MQF Flashcards
(204 cards)
1
Q
T/F Anytime an operational limit is exceeded an appropriate entry shall be made on AFTO Form 781.
A
True
2
Q
Anytime an operational limit is exceeded, the 781 entry shall state what limit or limits were exceed, ______, and any additional data that will aid maintenance personnel in the inspection that is required.
A
Range and duration
3
Q
T/F When power is interrupted or removed from the center MFD all exceedance information is erased.
A
True
4
Q
Nr green band
A
91-105%
5
Q
Normally, autorotation RPM will be set at approximately 91-105% and sea level, ____, at light gross weight (2 persons/ full fuel)
A
70 KIAS
6
Q
A helicopter can be started in a maximum steady state or peak gust wind speed of ___ knots or a maximum gust spread of ___ knots.
A
30, 15
7
Q
Three energized periods allowed per ___. Limit starter energizing time to:
A
hour; 35 seconds ON, 3 minutes OFF, 35 seconds ON, 30 minutes OFF, 35 seconds ON
8
Q
Center of gravity (CG) limits for loading purposes are located between fuselage stations ___
A
130-144
9
Q
When flying at an aft CG (____) terminate an approach at a minimum 5 foot hover prior to landing to prevent striking the tail on the ground.
A
Station 140 to 144
10
Q
Lateral CG limits
A
± 7.5 inches
11
Q
Towing the helicopter, with ground handling wheels installed, on rough surfaces at gross weights in excess of ___ pounds may cause permanent set in the aft cross tube.
A
9,500 lbs.
12
Q
Abrupt changes of flight controls causing negative “G” load are prohibited. Intentional flight below ___ is prohibited.
A
+0.5G
13
Q
T/F Intentional flight into severe or extreme turbulence is prohibited.
A
True
14
Q
The helicopter should not be towed for ___ minutes after the battery switch has been turned OFF to prevent damage to attitude and directional gyros. If the helicopter must be towed prior to the waiting period, the battery switch shall be turned ON. Wait ___ minutes after the switches are ON before moving the helicopter.
A
25, 5
15
Q
Maximum cross slope landing capabilities under normal conditions
A
10°
16
Q
Maximum nose up slope landing capabilities under normal conditions
A
10°
17
Q
Maximum nose down slope landing capabilities under normal conditions
A
7°
18
Q
Do not apply rotor brake above ___ Nr except for emergencies
A
20%
19
Q
Applying rotor brake above ___ Nr will increase the tendency for the aircraft to spin on smooth surfaces.
A
40%
20
Q
Dual tachometer (≤ to 91% Ng) Nr green band
A
91-105%
21
Q
Dual tachometer (≤ to 91% Ng) Nf green band
A
97-104%
22
Q
Dual tachometer: Red triangle at ___ (peak Nf). Transient range (from the Nf limit up to and including peak Nf) is limited to ___ seconds.
A
105%, 3 seconds
23
Q
Dual tachometer (> 91% Ng) Nr green band
A
91-105%
24
Q
Dual tachometer (> 91% Ng) choose Nf green band
A
97-102%
25
Ng green band (maximum)
105.8%
26
Engine oil temperature: green band (below 30°C FAT)
-55 to 93°C
27
Engine oil temperature: yellow band (below 30°C FAT)
93-100°C
28
Engine oil pressure: red band
0-25 psi
| 100+ psi
29
Engine oil pressure: white band
25-80 psi
30
Engine oil pressure: green band
80-100 psi
31
Engine oil pressure up to ___ psi on start is normal and aircraft limits have not been exceeded. Do not advance throttle until the pressure is within normal operating limits.
105 psi
32
EGT (prior to engine stabilization) green band:
0-950°C
33
EGT (engine stabilized) green band
400-820°c
34
EGT (engine stabilized) yellow band
820-880°C
35
EGT (engine stabilized) white band:
0-400°C
36
EGT (engine stabilized) red band:
880°C +
37
Transmission oil temperature: green band
-55 to 110°C
38
Transmission oil temperature red band
110°C +
39
Transmission oil pressure red band:
0-30 psi
| 70 psi +
40
Transmission oil pressure yellow band:
30-40 psi
41
Transmission oil pressure green band:
40-70 psi
42
Airspeed indicator (above 88% torque) red band:
80+ knots
43
Airspeed indicator (at or below 88% torque) red band:
130+ knots
44
Airspeed indicator (at or below 88% torque) green band:
0-130 knots
45
Fuel pressure white band:
0-8 psi
| 25-50 psi
46
Fuel pressure green band:
8-25 psi
47
Torque indicator green band:
0-88%
48
Torque indicator yellow band:
88-100% (5 minute limit)
49
If main cargo door comes open while in flight, reduce airspeed below ___ knots and secure the door.
50 knots
50
Do not operate the helicopter at airspeeds greater than ___ KIAS with cargo doors locked in the full open position
120 KIAS
51
Sideward flight limits are
35 knots
52
Rearward flight limits are
30 knots
53
T/F When the battery switch is ON, it allows the battery to be charged by the generator.
True
54
The fuel control assembly is mounted on the engine and consists of
metering section
computer section
overspeed governor
55
The engine de-ice is a fail-safe system and will automatically come on ___
In the event of a DC electrical failure
56
The compressor air-bleed band system and operation of the variable inlet guide vanes is controlled by
computer section
57
Icing of the engine air inlet screens can be expected when operating at outside air temperatures of ___ or below
4.4°C (40° F)
58
T/F The hydraulic switch, when in the OFF position, allows electrical current to flow to and close the hydraulic solenoid valve, thus denying hydraulic pressure to the servos. When in the ON position, current does not flow to the hydraulic solenoid valve leaving it open and hydraulic pressure applied to the servos
True
59
T/F The 90° gearbox provides no gear reduction
False
60
During a restricted visibility instrument takeoff, as the aircraft clears the ground, adjust attitude to a ___ degree nose low indication.
5°
61
T/F A freewheeling unit is incorporated in the XMSN to provide a quick-disconnect from the engine if a power failure occurs.
True
62
T/F Convective turbulence is the most frequently encountered turbulence
False
63
Fuel flow will increase about ___ lbs per hour with the bleed air heat on and about ___ lbs per hour with de-ice on.
14lbs (2%)
| 21lbs (3%)
64
T/F Collective pitch should never be applied to reduce rotor RPM below normal limits to extend your glide distance.
True
65
Tail rotor failure can put the aircraft in such an attitude that the pilot naturally tends toward ___ cyclic to correct the attitude.
right-rear
66
Following tail rotor failure, cyclic inputs combined with aircraft attitude can exceed the ___ and induce mast bumping.
12° flapping angle
67
A failure within the irreversible valve may cause extreme stiffness in the
Collective or 2 of the 4 cyclic control quadrants
68
Operating procedures, techniques, etc... that are considered essential to emphasize
Note
69
Operating procedures, techniques, etc... that will result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed
Warning
70
Operating procedure, technique, etc... that will result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed
Caution
71
Do not store or place items under ___ seating. Failure to observe may cause injury to personnel, during hard landing where the seat my stroke down or collapse.
Any
72
T/F Although Halon vapor has a low toxicity, its decomposition products can be hazardous.
True
73
Because automatic acceleration, deceleration, and overspeed control are not provided with the GOV switch in the EMER position, throttle and collective coordinated control movements must be smooth to prevent ____.
compressor stall, overspeed & over-temp, engine failure
74
T/F When manipulating the search light control switch (SEARCH CONT) inadvertent actuation of governor RPM switch (GOV RPM INCR/DECR) is possible
True
75
The airspeed, vertical velocity and altimeter are unreliable below ___ because of rotor downwash on the pitot static system. During takeoff, do not rely on these instruments until at least ___.
20 KIAS and 20 KIAS
76
On the marginal power takeoff, do not inadvertently allow airspeed to drop below ___ or critical settling to the ground may occur.
ETL (16-24 knots)
77
If the aircraft cannot be stabilized at ___ without RPM bleed off, it is over-loaded for the current conditions.
a 2 ft. hover
78
T/F Rapid increase in collective is most effective in controlling rolling motions and is the recommended procedure if conditions permit. Reducing the collective and landing is acceptable as long as the pilot is prepared for cyclic into the slope.
False
79
When conducting a steep approach, reducing forward airspeed to zero before reaching hover altitude my result in
Vortex ring state
80
Under certain conditions, the rotating main rotor blades my flex or droop, resulting in a low ground clearance ____ which may be hazardous to boarding or deplaning personnel.
As low as 5 ft.
81
In the event the RPM audio sounds and/or warning light illuminates
Confirm engine malfunction by one or more other indications
82
T/F If manual throttle corrects the overspeed, LAND AS SOOON AS PRACTICAL since there is little or no chance of impending engine failure due to the debris generated by the initial Nf failure.
False
83
In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust, failure to maintain ___ until touchdown may result in an uncontrollable and unrecoverable spin to the right.
60 knots
84
In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust, aft cyclic application should be ___ to avoid mast bumping.
Very slow and very small
85
In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust, simultaneous ___ should be avoided.
Aft cyclic and increased collective
86
In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust in a hover.
Immediately retard throttle to idle (off if possible)
Maintain level attitude
Make an autorotational landing
87
T/F In the event of a complete loss of tail rotor thrust landing, a slide landing on the aft portion of the skids will tend to correct side drift and yaw.
True
88
With ___ locked forward of neutral, attempted go around, loss of ETL or excessive collective increase could result in severe right yaw and uncontrolled flight.
The right pedal
89
In the event of transmission malfunctions, engine power must be maintained by ___ and landing to aid in preventing seizure of the transmission.
Leaving the throttle full open throughout the approach
90
T/F While operating with low hydraulic, autorotation capabilities exists despite high forces in all flight controls. Therefore, LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICAL
True
91
In the event of hydraulic power failure, do not return the HYD CONT switch to the ON position for the remainder of the flight. This prevents:
Any possibility of a surge in hydraulic pressure and the resulting loss of control
92
In the event the master caution light illuminates with no associated segment light
Do not reset the light until referencing the checklist
93
Danger exists that the main rotor system could collapse or separate from the aircraft after a flight control malfunction.
A decision to exit the helicopter must be made before the emergency shutdown
94
The ENG FIRE light will illuminate if ___
There is excessive heat in the engine compartment
95
The synchronized elevator is connected to ___
The fore and aft cyclic control system
96
T/F Electrical power is required to turn there hydraulic system off
True
97
T/F Do not operate the windshield wipers on a dry or dirty windshield
True
98
T/F You will get an RPM warning light and audio warning signal when you have a loss of signal from either the rotor tach or the power turbine tach
False
99
During takeoff, if visual reference with the ground is lost due to a brown/white out condition, the pilot flying should accomplish a ___ takeoff.
Restricted visibility
100
Rapid application of throttle ___ may result in inadvertent rotation of the aircraft when parked on ice.
40% Q
101
Power margin is the difference between:
Power available and power required
102
The pilot will brief ___
The type of approach
Significant terrain features and specific requirements
Pertinent information
103
If power margin is less than ___, a second crew member will re-compute TOLD to verify power computations.
10%
104
The (pilot not flying) PNF or other crew member will announce heading deviations of ___ degrees, airspeed deviations of ___ knots, altitude deviations exceeding ___ feet as well as deviations from the prescribed procedures being flown.
10, 10, and 100
105
T/F When passengers are in the cargo compartment, the cargo doors will remain closed during flight unless a qualified aircrew member is also in the cabin.
True
106
Any personnel who are required to be in close proximity___ to an operating helicopter require eye/ear protection.
Within 50 ft.
107
VFR/SVFR: All training flights (other than student cross-country, student solo flights, and night/NVG) require
700 ft. ceilings and 2 SM of visibility
108
Student cross-country, student solo flights and night/NVG flights requires a minimum of
1,000 ft. ceilings and 3 SM visibility
109
Aircraft will takeoff with sufficient fuel for the planned sortie, to include minimum fuel reserve of ____ and alternate fuel, if applicable.
250 lbs.
110
When the GOV switch is placed in the EMER position power available will be reduced by
11-15%
111
The same TOLD will suffice for consecutive takeoffs and landings when the aircraft gross weight or environmental conditions have not increased by
5°C
200 lbs GW
500 ft. PA
112
T/F Conduct all operations at or above 300 ft. AGL except when lower altitudes are required for terminal area operations, low-level training, takeoff, landing and operations in approved areas.
True
113
T/F During crew changes and ground operations a minimum of one pilot will be secured via seat belt and shoulder harness will continue to monitor controls
True
114
T/F Crewmembers sitting in the center observer seat may fly without shoulder straps. The shoulder harness need not be worn during actual and simulated emergency procedures.
False
115
T/F When doors are open during flight, the aircraft commander may direct crew members to perform duties in the cabin unrestrained for brief periods.
False
116
During EP training, all personnel in the cargo compartment will be in a seat and restrained by a
Seatbelt
117
A(n) ___ will be used, when available, for all engine start
Fire guard
118
Power required for landing is
Power required to hover over the point of intended landing at the intended hover height, OGE if landing to a pinnacle (smaller than 2 RD), will be at least 5 ft. hover power (for training restrictions)
119
Power required for take-off is the power sufficient to clear obstacles by a minimum of
10 ft., considers the distance to the obstacles, will be no less than 5 ft. hover power (for training restrictions)
120
If power required exceeds the power available, or the crew determines a suitable margin is insufficient to justify the risk
Lighten the helicopter, locate a more suitable landing site, abort the mission
121
The following procedures/maneuvers are prohibited during training
Actual engine shutdown in flight and intentional flight into blade stall, deliberately entering vortex ring state or settling with power, pulling circuit breakers to simulate emergency procedures
122
For unusual attitude recovery procedures training, conduct only
day, VMC and above 1,000ft AGL
123
For unusual attitude recovery procedures training, maximum bank angle is
30°
124
For unusual attitude recovery procedures training maximum nose high attitude is
20°
125
For unusual attitude recovery procedures training maximum nose low attitude is
10°
126
T/F Unusual attitude recovery procedures training may be conducted with passengers onboard
False
127
To conduct EP training, wind direction will be within 90° of landing direction when wind speed (steady state or gusts) is
0-15 knots
128
To conduct EP training, wind direction will be within 45° of landing direction when wind speed (steady or gusts) is
Above 15 knots
129
Hovering maneuvers will be conducted within ___ degrees of wind direction (EP training)
20°
130
Do not plan to touchdown in the last ___ of the landing area when conducting slide landings or touchdown autorotations.
500 ft.
131
Normal takeoff: Initiate from the ground or hover using a target torque value of 5 ft. hover power plus
5-10%
132
Maximum Performance Takeoff: Initiate from the ground or 5 ft. hover power plus ___. Simulate a 100ft. obstacle.
10-15%
133
Normal and Maximum performance takeoffs are terminated upon reaching ____ KIAS airspeed.
70 KIAS
134
For contact training: 300 ft. AGL, 70 KIAS and a 30° apparent angle are parameters for a
Normal approach
135
For contact training: 300 ft. AGL, 70 KIAS, and a 10° apparent angle are the parameters for a
Shallow approach
136
For contact training: 300 ft. AGL, 30 knots ground speed, and a 45° apparent angle are parameters for a
Steep approach
137
For approaches terminating to a slide landing, maintain directional control with pedals. Other parameters include
Maximum touchdown speed of 50 knots ground speed
| No lateral drift
138
For a standard autorotation, minimum entry altitude is
500 ft. AGL
139
For the 180° turning autorotation, minimum entry altitude is
800 ft. AGL
140
Entry airspeed between 70 and 100 KIAS applies to
Standard, 180° and low-level autorotations
141
For the low-level autorotation, minimum entry altitude is
100 ft. AGL or 50 ft. AHO
142
Minimum altitude to initiate a simulated force landing is
500 ft. AGL
143
Airspeed required to initiate a simulated force landing is
70-100 KIAS
144
Following an SFL, begin a power recovery no lower than
350 ft. AGL
145
Following an SFL, establish a normal climb
no slower than 60 KIAS and no lower than 200 ft. AGL
146
Autorotations, when performed to the ground will touchdown between
5-25 knots ground speed
147
If planning to terminate an autorotation with a power recovery, apply throttle after initiating the flare. Terminate:
No lower than 5 ft. between 0-15 knots ground speed
148
When performing practice autorotations, at no less than ___ ft. AGL, the aircraft must be wings-level, aligned with the landing direction and in a safe position to land, airspeed must be a minimum of 70 KIAS, rotor RPM must be in the normal operating range, and sink rate must be under control. Otherwise, perform a power recovery.
150
149
For autorotations, sink rate must be under control (less than ___fpm) to execute the flare.
3,000
150
To simulate a hydraulic system malfunction, prior to moving the HYD CONT switch to the OFF position, the aircraft must be
Straight and level, 300 ft. AGL (minimum), and 70 KIAS (minimum)
151
T/F SFL at a hover and hovering autorotations will only be initiated at a normal hover taxi altitudes and groundspeeds
True
152
T/F An IFR-certified Global Positioning System (GPS) with available RAIM may be used to verify navigation equipment accuracy in lieu of a ground checkpoint
True
153
The following describes PNF calls for which type of instrument approach: Call "100 ft. above minimums","minimums" at minimum descent altitude (MDA) and "runway in sight". Call "go around" at the missed approach point if the runway is not in sight.
Non-precision
154
The following describes PNF calls for which type of Instrument approach: Call "100 ft. above" when 100 ft. above decision altitude (DA). Then, if the runway environment is in sight and the aircraft is in a position for a normal landing, call "land" at decision height. Otherwise call "go around"
Precision
155
When may a pilot in command (PIC) deviate from a flight rule or ATC clearance
To protect life for safety of flight or when an in-flight emergency requires immediate action
156
When deviating from ATC clearance
Notify ATC of the action taken as soon as possible
157
USAF aircraft cockpits must always be capable of providing which full-time references in each pilot position
Attitude, altitude, airspeed and the capability to recognize, confirm and recover from unusual attitudes
158
Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew member prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and
Is a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins, is free time and includes time for meals, transportation and rest, and must include an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep
159
The Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins when
An aircrew member reports for a mission, briefing or other official duty
160
Maximum FDP for a basic TH-1H crew is
12 hours
161
Aircrew members will not fly
If any alcohol is consumed within 12 hours prior to takeoff or impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, while self medicating; unless IAW with AFI 48-123, within 72 hours of donating blood, plasma or bone marrow
162
T/F Aircrew members must maintain a medical clearance from the flight surgeon to perform inflight duties. Medical or dental treatment obtained from any source must be cleared by a flight surgeon prior to reporting for flight duty
True
163
Crewmembers who require corrective spectacles while performing aircrew duties
Must only use Air Force provided spectacles as outlined in AFI 48-123 and must carry a spare set of clear Air Force provided spectacles while performing aircrew duties
164
Each crew member must have a(n)____ flashlight for night operations
Operable
165
T/F The PIC will prohibit the use of any PED suspected of creating interference with systems on the aircraft
True
166
____ approval is required before using before any photo or video recording devices in the cockpit
OG/CC
167
Obtain clearance from ATC before ___ at an airport with an operating control tower
Taxiing, proceeding onto a runway, and taking off or landing
168
Precisely read back all ___
Traffic advisories, ATIS broadcasts, and taxi and hold short instructions
169
T/F If a taxi route requires crossing any runway, hold short until obtaining specific clearance to cross each runway
True
170
T/F Taxi clearance to a runway implies clearance to taxi onto the runway and across any runways along the taxi route
False
171
Immediately report hazardous weather conditions, ___, or any other significant flight condition that may affect aviation safety to the appropriate controlling agency
Wake turbulence, volcanic activity, and large concentrations of birds or wildlife on or near the airfield
172
For unpressurized operations without supplemental oxygen, altitude is limited to
14,000 MSL
173
T/F Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other air traffic
True
174
When converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or approximately so) ___ has the right-of-way
The aircraft to the other's right
175
If aircraft are approaching each other head-on or approximately so
Each shall alter course to the right
176
Do not allow the aircraft to be flown so close to another that it creates a collision hazard. Use ___ of separation as an approximate guide.
500 ft.
177
Prior to ___ at civil airports, transponders will be ON in the altitude reporting mode. At all other airports, unless local procedures dictate otherwise, transponders should be turned ON to the normal altitude reporting mode.
Aircraft movement
178
T/F Prior to each flight, ensure the Mode S Flight ID matches the call sign entered exactly on the flight plan with no embedded spaces, dashes, extra characters or added zeros.
True
179
T/F Pilots are relieved of the responsibility for terrain and obstacle avoidance once the controller states "Radar Conflict"
True
180
Helicopter aircrews may operate under SVFR if they
Obtain ATC clearance, remain clear of clouds, maneuver at a speed that will allow adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision
181
When landing at a civilian airfield without a tower or arriving at a civilian airfield VFR/DVFR ____
The pilot is responsible for ensuring that flight plans are closed, either by contacting an FSS, the originating military base operations, or through an ATC facility
182
Do not turn after takeoff until at least ___ above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing an closed pattern.
400 ft.
183
T/F Published or ATC climb gradients do not account for low close-in obstacles in their climb gradient calculations; therefore, low close-in obstacle clearance his not assured when complying with the published or ATC climb gradient
True
184
For IFR departures, ensure the aircraft can meet or exceed ___ or the published climb gradient, whichever is higher, to an appropriate IFR altitude
200 ft/NM
185
T/F Do not takeoff with ice, snow, frost or other contamination adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless authorized by a flight manual
True
186
____ is the clearance authority for IFR or VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace
The PIC
187
Operate over non-congested areas at an altitude at or above 500 ft AGL except over open water or in spacey populated areas. Under such exceptions, do not operate aircraft closer than 500 ft. to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure. helicopters in FAA airspace or operating IAW host-nation agreements may operate at lower altitudes and in closer proximity ____
If they do not create a hazard to persons or property on the surface
188
Operate no less than 2,000ft. AGL (mission permitting) over ___
National Park Service monuments, seashores, lake shores, recreation and scenic driveways, US Fish and Wildlife Service refuges and US Forest Service wilderness and primitive areas
189
T/F Operation in forecast or actual severe conditions (e.g. severe icing, turbulence) will be at the discretion of the PIC
False
190
During Bird Watch Condition Severe, do not conduct flight operations except in an emergency without ___ approval
OG/CC
191
If suitably equipped, monitor at least one emergency frequency at all times ___
As mission and operating conditions permit, and report distress or emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmissions to ATC
192
Regarding use of RNAV systems on conventional routes and procedures, "alternate means" refers to
Using a suitable RNAV system in lieu of operable conventional NAVAIDs or installed and operational avionics
193
Substitution of an RNAV system for the final approach segment of a VOR/TACAN/NDB approach is
Prohibited
194
When using RNAV systems on conventional routes and procedures
Retrieve all NAVAIDS, fixes and procedure for current database; tune, identify, monitor and display the appropriate ground-based NAVAIDs whenever practicable, notify ATC when substituting for an out-of-service NAVAID
195
Category A instrument approach minimums may be used regardless of approach speed. Additionally, visibility minimums may be reduced by ___, but no lower than ___ PV or ___ RVR
1/2, 1/4 SM, 1200 ft.
196
Do not reduce the visibility minimums for instrument approaches
On helicopter approaches, for circling procedures, and if "Visibility Reduction by helicopters NA" is annotated on the procedure
197
Maximum speed on conventional, non-copter approaches is
The upper limit of the highest Approach Category authorized by the procedure and 90 KIAS at the missed approach point in order to apply the visibility reduction
198
Helicopters may operate from/to other than established landing areas (e.g. fields, highways, parks) if conducting an operational or training mission. For training missions:
Permission must be received to use the area and safeguards must exist to permit operations without hazard to persons or property
199
T/F Rotary wing pilots are prohibited from accepting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearances
False
200
The point at which it is necessary to proceed directly to the airport of intended landing due to also fuel. Declaration of this state is an explicit statement that priority handling by ATC is both required and expected.
Emergency fuel
201
Night is defined in AFI 11-202 Vol 3 AETC SUP as
The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac
202
In the absence of other MAJCOM guidance, USAF aircrews shall consider as mountainous those areas defined in 14 CFR 95.11 for CONUS, Alaska, Hawaii and Puerto Rico. In other areas, use ___ surface elevation change over a ___.
500 ft./ 1/2 NM
203
The greatest horizontal visibility observed throughout at least half of the horizon circle. It need not be continuous throughout 180° consecutively
Prevailing visibility (PV)
204
A standard formation is defined as a formation in which no participating aircraft is more than ___ horizontally and ___ vertically from the lead aircraft.
1 NM, 100 ft.
