Psychology Flashcards

Question

Fixed Ratio reinforcement schedule

Answer 1

Reward occurs after a specific number of responses e.g. after completing 20 MCQs, you give yourself a coffee (or chocolate) break.

Answer 2

Reward occurs after a random number of responses e.g. gambling slot machines. Your first win of £20 on a gamble may occur after 3 tries; then the next win may not occur even if you play 30 times, while the third win may follow in quick succession after the second.

Answer 3

Variable schedules, because the chance of obtaining a reward stays the same at any time and for any instance of behaviour

Answer 4

learning the probability of an event.

Answer 5

a.k.a. Grandma’s rule --> high-frequency behaviour can be used to reinforce low frequency behaviour e.g. “eat your greens and you can have dessert” An existing high-frequency behaviour (eating dessert) is used to reward low-frequency behaviour (eating greens).

Answer 6

an operant conditioning where an organism learns to avoid certain responses or situations *A special form of avoidance is escape conditioning seen in agoraphobia where places in which panic occurs are avoided / escaped from leading to a housebound state eventually.

Answer 7

an operant conditioning where punishment is used to reduce the frequency of target behaviour e.g. the use of disulfiram (noxious stimuli) to reduce the frequency of drinking alcohol

Answer 8

the reinforcer is an imagined pleasant event rather than any material pleasure e.g. imagining MRCPsych graduation event to reinforce the behaviour of practicing MCQs.

Answer 9

The reinforcer is the imagination of unpleasant consequences to reduce the frequency of an undesired behaviour e.g. an alcoholic may be deterred from continuing to spend on alcohol by imagining his wife leaving him, being unable to support himself and ending up broke and homeless

Answer 10

An operant conditioning technique where exposure to feared stimulus takes place for a substantial amount of time so the accompanying anxiety response fades away while the stimulus is continuously present e.g. a man with a phobia of heights standing on top of the Burj Khalifa or the Shard. This will lead to the extinction of fear. When a similar technique is attempted with imagined not actual exposure then this is called implosion.

Answer 11

a.k.a. successive approximation a form of operant conditioning where a desirable behaviour pattern is learnt by the successive reinforcement of behaviours closer to the desired one.

Answer 12

reinforcing a series of related behaviours, each of which provides the cue for the next to obtain a reinforcer.

Answer 13

An emotional response increases in strength if brief but repeated exposure of the stimulus is present. Rumination of anxiety-provoking stimuli can serve to increase the anxiety via incubation. This is a powerful mechanism that maintains phobic anxiety and PTSD.

Answer 14

Wolpe: If stimulus with desired response and stimulus with the undesired response are presented together repeatedly, then the incompatibility leads to a reduction in frequency of the undesired response. e.g. A family has got a new dog. A 3-year-old child in the family is afraid of dogs and would stay in the same room with the dog only if he could sit on his mother's lap and had his favourite ice cream.

Answer 15

Bandura believed that not all learning occurred due to direct reinforcement, and proposed that people could learn simply by observing the behaviour of others and the outcomes.

Answer 16

1. Attention to observed behaviour is the basic element in learning. 2. Visual image and semantic encoding of observed behaviour memory 3. Memory permanence via retention and rehearsal 4. Motor copying of the behaviour and imitative reproduction 5. Motivation to act.

Answer 17

Bandura Children watching a model showing aggression against a bobo doll learnt to display the aggression without any reinforcement schedules--> shows Reciprocal causation

Answer 18

``` 1 Classical conditioning (signal learning) 2 Operant conditioning 3 Chaining 4 Verbal association 5 Discrimination learning 6 Concept learning 7 Rule learning 8 Problem solving ```

Answer 19

Proximity = Incompletely closed figures are perceived as fully closed Closure = Incompletely closed figures are perceived as fully closed Continuity = Continuous items are perceived as one object Similarity = Similar items are grouped together based on colour or shape etc. Common fate =Things moving together are perceived as one object.

Answer 20

a. Retinal image disparity b. Stereopsis c. Accommodation (monocular) d. Convergence

Answer 21

a. Size b. Brightness c. Superimposition d. Texture e. Linear perspective (rails converge at distance, wide apart when closer) f. Aerial perspective (colour – blue mountains means a distant sight) g. Motion parallax (closer it is faster it seems)

Answer 22

an apparatus used to test an infant’s perception of depth. A pane of thick glass covers a shallow drop and a deep drop. The underlying surfaces of both deep and shallow sides are covered with the same chequered pattern. Children of six months and older will not venture to the ‘deep side’ and this is taken as an indication that the child can perceive depth

Answer 23

if light is shown from a small, dim, and fixed light source for an extended period of time in a dark room, it will appear as if the light source is moving.

Answer 24

a perceptual illusion described by Wertheimer. This refers to the phenomenon in which a false perception of motion is produced by a succession of still images shown with fixed time interval rapidly

Answer 25

Gestalt is an example of a bottom-up theory. According to bottom up theories, perception is purely data driven and directly starts with the optic array. Piecing together of basic elements of the data gives rise to more complex systems.

Answer 26

Gregory’s constructivist theory is an example of a top-down theory. According to this theory, retinal images are sketchy and cannot explain the complex and fully formed perceptions that we experience. Perception is best defined as a process of using information known already to formulate and test a hypothesis.

Answer 27

any perceptual situation in which a physical object is perceived but appears different from what it really is

Answer 28

an experience in which an object (e.g. sound or light) is perceived in the absence of any corresponding object in the real world.

Answer 29

visual scanning, tracking, fixating, figure-ground | discrimination (present from birth)

Answer 30

size constancy, shape constancy, depth perception, shape discrimination.

Answer 31

feeding one message into the left ear and a different message simultaneously into the right ear

Answer 32

the ability of people to be able to switch their attention rapidly to a nonprocessed message. The cocktail party effect shows that certain types of stimuli can elicit switching between messages

Answer 33

Our ability to process information is capacity limited. o A temporary buffer system receives all information and passes it to a selective filter. o The selection is based on physical characteristics of the information – one source is selected and others are rejected. People can only attend to one physical channel of information at a time

Answer 34

physical characteristics and semantic relevance (meaning) are used to select one message for full processing while other messages are given partial processing

Answer 35

This model rejects Broadbent and suggests that filtering occurs only later, after all inputs are analysed at a higher level.

Answer 36

Later Broadbent revised the early selection filter theory and stated that apart from filtering, pigeon-holing can also take place. o Pigeonholing is similar to filtering but selection is not based on physical characters; it is based on categorisation

Answer 37

when we first learn a task it is under conscious attention system

Answer 38

When we become skilled at it, open loop control takes over. Open loop is controlled by automatic motor processes. It is fast and allows conscious attention to be diverted to other activities

Answer 39

The ability to perceive individual items of information (respond discretely to the specific modality of stimuli).

Answer 40

The ability to maintain a consistent behavioral response during continuous and repetitive activity.

Answer 41

The ability to avoid distractions from internal or external cues and maintain a behavioural or cognitive set in the face of competing stimuli.

Answer 42

The ability of mental flexibility that allows individuals to shift their focus of attention and move between tasks having different cognitive requirements.

Answer 43

This is the highest level of attention and it refers to the ability to respond simultaneously to multiple tasks or multiple task demands.

Answer 44

Stroop test and letter cancellation tasks

Answer 45

an underlying attentional abnormality for those with a genetic predisposition for psychosis. The overall reaction time is much slower in patients with schizophrenia and their relatives; sustained attention, distraction, verbal memory and controlled processing are also affected.

Answer 46

1. Encoding - It leads to the formation of initial memory traces and receives information from the outside. 2. Storage - Retention of information and maintenance 3. Retrieval - Accessing and recovering information from memory stores

Answer 47

William James

Answer 48

This is modality specific, has a large capacity but gets disrupted by the inflow of new information in the same modality. Each sense has its own sensory memory: - iconic (visual) lasting 0.5 seconds - echoic (auditory) lasting 2 seconds e No processing is involved in sensory memory. If attention is paid to the sensory memories during perception, sensory memory gets consolidated or ‘moves’ into the short-term memory system.

Answer 49

7+/- 2 items encoding is largely acoustic Unaided, STM lasts 15 to 30 seconds By maintenance rehearsal, this can be increased further up to indefinite periods. W/o maintenance rehearsal then by 15 seconds the original material is completely forgotten

Answer 50

digit span+/-2 Normal reverse digit span in a working age adult is 5

Answer 51

This has unlimited capacity and lasts for an indefinite duration. The coding is largely semantic, though visual and acoustic coding can occur to some extent

Answer 52

Semantic memory includes factual knowledge of the world. It is proposed to be made of multiple episodic memory components information is stored in pure form without specification of time and place

Answer 53

Working memory is proposed to have central executive and 2 arms – phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad. The central executive is capacity limited but modality free, similar to attention system. The phonological loop consists of auditory rehearsal loops while visuospatial scratch pad consists of pattern recognition and movement perception components. The 4th component of WM is sometimes called episodic buffer. This is a multimodal store that integrates info from the slave systems onto LTM. This buffer is important for chunking.

Answer 54

Regardless of the length of a list, the initial words (primacy) and last few words (recency) are remembered better than those at the middle of the list. recency is better preserved than primacy

Answer 55

-Recognition (solving MCQs) -Recall (actively searching and reproducing), -Reintegration/reconstruction (recollection of past experiences based on certain cues). An eyewitness testimony is a reconstructive memory, which is a mode of retrieval from long-term memory. However, reconstructive memory of events as in eyewitness testimony is affected by the type of questioning asked to elicit the memory.

Answer 56

Hermann Ebbinghaus -Forgetting is maximum in the first few hours (NINE), and the rate of forgetting gets less with time. -Forgetting is never complete, and some information is retained over longer periods of time, even for life. -Recalling the material during the test period increases the probability of remembering items or events. -Continuous motor skills, such as cycling and swimming, show no forgetting at all. But discrete motors skills such as typing are lost more quickly.

Answer 57

Distinctly vivid long-lasting memories of a personal circumstance surrounding a person’s discovery of shocking events. *forgetting curve for the flashbulb memories is far less affected by time than other types of memories.

Answer 58

neural engrams breakdown with time. This means that disuse with time is the cause of forgetting

Answer 59

Displacement theory states that due to capacity limitation new info replaces old information.

Answer 60

Retrieval failure theory states that due to lack of proper cues to recall we forget things.

Answer 61

According to interference theory forgetting occurs due to interference. When newly learnt material interferes with recall of old material, this is called retroactive interference. Proactive interference refers to the interference of new learning from older learnt material.

Answer 62

a marked impairment in episodic memory Anterograde Amnesia: The loss of the ability to form or retain new episodic memories after an injury/lesion/event Retrograde amnesia: The loss of episodic memories that were stored before brain damage had occurred

Answer 63

transient cerebral ischemia causing a temporary lack of blood supply to the regions of the brain concerned with memory functions. The main features include sudden onset of severe anterograde amnesia with a retrograde amnesia for the preceding days or weeks *if this amnesia occurs without brain injury it is psychogenic amnesia

Answer 64

a type of psychogenic global amnesia in which there is a sudden loss of all autobiographical memories, knowledge of self and personal identity. Usually, there is a period of wandering, and there is an amnesic gap upon recovery. It usually last a matter of hours or days. Memory recovery is complete after few hours or days.

Answer 65

non-verbal memory test. Here the subject is first asked to copy a complex geometric figure and then to draw from memory after an interval of 30 minutes. The recall is impaired in patients with dementia and amnesic syndrome

Answer 66

subject is asked to read a short story from the Wechsler memory scale containing 25 elements and both immediate and delayed recall after an interval of 30 minutes is tested.

Answer 67

the pre-frontal lobes

Answer 68

the left hemisphere regions of Broca's area and | prefrontal cortex

Answer 69

the parietal and prefrontal areas of the right | hemisphere.

Answer 70

the regions of the limbic system especially the hippocampus and the entorhinal cortex of the medial temporal lobe *Episodic memory Semantic memory Autobiographical memory

Answer 71

``` Variable and situational (situationalism) Shared features (nomothetic) ```

Answer 72

* Shared features (nomothetic) | * Consistent/enduring (dispositional)

Answer 73

``` Unique features (idiographic) •Consistent and enduring (dispositional) ```

Answer 74

``` Unique features (idiographic) •Variable and situational (situationalism) ```

Answer 75

1. Cardinal traits: influential, core traits 2. Central traits: 5 – 10 traits, less general 3. Secondary traits: least important, least consistent traits that only close friends can notice.

Answer 76

Surface traits are correlated to one another but not important for understanding one’s personality and Source traits that are basic building blocks of the 16 PF questionnaire devised by Cattell.

Answer 77

3 dimensional traits. These are neuroticism | vs. stability), psychoticism and extraversion (vs. introversion

Answer 78

four dimensions of temperament: 1. Novelty-seeking (includes frustration avoidance, impulsive decision-making) 2. Harm-avoidance (pessimistic worry about the future, passive avoidant behaviour, fear of uncertainty) ; 3. Reward-dependence (sentimentality, social attachment, and dependence on praise and approval) 4. Persistence (high perseverance and tolerance of frustration) Which may manifest as 3 components of character: self-directedness, cooperativeness, and self-transcendence.

Answer 79

In general Cluster A personalities are associated with low reward-dependence. Cluster B personality with high novelty-seeking and Cluster C personalities with high harm-avoidance traits. mad, bad, sad

Answer 80

a single trait theory

Answer 81

1. Openness 2. Conscientiousness 3. Extraversion 4. Agreeableness 5. Neuroticism (OCEAN)

Answer 82

NEO decreases with age; AC | increases with age.

Answer 83

iindividually administered tests to obtain information about emotional functioning. based on the principle that ambiguous unstructured open-ended situations stimulate projection of an individual’s internal emotional world onto the stimulus (environment)

Answer 84

-Rorschach is the most commonly used, consists of 10 inkblots, sequentially presented and asked to describe. Has two phases – free association and inquiry phase – -Thematic Apperception Test (Murray) TAT has 20-30 pictures and one blank card and the subject has to make a story from each depicted picture; not all cards are used. Stimuli somewhat more structured. -Jung introduced Word Association Test (WAT). In WAT and -sentence completion test -Draw-a-person test

Answer 85

Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory (MMPI) Q-sort technique The International Personality Disorder Examination (IPDE):

Answer 86

Maslow | physiological --> safety --> belonging --> self-esteem --> self-actualisation

Answer 87

 Spontaneous in their ideas and actions.  Creative.  Interested in solving problems.  Appreciate life.  Have a system of internalized independent morality.  Able to view all things in an objective manner.

Answer 88

An inverted U-shaped curve relates the level of arousal with the performance of an act. Optimum arousal (moderate) is required for best performance; too low or too high arousal proves to be a hindrance e.g. sexual performance.

Answer 89

1. Parents who encouraged independence in childhood 2. Praise and rewards for success 3. Association of achievement with positive feelings 4. Association of achievement with one's own competence and effort, not luck 5. A desire to be effective or challenged 6. Intrapersonal strength 7. Desirability 8. Feasibility 9. Goal Setting abilities

Answer 90

6 --> surprise, fear, sadness, anger, happiness and disgust

Answer 91

1. Subjective ‘cortical’ experience 2. Physiological ‘visceral’ changes 3. Associated behavioural (‘skeletal’) changes.

Answer 92

Perception of a stimulus leads to bodily (skeletal and visceral) changes. The peripheral responses send feedback to the cortex via thalamus leading to the perception of the emotion. 'Emotion is secondary to physiological changes

Answer 93

On the perception of a stimulus, thalamus coordinates signals to cortex leading to a conscious experience and simultaneously sends signals to hypothalamus leading to physiological changes.

Answer 94

On the perception of a stimulus, both physiological changes and a conscious experience of general arousal take place simultaneously This theory suggests that emotions result from both physiological changes and the context. For example if your heart is racing and you're about to have an exam you label yourself as afraid, but if your heart is racing and your about to kiss your boyfriend/girlfriend you label your emotional state as excited. Stimulus for emotion arises via a combination of physical sensations and the mind appraisal of them.

Answer 95

appraisal precedes affective reaction – hence affective primacy cannot be supported

Answer 96

individuals with one or two copies of the short allele of the 5-HT T promoter polymorphism exhibited more depressive symptoms, diagnosable depression, and suicidality in relation to stressful life events than individuals homozygous for the long allele

Answer 97

Unconscious, conscious and preconscious (Maintains the ‘repressive barrier’ to censor unacceptable wishes and desires )

Answer 98

1. sleep-wake cycle, 2. cycles lasting < 24 hours 3. cycles lasting more than a day 4. Infradian rhythms that occur as a result of seasonal changes

Answer 99

suprachiasmatic nucleus

Answer 100

zeitgebers

Answer 101

Using imageries Mnemonics sing primacy-Recency effects Chunking

Answer 102

Repression

Answer 103

Retrospective falsification

Answer 104

National Adult Reading Test Weschler's test for Adult reading Barona demographic equation method Matrix reasoning subtest of WAIS-R.

Answer 105

Failure of prospective memory

Answer 106

Friedman and Rosenman Type A persons show impatience, excessive time consciousness, insecurity, high competitiveness, hostility and aggression and are incapable of relaxation. They may be high achievers and workaholics. Type B persons are relaxed and easy-going; creative, often self-analyze and evade stress but cope poorly when under stress.

Answer 107

Trace conditioning

Answer 108

Time out or loss of privileges are used as negative reinforcement strategies to reduce unwanted behaviours in children

Answer 109

Goldstein's card sorting test

Answer 110

Immediate memory

Answer 111

Biofeedback involves the transmission to subjects of information about biological functions. It can modify cardiovascular function and is a useful method of reducing muscle tension.

Answer 112

Poor attention span

Answer 113

intelligent behaviour arises from a balance between analytical, creative and practical abilities, and that these abilities function collectively to allow individuals to achieve success within particular sociocultural contexts

Answer 114

. Attention to observed behaviour is the basic element in learning. 2. Visual image and semantic encoding of observed behaviour memory 3. Memory permanence via retention and rehearsal 4. Motor copying of the behaviour and imitative reproduction 5. Motivation to act.

Answer 115

General intellectual ability (nonverbal intelligence)

Answer 116

The process of recalling an entire memory from a partial cue, like remembering a speech upon hearing the first few words, is called reintegration.

Answer 117

Elaborative rehearsal

Answer 118

Episodic memory

Answer 119

Frontal lobe | Prefrontal cortex

Answer 120

In organic amnesia recent memory content is lost before remote content.

Answer 121

Anterograde amnesia due to failure to consolidation

Answer 122

Blocking (retrieval failure)

Answer 123

deficiency needs - Safety needs, Physiological needs, Love and belonging needs, Esteem needs

Answer 124

Retrieval failure

Answer 125

Vision | Visual acuity reaches near adult levels by 6 months of age

Answer 126

perceptual bias that predisposes the perceiver to notice only certain aspects of a stimulus and to ignore the other aspect - determined by factors both in the perceiver and in the stimulus - influenced by Emotions - influenced by past experiences

Answer 127

-Beliefs are based on our knowledge of the world and link an object to an attribute. They are non-evaluative and objective e.g. ‘USA is a nation built on capitalism’. -Values relate to the importance or desirability of the object. It is largely subjective and has preferential patterns attached e.g. ‘I do not like capitalism’. Values can turn beliefs to attitudes – ‘I dislike American people’.

Answer 128

1. Affective component: what the person feels about the object (favourable/ unfavourable evaluations) – e.g. I love chocolate 2. Cognitive component: thoughts, beliefs, knowledge about the object – e.g. Chocolate keeps me active 3. Behavioural component: actual or intended responses to the object e.g. I eat chocolate every day

Answer 129

-Knowledge function: attitudes are frames of reference that simplify the world, help make quick appraisals -Value expressive function: reflect fundamental self-concepts – self-expressive and maintains personal integrity e.g. vegetarianism -Social adjustment function: help to function in a group setting, social acceptance -Ego-defensive function protects from character or personal deficiencies – this function makes attitudes very resistant to change

Answer 130

People strive for consistency between thoughts, feelings and actions. If there is a discrepancy between different attitudes (cognitive dissonance) or between attitudes and behaviours (attitude-behaviour discrepancy), then this initiates and drives either a change in attitudes (more common) or a change in behaviours Coined by Festinger

Answer 131

All subjects in an experiment were asked to do a very boring repetitive task for 30 minutes. The first group was a control group; the second group (called 1- dollar group) was paid $1 to say that the task was fun and interesting, the third group (called 20-dollar group) was paid $20 to say that the task was fun and interesting. All participants were asked to rate how enjoyable they had found the task. Contrary to popular belief, the group, which was paid more, did not appreciate the boring task. As they obtained a good incentive, they did not develop a dissonance. They lied about its usefulness but in fact they did not change their belief about the boring nature of this task. In contrast, the lowly paid group did experience a cognitive dissonance between the two facts - ‘This task is boring’ and ‘I am doing this task without much incentive’, hence they changed their initial attitude towards the task and, in fact, started liking the task

Answer 132

1. Removal or denial of the dissonant cognition 2. Trivialising the dissonant cognition 3. Adding a new consonant cognition to counterbalance the dissonance

Answer 133

measures attitudes hundreds of statements are produced pertaining to a particular topic. These statements are presented to a sample (similar to a panel of judges) who is asked to score the statements on an 11 point scale. A set number of statements e.g. 10 each on both extremes (positive and negativeattitude) are chosen based on the consistency of scores given by the judges.

Answer 134

measures attitudes includes graded ‘agree’ to ‘disagree’ measures. This is one of the most popular and statistically more reliable measures. It is easy to construct, and no assumptions are made about the equality of intervals Five responses to each statement

Answer 135

used to measure interpersonal attitudes in a repertory grid-like fashion i.e. who like whom tables. These are called sociograms.

Answer 136

used to measure verbally expressed attitudes. s. It allows different attitudes about a particular topic to be measured on the same scale 7 points on the scale It may be subject to positional response bias.

Answer 137

by Cooley suggests that like a mirror, others around us reflect our self-image *We develop self-concept by Reaction of others

Answer 138

It demonstrates Self-recognition When a red dot is unknowingly placed on the face of a child, the child starts touching its face to explore the dot when a mirror is shown. This ‘touching the dot’ phenomenon does not occur less than 15 months of age. 5 to 25% infants touch the dot by 18 months while nearly 75% touch the dot by age 20 months.

Answer 139

This is the process by which we make judgments about causes of behaviour. We tend to attribute behaviours to events that co-vary with those behaviours over time. e.g. if A is an event that occurs when the behaviour B is observed, then we often assume A causes B

Answer 140

1. Consensus (if consensus is low = dispositional attribution) 2. Distinctiveness (If distinctiveness is high, stimulus or target is considered to be at fault) 3. Consistency (if consistency is low = situational attribution)

Answer 141

1. Locus: external/internal 2. Stability: transient/permanent 3. Controllability: controllable/uncontrollable

Answer 142

o overestimating dispositional factors and not situational factors while attributing causes for other’s behaviours. *Attributing others mistakes to their personal dispositions

Answer 143

When one is involved as an agent in a specific behaviour then he/she attributes external causality to the behaviour

Answer 144

The actor observer effect is most pronounced when judging negative behaviours This may be absent or reversed for positive behaviours. Hence such self-serving bias offers self enhancement and defense.

Answer 145

the idea that ‘I am a just person living in a just world; everyone here gets what they really deserve’. ‘Bad things happen to bad people’, leading to blaming-the-victim culture.

Answer 146

the tendency to view other person’s behaviour to be representative of a group’s behaviour (culture or racial stereotypes are thus formed).

Answer 147

The tendency to perceive other persons as wholly good or bad based on few observed traits (e.g. physical attractiveness); i.e. making inferences about people using limited, superficial information

Answer 148

A form of self-fulfilling prophecy wherein students with poor expectations from their teachers internalize their negative label and perform poorly, and those with positive expectations internalise their positive labels and succeed academically

Answer 149

Theory of Mind (ToM) develops around age 3 ½ to 4 years. ToM refers to the understanding that other persons do have mental processes similar to self; in this context it forms an essential part of the social attribution process.

Answer 150

Children are first shown the picture of Sally, leaving a chocolate on the counter before departing the scene. Anne later comes in and moves the object from the counter to a box. The children are then asked to predict where Sally will look for the chocolate when she returns to the room. Children aged 4 and above generally grasp the notion that Sally will hold a false belief and look at the place where she left the chocolate initially. 3-year-olds fail to ascribe this false belief to Sally.

Answer 151

A child is shown a closed candy container and is asked, “What’s in here?” When the child answers ‘candy’, the container is opened, revealing a pencil. Later when the child is asked what she originally thought was in the container when she was first asked, Three-year-olds incorrectly answer “a pencil,” demonstrating a lack of false belief whereas 4- year-olds correctly say “candy.”

Answer 152

These tasks relate to the understanding that other people (a second person) can have their own thoughts about another (third) person’s state of mind. These tests are usually passed by the age of 6 years in typically developing children.

Answer 153

the amygdala, orbitofrontal cortex, inferior parietal and medial frontal cortex.

Answer 154

1. Proximity: minimal requirement for most relationships. 2. Exposure refers to reciprocal disclosure – this may enhance the relationship. Females do more self-disclosure than males. 3. Similarity – may increase self-esteem in a relationship as one gets validation for similar interests. 4. Complementarity – not so important initially but increases in importance as a longterm relationship develops. 5. Compatibility is proportional to both similarity and complementarity.

Answer 155

1. Companionate love: True or conjugal love where intimacy and commitment seen; passion is not high. 2. Passionate love: intimate and passionate but not much commitment – obsessive, romantic and infatuated. 3. Consummate love: intimacy, passion and commitment all well mixed. 4. Fatuous love: passion and commitment but no intimacy seen.

Answer 156

1. Ideational Function: enable people thinking with language to interpret experience. 2. Interpersonal Function: enable people acting with language to communicate experience and thoughts 3. Textual Function: enable people organise of a message with language.

Answer 157

1. Phonology: The study of sound structure 2. Morphology: The study of sound structure 3. Syntax: The study of sentence structure 4. Phonetics: The study of physical act of speaking 5. Semantics: The study of the connection of language to meanings. Semanticists consider that meanings are inherent in sentences; while communication intentionists consider that meaning is not inherent but comes from something that people do when using language 6. Pragmatics: The study of the connection of context to meanings. 7. Sociolinguistics: The study of the connection of language to social situations 8 Semiotics: The study of signs and symbols in relation to their form and content

Answer 158

1. Ingratiation: eliciting likeableness 2. Reciprocity: doing a favour first, making one indebted. 3. Arousal of guilt 4. Scarcity: ‘offers valid only till stocks last; so hurry!’ 5. Social validation: ‘everyone is going to Argos? What about you?’ 6. Multiple requests a. Foot in the door technique: if one agrees to small request this increases the likelihood of saying yes again. b. Door in the face technique (concession effect): when a larger request is turned down initially this increases the likelihood of agreeing to a smaller subsequent request. c. Low-ball tactic: hiding the costs and disadvantages initially but revealing after an agreement is reached.

Answer 159

mass suggestion or influence via emotional manipulation of an individual.

Answer 160

1. Induction of stereotypes 2. Substitution of names to facilitate scapegoating and scaremongering 3. Selected facts presentation 4. Repeating same messages in various forms 5. Presenting assertions instead of rational arguments 6. Pinpointing an enemy

Answer 161

Conformity is a process where no explicit requirement is made to do a certain task, but peer influence, and the need for acceptance pushes one to carry out the task

Answer 162

Obedience refers to conditions where the individual is explicitly asked to do a task, and this instruction comes from an authority

Answer 163

Men conform less than women People with lower intelligence, poorer ego strength, poor leadership abilities and having inferiority feelings conform more often.

Answer 164

The group can make more risky decisions than what an individual him/herself can.

Answer 165

A group discussion process can strengthen average individual inclinations and polarise the group in the direction where most individuals were heading already.

Answer 166

While making extreme decisions, the desire to agree with other members of a group can override rational judgment applicable in individual decision-making

Answer 167

- Normative influence: People have a need not to appear odd or ‘stick out’ like a sore thumb. So they say yes to what others in the group say. - Informational influence: Having more information after group discussion can facilitate decision-making - Social identity: A group norm is established soon after a group is formed. This creates a social identity and pressure to conform to maintain the belongingness.

Answer 168

the most talkative member spoke for 40-50% of the time, and second most talkative 23-30% of the time

Answer 169

1. Reward Power - based on the perceived ability to give positive consequences or remove negative ones 2. Coercive Power - the perceived ability to punish those who not conform with your ideas or demands 3. Legitimate Power - based on the perception that someone has the right to prescribe behaviour due to election or appointment to a position of responsibility 4. Referent Power - through association with others who possess power 5. Expert Power - based on having distinctive knowledge, expertness, ability or skills 6. Information Power (Similar to 5) - based on controlling the information

Answer 170

1. Autocratic – leader’s decision-making occurs without consultation from the others and causes the most discontent. It works if no need for input on decision i.e. that motivation would not be affected by not being consulted. 2. Democratic – leader’s decision-making involves others though the decision may ultimately made by the leader having facilitated group discussion and discussed opinions. It is a well-regarded process but can be time-consuming. 3. Laissez-Faire – leader’s involvement in decision-making is minimal, so others make their own decision. It works well if those involved are capable and motivated, and no need for central coordination.

Answer 171

1. Cognitive component – stereotypes 2. Affective component – hostility 3. Behavioural component – which according to Allport can be a. anti-locution b. avoidance c. discrimination d. physical attack or e. extermination in terms of increasing severity

Answer 172

Authoritarians are prejudiced in a generalised manner; difficult upbringing and disciplinarian rules in childhood may lead to a projection of difficulties on minorities.

Answer 173

In situations of extreme frustration when the source of such frustration is too powerful, we may tend to displace aggression towards a soft target – the scapegoat.

Answer 174

The discrepancy between actual attainments and expectations of a society is called relative deprivation. Any acute changes can cause a sudden substantial relative deprivation, leading to unrest and scapegoating follows. Note that the relative deprivation is subjective to individuals in a group, and the competition may be within individuals (egoistic) or between groups (fraternalistic).

Answer 175

This asserts that the mere suggestion of competition is enough to trigger prejudices. (no real lack of resources or acute deprivation is necessary)

Answer 176

Prejudice exhibited by a person could be | lesser when he/she himself experienced such prejudice in the past.

Answer 177

When contact occurs between opposite group members under equal status and in pursuit of common goals, this can reduce prejudice.

Answer 178

Human aggression is due the death instinct Thanatos - an instinctive biological destructive death related urge that gradually builds up in everyone and must at some point be released

Answer 179

Through the process of natural selection, aggression ensures survival of the aggressor’s genes passing from one generation to the other. It helps in the fight for the survival of the fittest.

Answer 180

It is controversial whether aggression is inherited; it is often the case in animal species. But in humans however, people may not necessarily inherit the tendency to be aggressive; instead they may inherit certain temperaments, such as impulsiveness, that in turn make aggression more likely

Answer 181

Bandura Doll demonstrates the power of observational learning.

Answer 182

proposed by Dollard et al. (1939). It holds that frustration always results in aggression and conversely aggression will not occur unless a person is frustrated

Answer 183

Berkowitz (1993) later modified Dollard’s proposal Frustration produces not aggression but a readiness to respond aggressively; once this readiness exists, cues in the environment (e.g. knives, guns, etc.) will often lead a frustrated person to behave aggressively; neither frustration nor cues alone can trigger the aggressive behaviour.

Answer 184

arousal (e.g. physiological) from one source | may energise some other response. This is called transferred excitation

Answer 185

people in-group context act uncharacteristically more aggressive as a sense of identity and belongingness and diffusion of responsibility occurs in groups. Similarly, uniforms can reduce individuality, promoting expression of aggression

Answer 186

1. High arousal 2. Disinhibition – ‘this is happening everywhere; it is not uncommon.' 3. Imitation: e.g. copycat crimes and suicides – Shannon Matthews incident in UK (2008) is speculated to be akin to a channel 4 drama episode (Shameless). 4. Desensitisation: due to repeated showing 5. Priming- enhancing automatic associations of certain stimuli with a crime

Answer 187

Any action that is intended to help others

Answer 188

Altruism is often considered to be a motivation behind people’s prosocial acts. Altruism refers to the wish to help others with no expectation of reward.

Answer 189

When alone, individuals will typically intervene if another person is in need of help

Answer 190

intervention becomes less likely to an extent that no single person will intervene from a crowd or group of observers when someone is in need of help

Answer 191

members of a crowd looking at each other for signs of distress but remaining calm themselves, leading to misappraisal of the situation being safe leading to lack of intervention.

Answer 192

Bodily self

Answer 193

The presence of others reduces task performance Ringelmann demonstrated it in the 1880s by observing tug-of-war teams. He demonstrated that the more people there were in a team, the less the effort made by each person in the team.

Answer 194

The psychological equivalent of the butterfly effect in chaos theory. According to this notion, large changes within a system or structure often depends on the initial conditions in which a small change can result in a large catastrophe. e.g. A patient feels unhappy with respect to one aspect of his life. Soon he observes that this unhappiness affects several other aspects of his life as well, resulting in a depressed state of mind.

Answer 195

Ambiguous tasks tend to lead to more conformity as people may feel less certain of their own ideas.

Answer 196

Administering by proxy Relieving the subject from responsibility of actions Subject achieving an agentic state Authority figure providing instructions

Answer 197

A. Low pressure to comply; B. Wide perceived choice of options C. Awareness of responsibility for consequences D. Unpleasant consequences for others.

Answer 198

Dissonance is lowered if the behaviour is altered; cognitions are dismissed, and new cognitions are added.

Answer 199

External attribution for negative events

Answer 200

Hostile (also called angry or affective) aggression is motivated by the need to express negative feelings, such as anger

Answer 201

Open debate

Answer 202

Diffusion of responsibility: people feel that the responsibility is not theirs, and someone else will do something.

Answer 203

``` Class 1: Professional, managerial and landowners Class 2: Intermediate Class 3: Skilled, manual, clerical Class 4: semi-skilled Class 5: unskilled Class 6: unemployed ```

Answer 204

Anorexia BPAD Suicide Alcoholism

Answer 205

A scoring system developed by the British general practitioner Brian Jarman for the level of social deprivation in a community, using census data on percentages of old people living alone, single-parent families, children younger than 5 years of age, unskilled and unemployed persons, ethnic minorities, overcrowded dwellings, changes of address in previous year, etc

Answer 206

Parsons 1. The sick person is freed or exempted from carrying out normal social roles 2. People who are ‘sick’ are not directly responsible for their disease. 3. It is necessary that a sick person tries to get well. 4. A sick person must seek competent help and cooperate with medical care to get well.

Answer 207

Disease: refers to actual pathology (e.g. a process that results in illness) Illness refers to personal experience (a set of symptoms suffered by a patient) Sickness refers to social consequences (e.g. absence from work)

Answer 208

Disease: refers to actual pathology (e.g. a process that results in illness) Illness refers to personal experience (a set of symptoms suffered by a patient) Sickness refers to social consequences (e.g. absence from work)

Answer 209

Impairment: interference with structural or psychological functions (that is, parts of the whole person e.g. loss of an arm’s function due to fracture). Disability is interference with activities of the whole person in relation to the immediate environment (simply ‘activities of daily living' e.g. not able to cook for oneself due to the fracture) Handicap is the social disadvantage resulting from disability (e.g. loss of work and inability to meet friends due to restricted driving secondary to fracture)

Answer 210

(1) Patient’s beliefs about the severity of their condition, (2) Patient’s beliefs about their susceptibility of acquiring the disease or complications of the disease, (3) Patient’s beliefs about cost of treatment adherence (including costs in inconvenience, effort, time, and money), (4) Patient’s beliefs about benefits of treatment adherence, and (5) Patient’s beliefs regarding the environmental and social cues to action that may assist in their treatment adherence.

Answer 211

(1) Consciousness raising – helping the patient gather information about self and the problem (2) Choosing – increasing awareness of healthy alternatives, (3) Catharsis – emotional expression of the problem behaviour and the process of change (4) Conditional stimuli – includes stimulus control and counterconditioning, a. Stimulus control: Avoidance of stimuli associated with the problem behaviour and the operant extinction cueing effect of the stimulus on behaviour. b. Counterconditioning: Training an alternative, healthier response to the cue stimuli. (5) Contingency control: Positive reinforcement from others and self-appraisal and improving self-efficacy by self-reinforcement.

Answer 212

1. Professional competence 2. Honesty with patients 3. Patient confidentiality 4. Maintaining appropriate relations with patients 5. Improving quality of care 6. Improving access to care 7. Just distribution of finite resources 8. Scientific knowledge 9. Maintaining trust by managing conflicts of interest 10. Professional responsibilities (including maximising patient care, self-regulation, remediation, disciplining)

Answer 213

Resources distributed according to market principles (patient is a consumer; if they have the willingness to pay, the resources will be made available to them)

Answer 214

Resources distributed according to the principle of maximum benefit for all.

Answer 215

Resources distributed according to the need (estimated by the provider).

Answer 216

Resources should be distributed with a positive discrimination towards the disadvantaged

Answer 217

Two ‘schizophrenogenic’ family patterns Marital schism: family is in a state of disequilibrium due to repeated threats of parental separation. Parents downgrade roles of each other and may even attempt to collude with children and exclude partners. Marital skew: family is at an equilibrium that is skewed and achieved at an expense of the distorted parental relationship. One parent may be dominant and other submissive, making the marriage ‘a stable fit’

Answer 218

Freida Fromm-Reichmann These mothers were described as 'rejecting, impervious to the feelings of others, rigid in moralism concerning sex and had a significant fear of intimacy'.

Answer 219

1. Critical comments 2. Positive remarks 3. Emotional over involvement 4. Hostility 5. Emotional warmth

Answer 220

Camberwell Family Interview

Answer 221

A meta-analysis of EE data reveals that for patients living in situations rated as showing high expressed emotion, the relapse rate is 50%, whereas in the ‘low expressed emotion group’ the rate is 21%

Answer 222

a. Ranking various events according to the degree of association with mental difficulties in a sample and use this list to study other populations. This is the method followed by Holmes & Rahe (1967) Social Readjustment Rating Scale where 43 life events in the last2 years are rated using arbitrary ‘stress’ units. The death of spouse generates 100 units of stress while divorce tops the rest of the list of stressors list with 73 units. b. Brown and Harris popularized a different method whereby life events are graded according to the inherent meaning of the events to the individual concerned – i.e. contextual rating of the social adversity. Accordingly the effect and impact of a life event is understood in light of one’s current social context and self-perspective. LEDS – Life events and Difficulties schedule was devised by Brown and Harris.

Answer 223

mental illnesses are caused by social | deprivation.

Answer 224

``` an excess of social class V was noted in patients but social class distribution of fathers of the patients was the same as the general population suggesting that schizophrenia results in a downward drift of economic status rather than poverty being a cause for schizophrenia. ``` This Social Drift or Social Selection Theory suggested by Faris & Dunham

Answer 225

1. Severe marital discord 2. Low social class 3. Large family size 4. Maternal mental health disorder 5. Paternal criminality 6. Foster placement.

Answer 226

The Great Smokey Mountains study looked at groups of white American and American Indian children grouped into ‘poor’, ‘never-poor’ and ‘expoor’ (ex-poor were those whose income increased annually at later times due to a casino being built on American Indian land). The results showed that before the casino opened poor and ex-poor children had more psychiatric issues, but the levels in the ex-poor fell to the same as never-poor after the casino that produced good income for the ex-poor families opened.

Answer 227

Primary deviance is any general aberration from expected normality before the person showing such an aberration is identified as a ‘deviant. Secondary deviance refers to the actions carried out by a person identified as a ‘deviant’ by institutions such as the society or the justice system.

Answer 228

the reality of mental illness is socially constructed and complicated by cognitive interests of social groups – doctors, lawmakers, politicians.

Answer 229

According to Scheff, the social routine is made of numerous, uncategorisable residual rules. These are unspoken and taken for granted often. Residual deviance occurs when these rules are broken, but often these are not noticed unless certain specific circumstances arise. Thus in certain circumstances rule breaking is accepted, ignored or normalised, but labelled deviant on other occasions Thus societal-labelling may occur in one-off crises situations or as a gradual shift from acceptance to labelling, depending on contingencies i.e. the effect of such deviances on others concerned. This might explain the fact that numerous voice hearers live in the community without a diagnosis of schizophrenia and the results from community surveys always showing higher prevalence compared to clinical samples for almost all mental illnesses. Once labelled as mentally ill, the labelled person takes up the role of being a mentally ill individual in the society.

Answer 230

Altruistic suicide - Individual is overly attached to social norms and dies for the sake of the society (i.e. for others in the society) e.g. self-molestation among Buddhist monks in Tibet Egoistic suicide - Excessive individualism, but low social integration. No cohesive group attachment Fatalistic suicide - Society’s control on the individual is very strong such that it interferes with moral values and personal goals Anomic suicide - Individual feels that he has no guidance or regulations from the societal system; feels disillusioned

Answer 231

1. Absence of a close confiding relationship; 2. Loss of mother before age of 11 3. Lack of employment outside home; 4. Having 3 or more children under 15 living at home.

Answer 232

a. Sexual abuse b. Parental indifference c. Parental loss d. Physical abuse

Answer 233

a. Acute severe life event b. Chronic stress more than 4 weeks c. Lack of social support

Answer 234

a. Further negative life events b. Persistent poor quality social support c. Poor coping style: i. Self-blame and helplessness ii. Denial of problems iii. Inability to solve problems iv. Blaming others or external forces d. Inability to obtain adequate social support: i. Fear of intimacy ii. Denial of need for intimacy iii. Enmeshed intimate relationship e. Low educational level

Answer 235

a. Positive life events such as i. Fresh or potential fresh start: new role, positive change ii. Removal from source of stress: e.g. separation from violent husband iii. Anchoring: role change and increased security iv. Difficulty neutralisation: ending a difficulty v. Goal attainment. b. Improved quality and consistency of support

Answer 236

long-term experiences of social disadvantage lead to sensitization of the... dopamine system and (or) to increased baseline activity of this system, thereby, to an increased risk for schizophrenia.

Answer 237

In neighborhoods with ethnic minorities (non-white) that were at an increased risk, the risk reduced when the population of minorities increased. Similarly, natives had an increased risk in neighborhoods where minorities were larger in number, supporting the notion of social adversity in increasing the risk of schizophrenia.

Answer 238

``` •Low school achievement •Young among peer cohort •Poorer relationships with their family •Low household income ```

Answer 239

``` •Disruption of family structure •Social networks that use alcohol •Recent immigration •Small-area deprivation ```

Answer 240

``` •Peer drug use •Single parenting •Homelessness •Poor educational attainment •Neighborhood disadvantage •Unemployment ```

Answer 241

one ‘whose character is symbolized by the barrier | to social intercourse with the outside’.

Answer 242

•BETRAYAL FUNNEL: People we trust most – family and friends – conspire against us when we are unwell, reporting our actions to doctors and mental health professionals who run the decision-making process. •ROLE STRIPPING: The institutionalisation process begins with a series of assaults on the recruit’s self. The process of stripping inmates of their identity involves such initiation rituals as trading personal clothes and belongings for hospital issue •MORTIFICATION: Procedures that consist of a series of assaults on the inmate's self-image. At the end of mortification one becomes a ‘full member’ of the institution. Private, personal activities go on public display; he must request permission for even the most minor activities that were purely volitional on the “outside,” such as smoking, shaving, or going to the toilet. This is termed as civil death. •PREVILEGE SYSTEM: The patient is then inserted into the lowest rung of an allembracing privilege system. This system is based on the house rules. The privileges are usually reductions in the institution’s control over the patient’s life. Freedom is a token of reward.

Answer 243

``` Russell Barton (1976) described 'institutional neurosis', characterised by apathy, lack of initiative, loss of interest and submissiveness. ```

Answer 244

Morgan (1979) coined the term malignant alienation to describe a process characterised by a progressive deterioration in the relationship between carers (staff in a ward) and a patient, including loss of sympathy and support from members of staff, who tended to construe these patients' behaviour as provocative, unreasonable, or overdependent.

Answer 245

Enacted stigma -> refers to a patient’s actual experience of discrimination Felt stigma -> refers to a patient’s fear of experiencing a discriminated act; it is more prevalent and more disabling than enacted stigma. Public stigma -> is the reaction that the general population has to people with mental illness. Self-stigma -> is the prejudice which people with mental illness hold against themselves; this internalized stigma develops from the prolonged societal response. Courtesy stigma-> refers to the stigmatization unaffected person experiences due to his or her relationship with a person who bears a stigma e.g. parents of children with psychiatric conditions.

Answer 246

1. Dangerousness 2. Attribution of responsibility 3. Poor prognosis 4. Disruption of social interaction

Answer 247

seen in Arctic Eskimo communities. It is characterised by a dissociative episode with excitement often followed by seizures and coma lasting up to 12 hours. Patients may be withdrawn before the attack and usually has amnesia for the episode; they may tear off clothing, shout obscenities, eat faeces, and jump naked into ice cold water.

Answer 248

Helsinki declaration

Answer 249

. A deontological theory looks at inputs rather than outcomes.

Answer 250

Beauchamp and Childress.

Answer 251

Thomas Szasz

Answer 252

Antipsychiatry refers to a confederation of psychiatrists, psychologists, nurses, social and welfare workers, lay people and patients who oppose the traditional mental health practice and treatment. Three major pioneers are 1. R.D. Laing, 2. Thomas Szasz and 3. Foucault. R.D.Laing wrote 'The Divided Self' (1959), Sanity, Madness and the Family (1964). Thomas Szasz wrote 'The Myth of Mental Illness' 1961) and 'The Manufacture of Madness' (1971). Foucault wrote Madness and Civilization (1965).

Answer 253

Koro Malaysia, SE Asia Refers to an episode of sudden and intense anxiety that the penis (or, in women, the vulva and nipples) will recede into the body and possibly cause death.

Answer 254

Respect for autonomy, beneficence and justice

Answer 255

100-200 million

Answer 256

The biopsychosocial model is a systems theory-based explanation of disease models. It is based on the fact that each system is at the same time a component of higher system The hierarchy and continuum of natural systems were discussed to explain biopsychosocial model It is not similar to the biomedical model. It was proposed by George Engel

Answer 257

Willowbrook study These studies were designed to gain an understanding of the natural history of infectious hepatitis and subsequently to test the effects of gamma globulin in preventing or ameliorating the disease. The subjects, all children, were deliberately infected with the hepatitis virus

Answer 258

Emil Durkheim

Answer 259

1.voluntary consent is given 2.Research is intended for common good of the society 3.avoidance of unnecessary pain and suffering is guaranteed for the subjects 4.subject has liberty to withdraw at any point 5.qualified researchers undertake research 6.scientist must terminate a study if more harm is being caused than expected to the subjects

Answer 260

Taijin refers to a fear of losing good will of others due to imagined shortcomings of oneself. Social anxiety, tremulousness, self-consciousness and a sense of physical defect or deformity are seen; these can develop into anthropophobia (fear of people) - a severe form of social phobia. There are different subclasses

Answer 261

R.D. Laing

Answer 262

Humiliation

Answer 263

The Holmes-Rahe scale rates 43 life events by units. After the death of one's spouse (100 units worth), divorce tops the rest of the stressors list and generates about 73 units.

Answer 264

Bipolar disorder

Answer 265

Mothers with autistic children were blamed to be 'refrigerator mothers' who 'defrosted just enough to produce a baby' but remained emotionally cold, inflexible and lacking warmth in the parental relationship. This theory has been widely discussed and refuted as no proof exists to support this claim.

Answer 266

The 'brain fag' syndrome, which was first reported from West Africa in 1960 among students, has been shown to occur very widely in African students in western educational systems south of the Sahara. S

Answer 267

Friendship Sympathy towards the sick (Caring attitude) Interest in cases according to one's capabilities and No attachment to the patient after his recovery.

Answer 268

Recollection

Answer 269

Recognition

Answer 270

Continuous reinforcement

Answer 271

Variable ratio reinforcement

Answer 272

Intermittent Reinforcement

Answer 273

Fixed ratio reinforcement

Answer 274

Classical conditioning

Answer 275

Insight learning

Answer 276

Latent learning

Answer 277

Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory

Answer 278

Thematic apperception test

Answer 279

David Mechanic, a pioneer in the study of social influence on illnesses, summarised the complex causes that predispose to illness behaviors, "including biological predispositions, the nature of symptomatology, learned patterns of response, attributional predispositions, situational influences, and the organization and incentives characteristic of the health care system and the availability of secondary benefits"

Answer 280

pathogenetic, pathoplastic, pathoelaborating, pathofacilitating, pathodiscriminating, and pathoreactive effects (Tseng)

Answer 281

Analytical Abilities – Comparison, Evaluation Creative Abilities – Discovery Practical Abilities – Applying knowledge

Answer 282

Intelligent behaviour arises from a balance between analytical, creative and practical abilities,

Answer 283

The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sorting test is used to assess abstract thinking and how well concepts are formed. The patient is required to sort objects by colour or material, copy block patterns with coloured cubes. The tests are mainly used to diagnose neurological problems.

Answer 284

Describe the character of a moral agent as a driving force for ethical behaviour. It focusses on the individual and their wellbeing. It holds that the proper goal of human life is eudaimonia (aka the good life).

Answer 285

'features of social life - networks, norms, and trust - that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives'

Answer 286

``` Easy child (40%). These obtained high scores on regularity (degree to which they fall into a schedule), approachability, adaptability, mild intensity of reactivity, and predominance of positive mood. Difficult child (10%). These children were the polar opposite of easy children. Slow to warm up child (15%). These children are somewhere in the middle. They often have moderately negative reactions to new things but warm to the idea eventually. ```

Answer 287

Declaration of Lisbon

Answer 288

Introduced following the crimes which had just been committed in Nazi Germany, the Declaration of Geneva was intended as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath.

Answer 289

cerebellum

Answer 290

if 2 memories are of the same strength but different ages, the older will decay more slowly than the younger

Answer 291

Allport | cardinal, central and secondary

Answer 292

Digit span | Trails A Test

Answer 293

Boston Naming Test | Verbal Fluency

Answer 294

Wechsler Memory Scale | Ray Auditory Verbal Learning Test

Answer 295

Ray-Osterrieth Complex Figure

Answer 296

Wisconsin Card Sort Test Stroop test Trials B Test

Answer 297

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test National Adult Reading Test (Pre mormid) Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

Answer 298

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test National Adult Reading Test (Pre-mormid) Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

Answer 299

Rorschach Inkblot Thematic Apperception Test Draw-A-Person test Sentence completion tests

Answer 300

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF) NEO Personality Inventory Esyenck personality test (EPQ)

Answer 301

``` Word fluency Verbal comprehension Spatial visualization Number facility Associative memory Reasoning Perceptual speed ```

Answer 302

aka photographic memory - is the ability to recall an image in near perfect detail. Contrary to popular belief most people with autism do not have a photographic memory.

Answer 303

This is a statement of ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

Answer 304

This is a statement of ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

Answer 305

This states that doctors should refuse to participate in, condone, or give permission for torture, degradation, or cruel treatment of prisoners or detainees.

Answer 306

This offers guidelince to doctors treating people who are on hunger strike.

Answer 307

This offers guidelines to doctors treating people who are on hunger strike.

Answer 308

Studies estimate a heritability of 40-50% for human IQ.

Answer 309

Heritability of IQ varies with age: While the heritability is around 30% in children, it increases to 80% among adults.

Answer 310

``` Scarr et al. observed greater genetic effects on intelligence in middle-class white groups than in lower-class African American groups ```

Answer 311

ORAL (0 to 1 ½ years) Drive discharge is via sucking; oral erotogenic zone. oral erotism (sucking, licking, etc.) in early stages; oral sadism (biting, chewing) in later stages. The ego develops at this stage. ANAL (1 ½ to 3 years) Anal erotogenic zone; drive discharge via sphincter behaviour. Anal erotism refers to the sexual pleasure in anal functioning. Anal sadism refers to the aggressive wishes linked to fecal expulsion. Anal fixation is characterized by OCD like pattern – also ambivalence and sadomasochistic tendencies are associated. PHALLIC/OEDIPAL (3 to 5yrs) Genitals become organs of interest; masturbation-like activity noted. Oedipus complex – wish to have a libidinal relationship with opposite sex parent (Electra complex in girls). Superego develops from introjection of parental values. LATENCY (5 to puberty approx.11yrs) Socialization, interest in peers seen. Sexual energy sublimated towards school work, hobbies and friends GENITAL (puberty onwards) Biological maturation occurs; genital sexuality is born.

Answer 312

ORAL (0 to 1 ½ years) Drive discharge is via sucking; oral erotogenic zone. oral erotism (sucking, licking, etc.) in early stages; oral sadism (biting, chewing) in later stages. The ego develops at this stage. ANAL (1 ½ to 3 years) Anal erotogenic zone; drive discharge via sphincter behaviour. Anal erotism refers to the sexual pleasure in anal functioning. Anal sadism refers to the aggressive wishes linked to fecal expulsion. Anal fixation is characterized by OCD like pattern – also ambivalence and sadomasochistic tendencies are associated. PHALLIC/OEDIPAL (3 to 5yrs) Genitals become organs of interest; masturbation-like activity noted. Oedipus complex – wish to have a libidinal relationship with opposite sex parent (Electra complex in girls). Superego develops from introjection of parental values. LATENCY (5 to puberty approx.11yrs) Socialization, interest in peers seen. Sexual energy sublimated towards school work, hobbies and friends Superego is formed GENITAL (puberty onwards) Biological maturation occurs; genital sexuality is born.

Answer 313

1. Pre-attachment phase (birth to 8 or 12 weeks), babies orient to their mothers 2. Indiscriminate attachment (attachment in making - 8 to 12 weeks to 6 months): Allows strangers to handle, infants become attached to one or more persons in the environment 3. Clear-cut attachment (6 through 24 months): Preferential attachment, separation anxiety, object permanence, stranger anxiety. At the later part, weakened stranger anxiety; other attachment figures may also present. 4. After 25 months, the mother figure is seen as independent.

Answer 314

1. Pre-attachment phase (birth to 8 or 12 weeks), babies orient to their mothers 2. Indiscriminate attachment (attachment in making - 8 to 12 weeks to 6 months): Allows strangers to handle, infants become attached to one or more persons in the environment 3. Clear-cut attachment (6 through 24 months): Preferential attachment, separation anxiety (occurs after stranger anxiety), object permanence, stranger anxiety. At the later part, weakened stranger anxiety; other attachment figures may also present. 4. After 25 months, the mother figure is seen as independent.

Answer 315

Mary Ainsworth Situation 1 Both mother and infant enter the room Situation 2 A stranger joins them Situation 3 Mother leaves now; infant left with stranger Situation 4 Mother returns; stranger leaves Situation 5 Infant left alone; mother leaves now Situation 6 Stranger comes back and tries to comfort the child Situation 7 Mother comes back and comforts, stranger leaves.

Answer 316

Mary Ainsworth Situation 1 Both mother and infant enter the room Situation 2 A stranger joins them Situation 3 Mother leaves now; infant left with stranger Situation 4 Mother returns; stranger leaves Situation 5 Infant left alone; mother leaves now Situation 6 Stranger comes back and tries to comfort the child Situation 7 Mother comes back and comforts, stranger leaves. 1 year and 18 months

Answer 317

Main Secure autonomous: Those who had secure attachment provide spontaneous and coherent answers with the ability to talk freely about negative experiences in childhood - type B Ainsworth. Dismissing of experiences: Those who had an avoidant (insecure) pattern often minimise their experiences, do not elaborate on them and do not use colourful metaphors during the discourse– type A (avoidant) Entangled: Those who had insecure but ambivalent (enmeshed) attachment use multiple emotionally laden responses and ramble excessively, – type C resistant. Unresolved disorganised: Broken continuity and interrupted the logical flow of thoughts is seen in those who had insecure disorganised attachment pattern– type D

Answer 318

1. Normal autism (0 to 2 m): Child spends most time in sleep as if the intrauterine aloofness continues. 2. Symbiosis (2 to 5m): Inner and outer world studied via senses but perceives mother and self as one unit. 3. Separation – individuation phase: (DPRO) a) Differentiation sub-phase: (5 to 10m) slowly appreciates the difference between mother and self b) Practicing sub-phase: (10 to18m) A gradual increase in interest on the environment; practices exploration. c) Rapprochement sub-phase: (18 to 24m) Alternating drives to be autonomous and dependent; Able to explore alone but requires comfort and reassurance on return. d) Object constancy sub-phase: (2 to 5yrs) Understand that the mother will not be lost if temporarily away; hence able to function independently.

Answer 319

In deprivation attachment is formed but lost temporarily. seen more often in boys. In prolonged deprivation, separation anxiety sets in. Increased clingy behaviour, psychosomatic complaints, vacillation and aggression are seen in the child. Privation refers to the non-formation of attachment; this is very rare and can lead to what Rutter termed as ‘affectionless psychopathy’ and developmental retardation. Attention seeking, lack of guilt, antisocial behaviour and indiscriminate attachment patterns are noted. This is reversible but only to some extent

Answer 320

Ethology is the systematic biological study of animal behaviour. Greek ethos - custom or habit.

Answer 321

object relations theory – the ego exists only in relation to other objects, which may be external or internal. ‘Object’ refers to both living persons and non-living concepts. Melanie Klein was a major proponent

Answer 322

2 years of age

Answer 323

According to Bowlby, attachment develops in the latter part of infancy, in the period from six to eighteen months.

Answer 324

Erikson proposed psychosocial developmental stages Trust vs. mistrust 0-1 year Hope Autonomy vs. shame 1-3 years Will Initiative vs. guilt 3-5 years Purpose Industry vs. inferiority 5-12 years Competence Identity vs. role confusion 12-19 years Fidelity Intimacy vs. isolation 19-35 years Love Generativity vs. stagnation 35-65 years Care Integrity vs. despair 65 and onwards Wisdom

Answer 325

RCT of abandoned children reared in institutions vs. abandoned children placed in institutions but then moved to foster care showed markedly poor cognitive outcome for children that were in institutions; but cognitive recovery occurred significantly for younger children placed in foster care.

Answer 326

Infants develop a fear of strangers when they are around 6 months of age and it peaks at around 12-18 months of age. Fear of strangers declines after the age of three years.

Answer 327

Separation anxiety starts at 1 year of age and child shows rapproachment (hugs when coming back) by 18 months.

Answer 328

18-30 months

Answer 329

Cooing- 2months; Babbling (gaga, dada)- 6 months (4 to10 months); One-word stage (mamma, doggie)- 1 year (10 to18 months); Two word stage (mummy go, daddy go)- 2 years (18 to 24 months); Basic adult grammatical sentence- 3 years; Adult speech- 5 years.

Answer 330

Reinforcement by role models Differential treatment by adults Imitative behaviours Cognitive processes in children

Answer 331

``` 2 months-cooing 6 months-babbling 9 months-repetitive babbling 12 months-speaks three words 18 months-speaks up to 40 words. 24 months-telegraphic speech, grammatically pairs words and vocabulary more than 240 words 36 months-early comprehension of grammar and syntax 48 months-correct use of grammar 60 months-language akin to adult speech ``` Cooing- 2months; Babbling (gaga, dada)- 6 months (4 to10 months); One-word stage (mamma, doggie)- 1 year (10 to18 months); Two word stage (mummy go, daddy go)- 2 years (18 to 24 months); Basic adult grammatical sentence- 3 years; Adult speech- 5 years.

Answer 332

Freud's topographic

Answer 333

Adaptation is the process of fitting schemas to environmental information. Adaptation can occur either as assimilation or accommodation. In assimilation new information is incorporated into existing schemas without restructuring the schemas. In accommodation, the schemas are restructured to ‘accommodate’ newly learnt information.

Answer 334

Sensorimotor stage: (SPIRO) (0-2 years) -Symbolic thought: Language starts developing and thought starts to dominate actions. -Representational Play: Mimics one object with another e.g. cup for a hat. -Deferred Imitation: remembers an act and replays it later. -Recognition of self: Primitive self recognition begins. -Object permanence: Understanding that object that disappears from field of perception has not ceased to exist; if searched well this object can be found or it will reappear. Hence peek-a-boo games are understood and enjoyed. Initially this is limited as the hidden objects are searched at where they were last seen (around 9 to 12 months); not at where they were hidden. Around 18 months invisible displacements are inferred and object permanence is completed Exercising reflexes (0 to 1 m) to smoothen them; Primary circular (1 to 4 m) reactions where reflexes extend to objects; secondary circular ( 4 to 10 m) where goal direction seen; object permanence starts by 9m; coordinated actions with added element of curiosity forms tertiary circular ( 12 to 18 m) reactions – here novelty is sought. Mental combinations occur; thoughts dominate actions.

Answer 335

Adaptation is the process of fitting schemas to environmental information. Adaptation can occur either as assimilation or accommodation. In assimilation new information is incorporated into existing schemas without restructuring the schemas. In accommodation, the schemas are restructured to ‘accommodate’ newly learnt information.

Answer 336

Sensorimotor stage: (SPIRO) (0-2 years) -Symbolic thought: Language starts developing and thought starts to dominate actions. -Representational Play: Mimics one object with another e.g. cup for a hat. -Deferred Imitation: remembers an act and replays it later. -Recognition of self: Primitive self recognition begins. -Object permanence: Understanding that object that disappears from field of perception has not ceased to exist; if searched well this object can be found or it will reappear. Hence peek-a-boo games are understood and enjoyed. Initially this is limited as the hidden objects are searched at where they were last seen (around 9 to 12 months); not at where they were hidden. Around 18 months invisible displacements are inferred and object permanence is completed Exercising reflexes (0 to 1 m) to smoothen them; Primary circular (1 to 4 m) reactions where reflexes extend to objects; secondary circular ( 4 to 10 m) where goal direction seen; object permanence starts by 9m; coordinated actions with added element of curiosity forms tertiary circular (12 to 18 m) reactions – here novelty is sought. Mental combinations occur; thoughts dominate actions.

Answer 337

Preoperational stage: (FAT PILES) (2-7 years) -Functional attribution: Objects are referred to by their function rather than appearance. -Artificialism: ‘Sky is blue because someone painted it’ & Animism: Inanimate objects are treated as living objects. -Transductive reasoning: Cats have 4 legs, Dogs have 4 legs. So cats and dogs are the same (called Von Domarus law). & Telegraphic speech: No functional propositions noted but verbs and nouns are used -Phenomenalistic causality: In a similar logic to transductive reasoning, causality is inferred if two events occur with some temporal association e.g. lightning and rain come together; hence lightning brings rain. -Imminent justice: See moral development -Lack of seriation, conservation, and reversibility: -Seriation is the ability to sort or categorise based on dimensional variations of items. In centration only single dimension can be focussed at one time (akin to syncretic thought, see below). Conservation refers to the ability to perceive that a quantity (such as count, weight, volume etc) is unchanged if the same amount of a material is transformed into a different shape or structure. E.g. 1 litre of water remains the same 1 liter irrespective of whether it is present in a half full 2 litre bottle or two complete 500ml bottles. Concept of compensation refers to the fact that magnification in one dimension and reduction in another dimension can nullify each other’s effect. Reversibility refers to the ability of mentally calculating and understanding that what is done can be undone without loss of material. -Egocentrism: This does NOT refer to self-centredness or selfish attitude. It refers to the restricted ability of viewing the world from a single point of view at this developmental stage. This was demonstrated using the Mountains task where a child at this age group could not say what a person would see from other side of the desk when only one side of a toy mountain was visible from each view. -Semiotic function: Signifiers are symbols and signs that represent or stand for something else. For example, drawing a matchstick man. Thus signifiers represent a meaning, serving semiotic function. This is vital for developing play activities. -Syncretic thought: Links neighbouring objects and events on the basis of common instances e.g. red square with red sphere with blue sphere with blue cube etc. Preconceptual stage 2 to 4 years; intuitive stage 4 to 7 years.

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Ability to decentre, conserve, seriate and declining egocentrism noted. Perspective taking starts to develop. But transitivity tasks still pose a challenge. E.g. ‘4>2, 2>1, which is the greatest of all?’ - is still difficult. -Syllogistic reasoning Conservation present Pendulum experiment

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Here manipulation of ideas and propositions are seen – 1st order operations; soon, reasoning solely based on verbal argument construction develops – 2nd order operations. Hypotheticodeductive reasoning develops in a proportion of children after age 12. Classification of objects according to rules

Answer 340

The primary emotions of joy, sadness, anger, fearfulness, disgust, surprise are present within the first six months of life and develop over the next three years. However, self-conscious emotions like jealousy, shame, guilt and empathy arise later around three years.

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Level 1 Pre-conventional morality (7-12 years to middle childhood): In this stage, the children decide right or wrong according to the consequences. If an action leads to punishment it must be bad and if it leads to reward it must be good. i. Punishment and obedience orientation: Obedience to rules to avoid punishment ii. Reward orientation/ Instrumental relativism: What brings rewards is right. ‘tit for tat’ approach seen.

Answer 342

Level 2 Conventional morality (approximately 13-16 years): Here the children believe that social rules and the expectation of the others determine what acceptable or unacceptable behaviour is. iii. Concordance orientation: What pleases others is right. What the majority thinks right is right. Also called Good boy/good girl orientation. Conforms to avoid disapproval and meet expectations of others. Being good is important and having good motives and showing concern iv. Social order or Authority orientation: Upholds laws and social rules to avoid the censure of the authorities and feelings of guilt about not doing one’s duty. Maintaining social order is the goal.

Answer 343

Level 3 Postconventional morality (approximately 16-20 years) Here what is right is based on an individual’s understanding of universal ethical principles. These are often abstract and ill-defined, but it might include the preservation of life at all costs and the importance of human dignity v. Social contract or legalistic orientation: Actions guided by principles commonly agreed by one’s group on as essential to public welfare (relative values) and democracy is upheld while individual’s life is given more respect than written codes of law. vi. Universal Ethical orientation: Actions guided by self-chosen ethical principles. Laws and social principles usually valid because they are based on these principles. Social rules can be broken if universal morality is not upheld. 15% reach this stage

Answer 344

Unilateral respect for the external law: seniors make rules; they are sacred and should not be broken, but get violated periodically for pleasure. External responsibility holds for crime; severity of outcome or loss decides the degree of punishment warranted. Moral realism: Strong penalty should be paid for any crime; can accept collective punishment to deliver justice (punishing the wrongdoer is more important than not hurting the innocent) Imminent justice: Wold is just – a misfortune will punish the deserved for a misdeed. Heteronomous morality: Subject to rules written by others.

Answer 345

Mutual respect for the self-invented law: could be changed by consensus and for fairness. Internal responsibility holds for crime; intent or motivation decides the degree of punishment warranted. Moral relativism: Punishment should match the crime; does not accept collective punishment. No imminent justice. Autonomous morality: Rules can be self-made

Answer 346

Level 1 Pre-conventional morality (7-12 years to middle childhood): In this stage, the children decide right or wrong according to the consequences. If an action leads to punishment it must be bad and if it leads to reward it must be good. i. Punishment and obedience orientation: Obedience to rules to avoid punishment ii. Reward orientation/ Instrumental relativism/self-interest orientation: What brings rewards is right. ‘tit for tat’ approach seen. *?0-10 years - SPMM AIMS TO AVOID PUNISHMENT

Answer 347

Level 2 Conventional morality/Interpersonal accord (approximately 13-16 years): Here the children believe that social rules and the expectation of the others determine what acceptable or unacceptable behaviour is. iii. Concordance orientation: What pleases others is right. What the majority thinks right is right. Also called Good boy/good girl orientation. Conforms to avoid disapproval and meet expectations of others. Being good is important and having good motives and showing concern iv. Social order or Authority orientation: Upholds laws and social rules to avoid the censure of the authorities and feelings of guilt about not doing one’s duty. Maintaining social order is the goal. AIMS TO GET APPROVAL

Answer 348

Level 3 Postconventional morality (approximately 16-20 years) Here what is right is based on an individual’s understanding of universal ethical principles. These are often abstract and ill-defined, but it might include the preservation of life at all costs and the importance of human dignity v. Social contract or legalistic orientation: Actions guided by principles commonly agreed by one’s group on as essential to public welfare (relative values) and democracy is upheld while individual’s life is given more respect than written codes of law. vi. Universal Ethical orientation: Actions guided by self-chosen ethical principles. Laws and social principles usually valid because they are based on these principles. Social rules can be broken if universal morality is not upheld. AIMS TO UPHOLD UNIVERSAL ETHICS 15% reach this stage

Answer 349

Ambivalence Melanie Klein described two positions - paranoid-schizoid and depressed position. The paranoid-schizoid position is associated with the use of splitting and projection as a defence mechanism. This position concerns an inability to perceive a whole object and splits all objects into their good and bad parts. But in the depressive position, the infant tolerates the ambiguity or ambivalence and can realise that an individual can have both good and bad qualities.

Answer 350

Rule- governed play

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Solitary play- the child plays on its own; Parallel play-the child plays along with other children (2 years); Co-operative play-This is usually evident by 3 years and the child interacts with other children in complimentary ways like sharing, turn taking, etc ;

Answer 352

Anger Bargaining Acceptance Depression

Answer 353

Goodness of fit

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Noam Chomsky: Children are born with an innate language acquisition device. Transformational grammar is important in understanding language development. All languages have a surface structure where syntax is accurate and actual words are used to construct language; and a deep structure where more semantic sense is made without similar syntactical rules. A single surface structure can have several deep structures. Children are born equipped with the ability to decipher the transformational grammar of deep to surface structure conversion. Hence years up to puberty are sensitive though not critical for language development. Social interaction view of language development: Adults such as mother act as LASS (language acquisition support system). This is essential as the function of language is social interaction.

Answer 355

They were less likely to be selective in choosing their friends They turned to peers less often for emotional support These young people related better to adults than to their peers Incorrect They were less likely to have a special friend

Answer 356

strongly biological model that views temperament as an inherited personality trait exhibited in early life and are evident in the first year of life. Temperament is assessed using the EAS-Temperament survey. Emotionality, Activity and Sociability are three major dimensions. The original theory also included impulsivity but it was excluded in later revulsions because of its poor heritability.

Answer 357

Fears characteristic of infancy include separation anxiety, fear of loud noises, fear of falling, fear of strange objects and strange people

Answer 358

Restricted language code is characterised by short, incomplete sentences, which focuses on the present

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The elaborated code is characterized by longer, complex sentences that are context-independent. It focuses on the past and future, employs 'I' commonly and allows for the expression of abstract thought

Answer 360

The id, ego, and superego.

Answer 361

This is called as two words / telegraphic speech stage. In telegraphic speech, meaningful words are used without connecting words such as propositions or conjunctions.

Answer 362

Anaclitic depression - refers to the complex of symptoms exhibited by young children who are deprived of their mother or a mother surrogate during the first few years of life.

Answer 363

Fear of imaginary creatures – Age 5 and above, Fear of animals – Age 3, Fear of the dark – Age 4 to 5, Fear of illness and death – Teenage onwards, Fear of loud noises – Infancy, Fear of falling – Infancy

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Fear of imaginary creatures – Age 5 and above, Fear of animals – Age 3, Fear of the dark – Age 4 to 5, Fear of illness and death – Teenage onwards, Fear of loud noises – Infancy, Fear of falling – Infancy

Answer 365

Having more than one attachment figure

Answer 366

Having more than one attachment figure Around 18m, 87% infants have multiple attachments; 50% primarily attached to the mother, 18% to father and the rest to equally both

Answer 367

Fear of imaginary creatures – Age 5 and above (3-4 on psychmentor), Fear of animals – Age 3, Fear of the dark – Age 4 to 5, Fear of illness and death – Teenage onwards, Fear of loud noises – Infancy, Fear of falling – Infancy

Answer 368

Males 9-14 years 12 years | Females 8-14 years 11 years

Answer 369

8 in girls | 9 in boys

Answer 370

stages 3 to 4 of puberty in most boys and is completed by stage 5 in more than 95% of them. In girls, pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 2 and 3

Answer 371

Stage 4 | 2 years

Answer 372

By 18-24 months, children develop the ability to label gender. Between 2-4 years, most children recognise gender differences, use gendered pronouns. By age 5 to 6 years, most children declare a gender identity of male or female.

Answer 373

Only in a minority (15%)

Answer 374

Authoritarian Parenting - strict rules and punishment if the rules are not adhered to -> children who are obedient and proficient, but they rank lower in happiness, social competence and self-esteem. Authoritative Parenting - similar to authoritarian parents except they tend to be more responsive to their children. There are strict rules but explanations behind them are given -> children who are happy, capable and successful Permissive Parenting Uninvolved Parenting

Answer 375

Bowlby's attachment theory - also proposed the idea of an internal working model. This is held to be the product of attachment experiences and represents a persons view of the external world.

Answer 376

Kohlberg to investigate moral development. It is as follows:- 'A woman was near death from a special kind of cancer. There was one drug that the doctors thought might save her. It was a form of radium that a druggist (pharmacist) in the same town had recently discovered. The drug was expensive to make, but the druggist was charging ten times what the drug cost him to produce. He paid $200 for the radium and charged $2000 for a small dose of the drug. The sick woman's husband, Heinz, went to everyone he knew to borrow the money, but he could only get together about $1,000 which is half of what it cost. He told the druggist that his wife was dying and asked him to sell it cheaper or let him pay later. But the druggist said: 'No, I discovered the drug and I'm going to make money from it.' So Heinz got desperate and broke into the man's store to steal the drug for his wife.' Should Heinz have broken into the store to steal the drug for his wife? Why or why not?

Answer 377

Equality between members

Answer 378

Makes become more introverted

Psychology Flashcards

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