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Flashcards in MP201's(b) Deck (60):
1

According to M.P. 201.05B Support Sector (R 04/95), what section is the support sector assigned under?

The Resource sector is assigned under the Logistics Section Officer as part of the ICS.

2

According to M.P. 201.05B Support Sector (R 04/95), what are the responsibilities of the support sector?

1. Assisting the Logistics Section officer in initial and continuing evaluation of support needs. 2. Providing and resupply of all expendable supplies such as air, oxygen, medical supplies, AFFF, Gatorade, food, etc. 3. Providing and coordinating field refueling of apparatus. 4. Liaison with equiptment management to provide for the ongoing performance of all department apparatus. 5. providing and coordinating equipment and manpower for delivery of fire hose and other equipment to the scene and/or back to stations. 6. Provide for the delivery to the incident site of specialized and backup equipment as may be needed 7. Coordinate provision of specialized equipment or services required at the scene from other city departments or outside agencies and provide liaison as required. 8. Coordinating exchange of portable radios and communications equipment requiring servicing

3

According to M.P. 201.05B Support Sector (R 04/95), who is responsible for providing the designated personnel and response capability to meet the requirements of this MP?

The Resource Management Deputy Chief. He is also responsible to respond to major incidents. Other resource officers and section heads will respond to the scene on all second alarms or greater.

4

According to M.P. 201.05B Support Sector (R 04/95), who has the responsibility to respond to all multiple alarms or any other incident requested by command and establish the support organization?

The resource officer.

5

According to M.P. 201.05B Support Sector (R 04/95), what is 614?

The resource management section of the support services division that provides 24 hour service to maintain apparatus and equipment and meet emergency needs of the department.

6

According to M.P. 201.05B Support Sector (R 04/95), how will responsibilities be structured if it becomes necessary to open resource management facility?

1. Apparatus Officer 2. Equipment officer 3. Resource Management Staff

7

According to M.P. 201.05C Lobby Sector (R 06/97), what is the Lobby Sector?

The Lobby Sector is used to control access to a building or area during fires, hazardous materials incidents, rescue operations or any other situation where it is necessary to control and maintain accountability for the entry and exit of personnel. -in a high rise, normally the ground floor lobby -in a technical operation, the perimeter shall be defined by hazard zone tape with an entrance/exit point identified.

8

According to M.P. 201.05C Lobby Sector (R 06/97), what is the only location where personnel shall enter or exit from the maintained area in order to maintain full accountability?

The Lobby Sector. Lobby Sector personnel must control all access points when alternate entrances are available. Lobby Sector will record names, times and assignments of all personnel entering or exiting controlled area. Accountability tags will be collected.

9

According to M.P. 201.05C Lobby Sector (R 06/97), what consideration should be given to Lobby Sector by the initial arriving company on high rise fires and other situations where control of access is necessary?

When beginning operations at these incidents, at least one firefighter from the initial arriving companies should be left to establish a lobby sector. All personnel entering the building or area must report to lobby sector before reporting to any other sector or assignment. Civilian personnel entering the area shall be accompanied by a firefighter with a portable radio.

10

According to M.P. 201.05D Environmental Sector (R 03/03), what is the purpose of the environmental sector?

The purpose of the environmental sector procedure is to establish guidelines for handling large scale events during and after fire ground mitigation including multiple alarm fires, other fires involving hazmat, major spills, leaks, and other significant events that may result in environmental contamination or have a major impact on the operation of city services.

11

According to M.P. 201.05D Environmental Sector (R 03/03), under what section will the environmental sector operate?

The environmental sector will function under the planning section chief while communicating the information through the operations section to the hazmat branch.

12

According to M.P. 201.05F Information Sector (R09/98), what is the purpose of this sector?

The establishment of this sector will relieve Command of the responsibility of dealing with the media during critical Command Stages and provide standard information the media will require to accurately report the emergency.

13

According to M.P. 201.05F Information Sector (R09/98), what is the PIO’s role role in the Information Sector?

The PIO will report to command, upon arrival, and establish an information sector if not already established. If a fire company has been assigned info sector, the PIO may assume sector responsibilities at his/her discretion. The radio designation will be Public Information Sector.

14

According to M.P. 201.05F Information Sector (R09/98), who is responsible for the safety of media personnel?

Each sector officer is responsible for the safety of media personnel in the area.

15

According to M.P. 201.05F1 Public Information Certified Journalist (R 05/98), what do CFJ’s do in order to become certified?

Attend a 40 hour Fire Journalist course including tactics, EMS, SCBA certification and special ops.

16

According to M.P. 201.05F1 Public Information Certified Journalist (R 05/98), how will CFJ’s be identified?

By their department issued green helmet and id card.

17

According to M.P. 201.05F1 Public Information Certified Journalist (R 05/98), how will CFJ’s be escorted around the fireground?

On smaller incidents they will report directly to command and be under their or a company officers direct supervision. On larger incidents they will contact the PIO. The PIO will contact command for a sector assignment for the CFJ. They will then be escorted to the sector officer. They may enter the warm zone so long as it does not interfere with operations. They will have no privileges when jurisdiction lies with any law enforcement or other governmental agency.

18

According to M.P. 201.05H Welfare Sector (R 09/00), when will a welfare sector be established?

A welfare sector officer will be established for any incident involving the serious injury or fatality of a member of the Phoenix Regional Department. The IC will be responsible for establishing the sector. For off duty incidents, the on duty deputy will be responsible for establishing the sector and immediately notify the assistant chiefs of the personnel division, operations, and the fire chief.

19

According to M.P. 201.05H Welfare Sector (R 09/00), who does the welfare sector notify and provide a list of names of people that information may be released to?

The dispatch and deployment center.

20

According to M.P. 201.05H Welfare Sector (R 09/00), who provides information to the fire stations regarding injured firefighters?

The welfare sector will initiate notification but will not include names until families are notified. Notification will include -a brief description of the incident -the number and priority of injuries -receiving hospital

21

According to M.P. 201.05H Welfare Sector (R 09/00), who notifies families of injuries to firefighters?

A family liaison officer is assigned to each family and will make contact as soon as possible. The notification should occur after all patients have arrived at hospitals.

22

According to M.P. 201.05H Welfare Sector (R 09/00), who is in charge of ensuring best patient care at the hospital?

The hospital liaison officer.

23

According to M.P. 201.05H Welfare Sector (R 09/00), when the crisis management part of the welfare sector has been stabilized, who are sector duties transferred to?

The welfare officer at the health clinic for ongoing monitoring and support.

24

According to M.P. 201.05I Police Liaison (R 03/00), when should a Police Liaison Sector Officer be assigned?

When there is a need for command level interaction between two departments. They will deal with all law enforcement agencies at the scene of the incident. At major incidents a police supervisor will be requested to report to the fire Command Post. If no supervisor o/s, the request can be made thru dispatch. The PLSO will be responsible for determining the specific needs of each situation.

25

According to M.P. 201.05I Police Liaison (R 03/00), when responding to assist the police department with a major incident, where should the first unit go?

The first unit should proceed to the Police Command Post to establish Liaison-all other units will stage.

26

According to M.P. 201.05I Police Liaison (R 03/00), what will the Police Liaison Sector Officer coordinate?

All activities requiring coordination including -traffic control -crowd control -evacuation -fatalities -crime scenes -persons interfering with FD ops

27

According to M.P. 201.05I Police Liaison (R 03/00), who will enforce the fire line identified by the fire department.

The Police Liaison Sector officer is responsible for coordinating the location and establishment of the fire line with the police department and directing the work of FD personnel assigned to place fire line tape. The police department will enforce the fire line. It is there responsibility to keep unauthorized persons outside the line. Authorized personnel inside the line are the responsibility of the fire department.

28

According to M.P. 201.06 Additional Resources (R03/00), what does the term beware of “Crisis Management” refer to?

Situation grows at a rate faster than the response rate to that situation. Command ends up with an out of control situation and inadequate resources to control it.

29

According to M.P. 201.06 Additional Resources (R03/00), when Command begins to debate whether or not to call another alarm, what should they do?

Call for it. If the extra resource is not needed, it can easily be put back in service.

30

According to M.P. 201.06 Additional Resources (R03/00), what does it mean to avoid request resources in a piecemeal fashion?

Command should utilize the greater alarm mechanism. It is the quickest, provides for automatic move-ups and indicates in a standard manner that the fire problem is in an expanded mode.

31

According to M.P. 201.06 Additional Resources (R03/00), command must call for additional resources at what rate?

At a rate that stays ahead of the incident. Command must also expand the incident arrangement system to manage that additional resource.

32

According to M.P. 201.06A When to Summon Additional Resources (R01/95), list the situations in which command should call for additional resources. (13)

1) An actual or potential fire situation exists and the life hazard exceeds the rescue EMS capabilities of initial alarm companies. 2) The number, location, and condition of actual victims exceeds the rescue/removal/treatment capabilities of companies. 3) An actual or potential fire situation exists and the property protection demand (both internal and external) exceeds the fire control capabilities of initial alarm companies. 4) Fire conditions become more severe or the situation deteriorates significantly. 5) All companies have been committed and the fire is not controlled. 6) Forces are depleted due to exhaustion or injury or are trapped or missing: Command must forecast the effect the fire will have on personnel and provide for the support of such personnel in advance. 7) Command runs out if some resource (men, apparatus, water, equipment, command, etc.) 8) There is evidence of significant fire but companies are unable to determine location and extent. 9) The commitment of companies is not effective. 10) Companies cannot effectively perform early loss control operations. 11) Situation becomes so widespread/complex that command can no longer effectively “cope”--the situation requires larger command organization and more sector functions. 12) The weather is or has the potential to have a particularly exhausting effect on resources. 13) Command instinctively feels the need to summon additional resource (don’t disregard fireground hunches).

33

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), when calling for a helicopter, what should command request?

The type of helicopter and pilot support needed for the particular situation.

34

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), who are fire personnel prohibited from flying with?

Pilots or in an aircraft that have not been approved and appropriately carded.

35

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), when should helicopter transportation be considered? (6)

-when time and distance affect ground transportation time. -when sufficient ambulances are unavailable -when patients are in locations inaccessible to ground units. -immediate trauma patients requiring urgent surgery -patients requiring specialized treatment (OB, pediatric, burns, neurological) -any other patient medical control deems necessary

36

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), when should aerial reconaissance be considered?

-brush firefighting -complex structure fires involving difficult access -high rise fires -for tracking direction and distance of air contamination at hazmat fires

37

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), when restricting surrounding airspace to avoid interference with emergency operations, who must the request be made to?

The request must be made to the FAA Flight Service Station. News helicopters may or may not be restricted from this space at the discretion of command.

38

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), when requesting a helicopter to transport personnel and/or equipment urgently needed at the scene of an emergency, what should the request for assistance include?

This may be requested particularly when distance is a factor. The request for assistance should include the number of personnel and the weight and volume of equipment to be transported.

39

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), what are the valley capabilities to provide aerial water drop.

Phx Police Air Unit has the ability to put two bambi buckets in service and mesa the ability to put one. Each bucket can hold 67-96 gallons of water depending on air temp and humidity. Phx has four buoy wall tanks and mesa one. Each one holds 3000-4000 gallons.

40

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), when conducting air water drops, who relays drop instructions and effectiveness tot he pilot?

Command.

41

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), helicopters with full buckets are prohibited from what?

Flying over occupied structures or traffic. Roadways must be closed or structures evacuated if no other flight path can be used.

42

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), describe buoy wall setup.

-Engine co assigned to the landing zone sector will assist the water tender driver with setup and filling. -Must be set up in large flat area, clear of overhead obstruction. -Place 1-2 salvage covers on the ground to protect the bottom. -Tank fills from the bottom only. After 1 foot flow rate can be increased. -Foam concentrate can be added when it is one foot from the top.

43

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), how far must apparatus be to the side of the flight path of helicopters dipping the tank?

At least 150 ft.

44

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), what actions should the engine company assigned to the landing zone take?

-Lay a supply line -extend two 1 1/2 lines to refill belly tanks, wet down area, and provide fire protection. -

45

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), when can crews approach the helicopter during brush fire operations?

Approach only after making eye contact with the pilot and the pilot has to refill and re-arm the belly tank. All refilling is done from the right side.

46

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), how should crews approach and withdraw a helicopter?

Along the same path, to the front of the aircraft within 45 degrees. when the crew is clear and off to the sides, the landing zone officer will signal the pilot for take-off.

47

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), the risk of using helicopters and placing rescue personnel in dangerous situations must be weighed against what?

The urgency of the rescue situation.

48

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), what is meant by the term “special use” of helicopters?

Activities that require pilots and rescuers to use certified technical rescue skills to affect the rescue if a patient(s) that are in critical condition or life threatening situations. They require a technical rescue sector to be established.

49

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), Personnel in the landing zone should have what before the helicopter pilot lands?

-Direct communications with the pilot. Command should assign all helicopter communications to a separate radio channel and designate a person to exclusively with this channel. -If unable to make contact on an assigned channel, the arriving helicopter shall circle or hover in the vicinity until contact is established. May be directed to land with hand or light signals if radio communications proves unfeasible. -radio contact and the landing zone shall be be maintained for two to three minutes after departure in case an in flight emergency occurs.

50

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), what is firebird?

The radio designation for a helicopter operating under the direction of PFD.

51

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), should anything become unsafe during the approach of any helicopter during landing operations, what should the pilot be instructed to do?

Go around three times.

52

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), describe the appropriate landing zone?

-free of obstructions for 100 x 100 ft for each helicopter -vehicle traffic must be kept a min of 200’ away -in the center, a 60’ x 60’ touch down area shall be identified with visual markers

53

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), where should the individual communicating with pilot stand?

At the front right corner of the LZ as seen by the pilot. Any noted obstructions must be communicated to the pilot before he is committed.

54

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), the approach and departure paths must be free of obstructions. How far should this extend?

100 yards in each direction. The path should not pass over any treatment areas or command post or other area. The LZ should be located at least 100 yards from other activity areas.

55

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), what precaution is taken with regard to the tail rotor when a helicopter is landed?

While the helicopter is in the ground, whether running or not, a tail guard shall be stationed 50-100 feet from the tail rotor to keep the area secured. At no times shall personnel pass behind the body of the helicopter and the tail rotor.

56

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), what is a wind indicator?

Indicator for pilot during takeoff and landing. Back to the wind arms extended in front of body.

57

According to M.P. 201.07 Air Operations (R 09/01), how far away should patients waiting to be loaded into a helicopter be staged?

150 feet.

58

According to M.P. 201.08 Post Incident Review (R 08/96), when is a post incident review most beneficial?

Participants will benefit most when a post incident review is conducted at the incident scene.

59

According to M.P. 201.08 Post Incident Review (R 08/96), who should complete the Post Incident review form?

The form should be completed by the Battalion Chief and forwarded to the tactical services section for review, reporting, and training.

60

According to M.P. 201.08 Post Incident Review (R 08/96), what should the focus of the review be on?

The overall operation, firefighter safety and survival, and customer service. It should also be concluded on a positive note.