percentage of the human genome is considered to be active with coding sequences?
2%
125
The process by which one gene gives rise to more than one protein is called?
Alternate splicing
126
In Robertsonian translocation, the fusion usually occurs where in the cell?
Centromere
127
Which of the enzyme mediates the binding of tRNA with amino acids?
Aminoacyl synthetase
128
Absence of ankle jerks with upgoing plantars is noted in?
Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord
129
Which psychological test is used in research on animal models of depression?
Forced swim test
130
What are the frontal lobe tests?
verbal fluency tests, category tests, trail making test and Wisconsin card sorting test, Stroop colour word interference test
131
What are the temporal lobe tests?
Benton visual retention test, speech sound perception test, seashore rhythms test and revised Wechsler memory scale
132
Those with alexia and agraphia are also likely to exhibit which problem?
Right visual field defect
133
Double vision that is present only on horizontal gaze is seen in which CN palsy?
Isolated 6th nerve
134
A reduction in the score on the Seashore Musical Aptitude Test may be seen in which type of brain lesion?
Right temporal area damage
135
Which dementia presents with progressive loss of memory for 'words' but good day-to-day memory for events?
Frontotemporal dementia
136
Which test can differentiate organic from psychiatric stuporous states?
Caloric testing - in organic stupor thiswill usually reveal tonic deviation whereas in a psychiatric stupor (catatonia/depression) ocular nystagmus will be present
137
In delirium, which domain of orientation is the first to be affected?
Time
138
The clinical sign of finger-nose ataxia is seen in lesions of which structure?
Inferior olivary nucleus
139
Which subtest of Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) declines with aging?
Block design
140
What is noted when the temporal order of memory is disturbed leading to out-of-context retrieval?
Confabulation
141
ZNF804A polymorphism is implicated in which condition?
Schizophrenia
142
Which genes predispose people to developing Parkinsons?
LRRK2, PINK1, Alpha-synuclein
143
This consists of ten tests, including the trail making test and critical flicker frequency test
Halstead-Reitan battery of neuropsychological tests
144
This consists of 120 items plus several alternative tests, applicable to the ages between 2 years and adulthood.
Stanford-Binet intelligence scale
145
This test results can reveal whether a subject has amnestic Korsakoff's syndrome
Wechsler memory scale
146
This is a test of intelligence, considered to be free of sociocultural bias.
Raven's progressive matrices - tests non-verbal intelligence
147
Which test gives a fast estimate of current performance IQ?
Raven's progressive matrices
148
Which test estimates the premorbid IQ level?
National adult reading test
149
Which test is a part of the WAIS verbal subtests?
Digit span
150
Left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex lesion is most likely to be impair which test result ?
Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (executive function)
151
What is a test of visual memory ?
Rey-Osterreith test - subject copies a complex figure made of basic geometric shapes and then draws it from memory
152
What is a test of verbal memory?
Paired associate learning test
153
What's a test to determine organic brain disease?
Halstead & Reitan developed a battery of tests that was used to determine the location and the effects of specific brain lesions - includes the trail making test and critical flicker frequency test
Luria-Nebraska battery can screen for the presence of a significant brain injury
154
Which test measures set shifting abilities and response inhibition?
Stroop test
155
Which test measures visuospatial and perceptuomotor speed?
trail making test
156
Which test is a screening measure for signs of organic dysfunction?
Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
157
What are the behavioural tests for visuospatial memory?
radial arm maze test
The Morris water navigation task
The T-maze test
158
What are the behavioural tests for sensorimotor gating?
Latent inhibition test
159
What are the behavioural tests for depression?
Yoked shock test
| Forced swim test
160
What are the behavioural tests for anxiety?
Light-dark box
| Elevated plus maze
161
What type of study is used to identify a specific disease locus?
Association studies
162
What type of study is used to establish chromosomal location of a disease locus?
Linkage studies
163
What type of study is used to implicate molecular pathways?
Transgenic studies
164
What type of study is used to determine whether a disease is familial or not?
Family study
165
What type of study is used to determine the relative contribution of genetic and environmental factors in a disease?
Twin studies
| Adoption studies
166
What is used in experiments to decrease gene expression?
Si- RNA
167
What provides a bridge between m-RNA and amino acids?
t-RNA
168
Which enzyme attaches amino acids to t-RNA?
Aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase
169
What are the tract of fibres that connect frontal and temporal lobes?
Superior longitudinal fasciculus
| Uncinate fasciculus,
170
What are the dominant structures involved in stereotactic brain mapping?
Anterior commissure
| Posterior commissure
171
Which tract plays a crucial role in object recognition?
Inferior longitudinal fasciculus
172
EEG findings in Alzheimer's
reduced alpha wave
173
EEG findings in partial seizures
largely localised spike or spike-wave discharges
174
EEG findings in psychopathy and ASPD
Immature posterior temporal slow waves are reported in psychopathy
175
EEG findings in delirium
generalised increased delta waves and some alpha wave activity
