*MOVED*Advanced Arthritis Flashcards by Jojo Barnes-Jones

Which one of the following statements is false regarding neuropathic osteoarthropathy? A. Primarily caused by alteration in sympathetic control of bone blood flow B. Most (90%) of patients suffering from neuropathic osteoarthropathy have pain as the initial complaint. C. There is a rapid destruction of the involved joint(s) D. May appear radiographically similar to septic arthritis

B. Most (90%) of patients suffering from neuropathic osteoarthropathy have pain as the initial complaint.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following best characterizes the erosions occurring in Reiter’s syndrome? A. Initially appearing at the center of the joint and later associated with osteophytes B. Initially appearing at the joint margin later progressing to the center of the joint C. Initially appearing at the subchrondral bone progressing to ankylosis D. Both A and C are correct

B. Initially appearing at the joint margin later progressing to the center of the joint

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The primary etiologic agent that “licks the joints but bites the heart” that precipitates Jaccoud’s arthropathy is what? A. Mycoplasm B. Staph. Aureus C. Pseudomonas D. Beta-hemolytic strep.

D. Beta-hemolytic strep.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The most common location for a degenerative spondylolisthesis in the lumbar spine is which of the following levels? A. L2/L3 B. L3/L4 C. L4/L5 D. L5/S1

C. L4/L5

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Calcification of the medial collateral ligament of the knee associated with trauma is called what? A. Haglund’s syndrome B. Pellegrini-Stieda disease C. Wee-knee disease D. Crystal lite

B. Pellegrini-Stieda disease

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When present, what radiographic finding helps differentiate neuropathic osteoarthropathy caused by leprosy from other causes? A. Leprosy always presents in a hypertrophic presentation B. Lisfranc fractures are frequent in leprosy neuropathic osteoarthropathy C. Leprosy causes a large soft tissue mass D. Calcified nerves may be seen in leprosy

D. Calcified nerves may be seen in leprosy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following is NOT a type of bony erosion seen in the hand in Rheumatoid Arthritis? A. Marginal erosion B. Compressive erosion C. Surface resorption D. Subperiosteal erosion

D. Subperiosteal erosion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following arthritides does NOT have soft tissue calcification associated with it? A. Septic (Pyogenic) arthritis B. Scleroderma C. SLE D. Dermatomyositis E. Gout

A. Septic (Pyogenic) arthritis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following radiographic findings characterizes Ochronotic arthropathy of the spine? A. Large spondylophytes B. Bamboo spine C. Calcification and ossification of the intervertebral discs D. Negative HLA-B27 serologic test

C. Calcification and ossification of the intervertebral discs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following does NOT cause enlargement of the intercondylar notch of the distal femur? A. JCA B. Hemophilia C. CPPD D. Psoriatic E. Tuberculous arthritis

C. CPPD

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following skin disorders simulates psoriasis clinically and / or radiographically? A. Acne fulminans B. Pyoderma gangrenosum C. Sweet’s syndrome D. All the above may simulate psoriasis

D. All the above may simulate psoriasis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What clinical abnormality seen in patients with psoriasis has the strongest correlation with articular manifestations? A. Cutaneous lesions B. Pustular skin lesions C. Nail changes D. Eye changes

C. Nail changes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following is NOT a theory of why hydroxyapatite crystals deposit within the supraspinatus tendon? A. Degeneration of the tendon fibers B. Necrosis of the tendon fibers C. Hypervascularity D. Trauma

C. Hypervascularity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What joints are commonly involved in scleroderma? A. Knee and hip B. Hip and elbow C. Cervical spine and shoulders D. Fingers and wrists

D. Fingers and wrists

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The best description of bone sarcoidosis involving the distal phalanges is what? A. Lace-like or reticulated bone destruction B. Moth eaten appearance C. Peristeal deformans D. Running greyhound appearance

A. Lace-like or reticulated bone destruction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A significant association exists between osteoarthritis of the glenohumeral joint and what? A. Genetics B. Obesity C. Anteverted glenoid fossa D. Rotator cuff degeneration

D. Rotator cuff degeneration

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following diseases is not associated with superior displacement of the disc (Schmorl?s nodes)? A. IOC B. Scheuermann’s C. Spondylosis deformans D. Osteoporosis

C. Spondylosis deformans

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are the articular deformities seen in SLE related to? A. Capsular and ligament laxity B. Pannus formation C. Hapten complexes D. Cartilage degeneration

A. Capsular and ligament laxity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Widening of the intercondylar notch of the femur seen in hemophilia is related to what? A. Osteonecrosis B. Ligament laxity C. Intraosseous hemorrhage D. Hemorrhage about the cruciate ligaments

D. Hemorrhage about the cruciate ligaments

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which one of the following is not associated with scleroderma? A. Overlap syndrome B. Acro-osteolysis C. Erosive joint changes D. Osteonecrosis

D. Osteonecrosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the least encountered type of osteophyte seen in DJD? A. Marginal B. Central C. Periosteal D. Capsular

B. Central

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Neuropathic osteoarthropathy of the foot is most frequently associated with which systemic disorder? A. Hemophilia B. Diabetes C. Riley-Day syndrome D. Spinal cord trauma

B. Diabetes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the frequency of radiographically detectable peripheral manifestations in AS if all peripheral joints are considered? A. 75% B. 50% C. 25% D. 5%

B. 50%

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Increased density, joint distention, bony debris, joint disorganization, and dislocation describe the classic radiographic manifestations of what type of neuropathic osteoarthropathy? A. Hypertrophic B. Atrophic C. Mixed D. Swirled

A. Hypertrophic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pauciarticular or mono articular juvenile chronic arthritis most frequently involves which of the following joints? A. Cervical spine B. Lumbar spine C. Shoulder D. Knee

D. Knee

The patella "tooth" sign does not represent which of the following? A. Osteoarthritis B. D.I.S.H. C. Peritendinitis D. Both A and C

D. Both A and C

The hallmark of chronic gout is what? A. Hyperuricemia B. Tophi C. Longer recovery time between acute attacks D. Painful swelling of a joint

B. Tophi

"Hoarseness" in patients suffering from RA may be a result of what? A. Involvement of the TMJ B. Invovement of the cricoarytenoid joint C. Rheumatoid nodules occurring on the vocal cords D. Pannus formation within the peri-epiglotic region

B. Invovement of the cricoarytenoid joint

Taken individually, which one of the following is NOT a way to differentiate erosive osteoarthritis from rheumatoid arthritis on radiographs? A. Erosions B. Location of involved joints (pattern of involvement) C. Bony poliferative changes D. Intra-articular bony ankylosis

D. Intra-articular bony ankylosis

Which one of the following is not a characteristic manifestation of SLE? A. Skin manifestations B. Reversible deformities C. Hook erosions D. Positive HLA-B27 laboratory test

D. Positive HLA-B27 laboratory test

Which one(s) of the following represent differential diagnoses of degeneration occurring at the knee with prominent subchrondral cysts? A. Pyrophosphate arthropathy B. PVNS C. Gout D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

Swan Neck deformities represent what? A. Hyperextension at the proximal interphalangeal joints and flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints B. Flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints and hyperextension at distal interphalangeal joints. C. Ulnar devulation of the metacarpals with radial deviation of the phalanges. D. Dislocation of the first metacarpal phalangeal joint with axial rotation of the digit.

A. Hyperextension at the proximal interphalangeal joints and flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints

Which one of the following is NOT a "lumpy bumpy" arthritis? (arthritis with soft tissue nodules) A. Gout B. Multicentric reticulohistocytosis C. Xanthamatosis D. Behcet's

D. Behcet's

What is the pathogenesis of uncovertebral joint arthrosis? A. Disc degeneration B. Facet degeneration leading to abnormal cervical motion C. Congenital hyperplasia of the uncinates D. Is always post-traumatic

A. Disc degeneration

The most common location for amorphous soft tissue calcification in patients with scleroderma is where? A. Dominate hand B. Dominate foot C. Mandible D. Paretic limbs

A. Dominate hand

Which one of the following does NOT have a plantar calcaneal spur associated with it? A. D.I.S.H. B. Reiter's syndrome C. Psoriatic D. Hemophilia E. Ankylosing spondylitis

D. Hemophilia

What percentage of patients suffering from Henoch-Schonlein purpura develops articular manifestations consisting of pain, tenderness, and swelling? A. 90% B. 60% C. 30% D. 5%

B. 60%

Which of the following degenerative diseases is related to nutrition? A. Bull man's hands B. Drillers disease C. Kashin-becks' disease D. Kasaback-merrit syndrome

C. Kashin-becks' disease

The main differential diagnosis for the articular manifestations of SLE is which one of the following? A. Psoriatic arthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Jaccoud's arthritis D. Hemochromatosis

C. Jaccoud's arthritis

Which one of the following is not a feature of Reiter's syndrome? A. Urethritis B. Arthritis C. Conjunctivitis D. Epidermolysis bullosa

D. Epidermolysis bullosa

Which one of the following best helps to differentiate psoriatic arthritis from Reiter's syndrome? A. Both upper and lower extremity joints are affected in psoriatic arthritis. B. Psoriatic arthritis has para vertebral soft tissue calcification C. Erosion and proliferation of the posterior or inferior surface of the calcareous only occurs in Reiter's syndrome D. Psoriatic arthritis is seronegitive

A. Both upper and lower extremity joints are affected in psoriatic arthritis.

What crystal deposition disorder features bronze pigmentation of the skin, cirrhosis, and diabetes? A. HADD B. CPPD C. Wilson's D. Hemochromatosis

D. Hemochromatosis

Degenerative enthesopathy is most commonly seen at which one of the following locations? A. Pelvis B. Hand C. Shoulder D. Medial compartment of the knee

A. Pelvis

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis have increased intra-articular pressure. Which one of the following is not a mechanism of synovial joint "decompression"?) A. Marginal erosions B. Subchondral cyst formation C. Synovial cyst formation D. Sinus tract formation

A. Marginal erosions

What type of Juvenile chronic arthritis frequently involves the cervical spine? A. Polyarticular B. Pauciarticular C. Monoarticular D. All the above

A. Polyarticular

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is most commonly found in what population? A. White females of childbearing age B. Middle aged white males C. Black females of child bearing age D. Middle aged black male

C. Black females of child bearing age

A disc herniation represents what abnormality on a myelogram? A. Extradural filling defect B. Intradural, extramedullary filling defect C. Intramedullary filling defect D. All the above

A. Extradural filling defect

Which one of the following processes leads to the appearance of a ?bamboo spine? in AS? A. Disc calcification B. Osteitis C. Syndesmophytes D. Kyphosis

C. Syndesmophytes

Which one of the following connective tissue disorders does NOT cause erosions on the superior surface of the ribs? A. Psoriatic B. RA C. SLE D. Scleroderma

A. Psoriatic

The term "Pseudogout" refers to what? A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal-induced acute synovitis B. Cartilage calcification C. Structural joint abnormalities attributed to calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals D. Radiographically evident calcification in and around articulations Reference:

A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal-induced acute synovitis

Which one of the following is NOT a differential diagnosis for Milwaukee shoulder? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. PVNS C. Neuropathic arthritis D. Both A and B are not

B. PVNS

The atrophic form of neuropathic osteoarthropathy closely resembles what other disease? A. Osteosarcoma B. Severe osteoarthropathy C. Septic arthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. Septic arthritis

Radial subluxation or dislocation at the interphalangeal joint of the thumb in paitents with dermatomyositis / polymyositis is called what? A. Hitchhikers thumb B. Caput digitalis C. Floppy thumb D. Broken Tom thumb

C. Floppy thumb

Involvement of the axial skeleton in ulcerative colitis closely resembles what other inflammatory arthritis? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Psoriatic spondylitis C. Idiopathic gouty spondylitis D. Ochronotic arthropathy

A. Ankylosing spondylitis

Early manifestation of RA in the wrist includes which one(s) of the following? A. Erosions of the triquetrum and pisiform bones B. Erosion and swelling around the distal end of the ulnar styloid process C. Sinus tract rheumatism D. Both A and B are early manifestations

D. Both A and B are early manifestations

What radiographic view of the hands shows erosions on the metacarpal heads, triquetrum, and pisiform to an advantage? A. Ball Catchers view B. Ball busters view C. Dave and busters view D. Carpal tunnel view

A. Ball Catchers view

Which one of the following is not a frequent site of the articular manifestations in Reiter's syndrome? A. Small articulations of the foot B. S.I. joints C. Symphysis pubis D. Hip

D. Hip

Joint involvement seen in Sarcoidosis is best described as which one of the following? A. Chronic arthropathy with marked erosive changes B. Acute arthropathy with marked bony poliferative changes C. Transient, symmetrical arthropathy without radiographic findings D. Recurrent arthropathy without erosive changes, but with deformities

C. Transient, symmetrical arthropathy without radiographic findings

In AS, what is the term applied in which three vertical radiopaque lines are seen on frontal radiographs related to ossification of the supraspinous and interspinous ligaments and apophyseal joint capsules? A. Bamboo spine B. Shiny coroner sign C. Trolley-track sign D. Dagger sign

C. Trolley-track sign

The initial joint changes seen in AS are seen in what location? A. Upper cervical region (C1/C2) B. Upper thoracic disco vertebral junctions C. Mid lumbar Facet joints D. Sacroiliac joints

D. Sacroiliac joints

Of the following articulations, which one is most frequently involved in hemophilia? A. Knee B. Cervical spine C. Hip D. Wrist

A. Knee

Which one of these is the least likely cause of chondrocalcinosis? A. CPPD B. Alkaptonuria C. Hemochromatosis D. Gout E. Lymes disease

E. Lymes disease

What is the pathogenesis of IVOC? A. Infection B. Dehydration and loss of tissue resiliency of the nucleus pulposus C. A.L.L. degeneration leading to a "sloppy" inter-body articulation D. Abnormalities in the peripheral fibers of the annulus fibrosis

B. Dehydration and loss of tissue resiliency of the nucleus pulposus

What type of juvenile chronic arthritis has systemic or articular (or both) symptoms and signs in the absence of positive serologic test results for rheumatoid factor? A. Still's Disease B. Juvenile onset adult RA C. Rheumatoid nodularis D. Adult onset juvenile RA

A. Still's Disease

Which one of the following HAS (or may have) a bilateral and asymmetrical sacroilitis associated with it? A. Whipples disease B. AS C. Osteitis condensans ilii D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Crohn's disease

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Which one of the following characterizes Alkaptonuria? A. Absence of homogentisic acid oxidase B. Complete deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferace activity C. Abnormal pigmentation of connective tissues D. Lead nephropathy

A. Absence of homogentisic acid oxidase

Which one of the following joint disorders does NOT have a periosteal reaction associated with it? A. Hemochromatosis B. JCA C. Psoriatic D. Reiter's

A. Hemochromatosis

In RA of the heel, what is the most frequent abnormality? A. Plantar fasciitis B. Achilles tendinitis C. Retrocalcaneal bursitis D. Achilles tendon rupture

C. Retrocalcaneal bursitis

Syringomyelia frequently causes neuropathic osteoarthropathy of what joint? A. Hip B. Ankle C. Wrist D. Shoulder

D. Shoulder

What radiographic sign is strongly suggestive of gouty arthritis? A. Erosions B. Non uniform loss in joint space C. Overhanging edge D. Hook erosions

C. Overhanging edge

What disorder features episodic inflammation of cartilaginous tissue and organs of special sense? A. Tietze's syndrome B. Bechet's disease C. Relapsing polychondritis D. SAPHO

C. Relapsing polychondritis

In what location is the atrophic type of neuropathic osteoarthropathy the most common presentation? A. Knee B. Spine C. Shoulder D. Ankle

C. Shoulder

What is the name given to the situation in which fraying of the extensor tendons of the wrist occurs by an eroded head of the ulna that abnormally projects into the dorsal compartments of the wrist. A. Radiocarpal Malaignment B. Zig Zag deformity C. Caput Ulnae syndrome D. Ulnar impaction syndrome

C. Caput Ulnae syndrome

What is the etiology of saturnine gout? A. Glycogen storage disease B. Complete deficiency of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferace activity C. Lead nephropathy D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

C. Lead nephropathy

Disc degeneration as seen on a T2-weighted MRI reveals what? A. High signal intensity B. Low signal intensity C. Decreased disc height D. Both B and C

D. Both B and C

What is the best-accepted pathogenesis of sponylosis deformans? A. Infection B. Dehydration and loss of tissue resiliency of the nucleus pulposus C. A.L.L. degeneration leading to a "sloppy" inter-body articulation D. Abnormalities in the peripheral fibers of the annulus fibrosis

D. Abnormalities in the peripheral fibers of the annulus fibrosis

Which one of the following is NOT a DDX for hemochromatosis of the hand? A. CPPD B. Kashin-Beck's disease C. Ochronosis D. Both A and B are NOT a DDX for hemochromatosis

C. Ochronosis

Ankylosis as a complication of DJD is most commonly seen in which of the following joints? A. Knee B. Shoulder C. Sacroiliac D. Wrist

C. Sacroiliac

Which one of the following does NOT progress to main-en-lorgnette? (Arthritis mutilans or opera glass hand) A. RA B. Psoriatic C. Osteoarthrosis D. JCA

C. Osteoarthrosis

Which of the following is NOT a radiographic characteristic of Intervertebral (Osteo) Chondrosis? A. Disc space narrowing B. Vacuum phenomena C. Well-defined sclerotic vertebral margins D. Large spondylophytes

D. Large spondylophytes

What is the initial manifestation of Reiter's syndrome? A. Urethritis B. Arthritis C. Conjunctivitis D. Epidermolysis bullosa

A. Urethritis

Which one of the following statements about polymyositis / dermatomyositis is false? A. Raynaud's phenomena may be seen as a clinical sign B. Radiographic abnormalities seen in joints is common C. May be associated with malignancy D. Periarticular osteopenia is a frequent finding

B. Radiographic abnormalities seen in joints is common

Which one of the following is not a factor in the development of degenerative disease of extraspinal locations? A. Genetics B. Geography and environment C. Age and sex D. Omega fatty acids in the blood

D. Omega fatty acids in the blood

What is the frequency in which patients with psoriatic skin lesions develop articular manifestations? A. 100% B. 50% C. 25% D. 5%

D. 5%

What portion of the foot is commonly involved in psoriatic arthritis? A. Forefoot B. Midfoot C. Hindfoot D. Both B and C are correct

A. Forefoot

Which one of the following arthritides does NOT have destruction of the distal tuft as a possible finding? A. Scleroderma B. Psoriatic C. Raynaud's D. Leprosy E. AS

E. AS

In AS, focal destructive areas along the anterior margin of the discovertebral junction at the superior and inferior portions of the vertebral body, called "Romanus lesions" may be present. What is the pathological mechanism for this? A. Osteitis B. Syndesmophytes C. Anderson erosions (resnick) D. Burned out AS

A. Osteitis

The pathologic condition of the synovial lining in hemophilia is best described as what? A. Non-inflammatory hypertrophy B. Non-inflammatory atrophy C. Inflammatory hypertrophy D. Inflammatory atrophy

C. Inflammatory hypertrophy

What is the most frequent soft tissue lesion in rheumatoid arthritis? A. Sinus tract rheumatism B. Rheumatoid Nodules C. Baker cysts D. Retrocalcaneal bursitis

B. Rheumatoid Nodules

Which of one of the following is a pathogenesis of subchondral cyst formation seen in DJD? A. Subchondral ganglion cyst rupture B. Bony contusion C. Increased intra-articular joint pressure from a central osteophyte D. Hypertrophied synovium

B. Bony contusion

The radiographic abnormalities seen in AS involving the hands may be classified as which one of the following? A. Asymmetrically distributed B. Unilateral, Polyarticular, C. Monoarticular D. Symmetrically distributed

A. Asymmetrically distributed

The most characteristic site of abnormality seen in gouty arthritis of the foot is where? A. DIPs B. 1st metatarsophalangeal joint C. Hind foot (talocalcaneal) D. Fore foot (talonavicular)

B. 1st metatarsophalangeal joint

What type of juvenile chronic arthritis may mimic leukemia or lymphoma? A. Still's disease B. Juvenile onset adult RA C. Rheumatoid nodularis D. Adult onset juvenile RA

A. Still's disease

Which arthritis does NOT have diffuse terminal phalangeal sclerosis as an associated finding? A. Kashin-Beck's disease B. RA C. Scleroderma D. SLE E. Sarcoidosis

A. Kashin-Beck's disease

What is the vector in Lymes disease? A. Reduvid beetle B. Mosquito C. Flea D. Tick

D. Tick

On an external rotational view of the shoulder, a small calcific density is seen projected over the lateral aspect of the humeral head. On internal rotation of the shoulder, the calcification, (clearly within the soft tissues) is projected just lateral to the humeral head. In what tendon does this collection of calcium reside? A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres minor D. Subscapularis

B. Infraspinatus

What portion of the sacroiliac joint is predominately affected in AS? A. llium B. Sacrum C. Sacroiliac ligament D. Lumbosacral ligament

A. llium

Which one of the following joints is not commonly involved in DJD? A. Ankle B. Hip C. Knee D. Hand

A. Ankle

What type of lumbosacral transitional segment has the highest prevalence of discal herniation above the transition and at the level of the transition? A. Type I or dysplastic transverse processes B. Type II or incomplete lumbarization or sacralization C. Type III or complete lumbarization or sacralization D. Type IV or mixed E. Foshang's pustular postulate

B. Type II or incomplete lumbarization or sacralization

A 56 year old female presents with a small, pliable soft tissue mass seen on the dorsal aspect of the 2nd distal interphalangeal joint. This mass is moveable upon palpation. Radiographs of the hand reveal non-uniform loss in joint space, osteophytosis, and subchrondral sclerosis in all the DIPs and the 2-4 digit?s PIPs. This soft tissue mass most likely represents what? A. Heberden's node B. Mucous cyst C. Rheumatoid nodule D. Lipoma

B. Mucous cyst

In AS, which one of the following is not a mechanism by which localized central lesions seen at the discovertebral junction forming cartilaginous nodes are formed? A. Osteoporosis B. Instability due to apophyseal joint disease C. Increased intradiscal pressure by hyperkyphosis D. Intraosseous inflammatory changes

C. Increased intradiscal pressure by hyperkyphosis

What joint is most commonly involved in Lymes disease? A. Knee B. Cervical spine C. Sacroiliac joints D. Hand E. All the above have the same frequency of occurrence

A. Knee

Which one of the following terms is not associated with the bony and joint changes seen in psoriatic arthritis? A. Beak-like bony proliferation B. Tumoral enthesopathy C. Pencil-and-a-cup deformity D. Whiskering

A. Beak-like bony proliferation

The joint deformity seen in severe osteoarthritis of the knee is most commonly of what form? A. Varus B. Valgus C. Impaction D. All the above

A. Varus

Jaccoud's arthropathy simulates what other disorder(s)? A. SLE B. Scleroderma C. Ehler's Danlos D. Both A and C

D. Both A and C

Which one of the following is NOT an arthritis associated with osteoporosis? A. RA B. JCA C. Hemophilia D. Gout

D. Gout

What blood test(s) are frequently abnormal in patients with active ankylosing spondylitis? Select all correct answers. A. Sedimentation rate B. Western blot C. HLA-B27 D. Kveim test

A. Sedimentation rate C. HLA-B27

Which one of the following is NOT a common feature of gouty arthritis? A. Eccentric nodular soft tissue prominence B. Relatively well maintained joint spaces C. Bony erosions D. Regional osteoporosis

D. Regional osteoporosis

Which one of the findings seen in DJD is most strongly linked to hereditary factors? A. Nonuniform loss in joint space B. Subchondral cysts C. Heberden's nodes D. Eggar's cysts

C. Heberden's nodes

The association of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, and leukopenia is called what? A. Sjogren's Syndrome B. Felty's Syndrome C. Jaccoud's D. Meigs Disease

B. Felty's Syndrome

Extensive central and peripheral discovertebral lesions seen in AS are related to what? A. Osteoporosis B. Hyperkyphosis C. Improper fracture healing D. Discal herniation

C. Improper fracture healing

A 45-year-old man presents with fever, weight loss, brown pigmentation of the skin, and knee and ankle joint arthralgia. A previous visit to his internist revealed accumulation of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) positive inclusions in the macrophages of the lamina propria of his small intestine. What is the most likely diagnosis is what? A. Wilson's disease B. Hemophilia C. Whipple's disease D. Ochronosis

C. Whipple's disease

Which one of the following is false regarding the characteristics of psoriatic arthritis? A. Has bony erosions with adjacent proliferation B. Asymmetric distribution more common than symmetric distribution C. Intra-articular bony ankylosis D. Osteoporosis is a prominent feature

D. Osteoporosis is a prominent feature

What type of calcium is seen within the soft tissues in patients with scleroderma? A. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate B. Hydroxyapatite C. Calcitonin D. Calcium Oxalate

B. Hydroxyapatite

Syndesmophytes represent ossification of what? A. Paravertebral tissues B. Anulus fibrosis C. Nucleus pulposus D. Anterior longitudinal ligament

B. Anulus fibrosis

MOVEDAdvanced Arthritis Flashcards

(115 cards)