MSK Flashcards

(315 cards)

1
Q

In what percentage of cases does mechanical back pain come on suddenly?

A

60%

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2
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for back pain?

A
Mechanical back pain
Osteoarthritis of the spine
Prolapsed intervertebral disc
Spinal stenosis
Spondylolisthesis
Discitis
Inflammatory causes
Malignancy
Fracture
Referred from abomen/hip/pelvis/SI joints
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3
Q

What are the investigations for mechanical back pain?

A

No investigations unless suspecting a different differential diagnosis.

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4
Q

Which investigations would you carry out in patients with prolonged symptoms or red flag signs?

A
FBC with differential WCC
ESR
LFTs
Bone profile
Myeloma screen
CRP
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5
Q

What is the management of mechanical back pain?

A

Promote patient education
Good early symptomatic control using simple analgesia
Early return to normal activities
Self referral to physiotherapists

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6
Q

What is the common aetiology of nerve root impingement?

A

Degenerative disc disease.

Intervertebral disc herniation.

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7
Q

What are the common levels for intervertebral dic herniation to occur at?

A

L4/5

L5/S1

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8
Q

Describe the process of disc herniation.

A

Nucleus pulpous prolapses out via a defect in the degenerative annulus fibrous. This compresses the adjacent nerve root or the exiting nerve root, depending on location of disc herniation.

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9
Q

What are the clinical features of nerve root impingement?

A

Radicular pain passes below the knee and follows the dermatome of the involved nerve root.
Leg pain often equal or worse in severity than the back pain.

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10
Q

Which clinical tests can be used to examine for nerve root impingement?

A

Straight leg raise

Lasegue sign

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11
Q

How is nerve root impingement diagnosed?

A

MRI

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12
Q

What are the indications for MRI in back pain?

A

Patients who present with radicular pain >6 weeks.
Patients who develop neurological deficit.
Bilateral lower limb deficit or peroneal symptoms.

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13
Q

What is the management for nerve root impingement?

A
Non-surgical:
Physiotherapy
Analgesics
Muscle relaxants (short course initially)
Alternative therapies (e.g. acupuncture)
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14
Q

What are the indications for surgical intervention in nerve root impingement?

A

Absolute:
Cauda equina syndrome
Progressive neurological deficit.
Relative indications:
Intractable radicular pain
Neurologic deficit that does not improve despite conservative measures
Recurrent sciatica following a successful trial of conservative measures.

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15
Q

What are the red flags of back pain?

A

Age <18 or >50 at onset of non-mechanical pain.
Bilateral radicular leg pain
Limb weakness
Alternation of bladder and/or bowel function
Peri-anal numbness
History of cancer
Constitutional symptoms or weight loss
Trauma
Thoracic pain
History of immuno-compromise or prolonged steroid use.

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16
Q

What are the clinical features of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Bilateral paresthesia
Bilateral muscle weakness
Saddle parasthesia
Bladder and bowel dysfunction

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17
Q

What are the red flags for cauda equina syndrome in a history?

A
Back pain with uni/bilateral sciatica
Lower limb weakness
Altered perianal sensation
Faecal incontinence
Acute urinary retention/incontinence.
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18
Q

What are the red flags for cauda equina syndrome on examination?

A

Limb weakness
Other neurological deficit/gait disturbance
Hyper-reflexia, clonus, up going plantars
Urine retention
DRE: saddle anaesthesia
DRE: loss of anal tone

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19
Q

What are the investigations for cauda equina syndrome?

A

PR exam recording sensation and anal tone
Bladder scan pre and post void to assess for bladder emptying
Urgent MRI
Refer to neurosurgeons if MRI not immediately available.

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20
Q

What is the management for cauda equina syndrome?

A

Emergency surgical decompression

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21
Q

What are the MRI findings in a patient with cauda equina syndrome?

A

Complete obliteration of the spinal canal space.

Compression of cauda equina.

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22
Q

What is discitis?

A

An infection of the disc space

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23
Q

What is vertebral osteomyelitis?

A

An infection of the vertebral body.

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24
Q

What are the risk factors for developing discitis or vertebral osteomyelitis?

A

IV drug use
Sepsis from another source
Post spinal surgery

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25
Which organisms are most commonly associated with discitis and osteomyelitis?
Staphylococci and streptococci. Streptococci and haemophilus in children. Tuberculosis should also be considered.
26
What is the clinical presentation of discitis and vertebral osteomyelitis?
Fever Generally unwell Back pain (unrelenting) Late cases may present with spinal deformity.
27
What are the investigations for suspected discitis and osteomyelitis?
``` WCC ESR CRP X-rays - deformity MRI - increased signal in the intervertebral disc or bone/ collection/associated epidural abscess. ```
28
What is the management of discitis and vertebral osteomyelitis?
CT guided biopsy Appropriate IV antibiotics (minimum 6 weeks) Surgical treatment occasionally required - stabilisation, draining a large abscess.
29
What is the clinical presentation of spinal tumours?
Pain Neurological deficit Ask about red flag symptoms
30
What is the investigation of suspected spinal tumours?
MRI whole spine Bone scans Serum calcium
31
Do isolated anterior column fractures tend to be stable or unstable?
Stable
32
Do both column (burst fractures) or associated ligament injuries tend to be stable or unstable?
Unstable
33
What might clinical examination reveal in spinal injuries?
Bony midline tenderness Clinical deformity or palpable step Boggy swelling or bruising Neurological compromise.
34
What are two features of spinal shock?
Bradycardia | Hypotension
35
How are spinal injuries diagnosed?
Plain radiographs: C-spine - AP/lateral view/peg view Thoracic and lumbar spine - AP and lateral CT - high energy injuries, more than one column involvement, inadequate plain films, spinal cord involvement or suspected ligamentous injury. MRI - investigation of choice when assessing for ligament or spinal cord injuries.
36
What is the treatment for spinal injuries?
Stable injuries: Cervical - cervical collar, analgesia Thoracic and lumbar - early mobilisation, bracing for symptomatic relief. Unstable: Cervical - HALO jacket, cervical collar, ORIF Thoracic and lumbar - ORIF, bracing (extended application), bed rest in medically unfit patients.
37
What is scoliosis?
Lateral deviation or rotational deformity of the spine
38
What are the clinical features of scoliosis?
``` Noticed deformity such as: Rib hump Asymmetrical shoulder height Limb length inequality Chest expansion may be affected in severe deformities ```
39
What is the treatment for scoliosis?
Mild curves - conservative treatment, occassionally bracing if risk of progression of curve identified. Moderate/severe curves - surgical correction more commonly needed to prevent curve progression, or correct deformity that is compromising cardio respiratory function.
40
Give a differential diagnosis for shoulder pain.
Subacromial impingement Rotator cuff tears Dislocation Arthritis
41
What is subacromial imipingement?
Inflammation of the subacromial bursa due to abutment betwen greater tuberosity/RC and the acromioin/coraco-acromial liagement/acromioclavicular joint
42
Which conditions are associated with subacromial impingement?
Hook-shaped acromion Greater tuberosity fracture malunion Shoulder instability
43
What is the presentation of subacromial impingement?
Insidious onset shoulder pain Exacerbated by overhead activities +/- night pain
44
What are the physical exams for shoulder impingement?
Painful arc test Neer impingement sign Hawkins test
45
What might be seen on x-rays of somebody with shoulder impingement?
Type 3 hooked acromion ACJ osteoarthritis Sclerosis/cystic changes in greater tuberosity
46
What is the non-operative treatment for shoulder impingement?
Physiotherapy NSAIDs Subacromial corticosteroid injections
47
What is the operative treatment for shoulder impingement?
Arthroscopic subacromial decompression + acromiplasty
48
What are the risk factors for a rotator cuff tear?
Age Smoking Hypercholesterolemia Thyroid disease
49
What are the mechanisms of a rotator cuff tear?
Chronic degenerative tear | Acute traumatic avulsion
50
What are the symptoms of a rotator cuff tear?
Pain - acute or insidious onset, in deltoid region, worse with overhead activities +/- night pain Weakness: loss of active ROM
51
What is the special test to check for a supraspinatous tear?
Jobe's test (empty can test)
52
What is the special test to check for an infraspinatous tear?
External rotation lag
53
What is the special test to check for a teres minor tear?
Hornblower sign
54
What is the special test to check for a subscapularis tear?
Lift-off test and belly press test.
55
What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff?
Supraspinatous Infraspinatous Teres minor Subscapularis
56
Which forms of imaging can be used to look for a rotator cuff tear?
Ultrasound | MRI
57
What is the non-operative treatment for a rotator cuff tear?
Physiotherapy NSAIDs Subacromial corticosteroid injection
58
What is the operative treatment for a rotator cuff tear?
Rotator cuff repair (young, fit) Rotator cuff debridement (elderly, irreparable tear) Tendon transfer (young, fit, irreparable tear) Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (if massive tear with advanced arthritis)
59
What are the clinical features of a shoulder dislocation?
Severe shoulder pain Inability to move the shoulder Empty glenoid fossa: a palpable dent may be present at the point where the head of the humerus is supposed to lie. The arm is typically in external rotation and slight abduction.
60
What are the complications associated with shoulder dislocation?
Damage to the axillary nerve - numbness over the lateral surface of the shoulder and loss of function of the deltoid muscle. Injury to the brachial plexus, axillary artery/vein. Avulsion fracture of greater or lesser tuberosities. Recurrent shoulder instability Rotator cuff injury
61
What is the treatment of a shoulder dislocation?
Emergent treatment: Immobilisation of the joint with a sling Analgesia Conservative management: closed reduction Surgical management: reduction of humeral head and repair of labrum.
62
What are the indications of surgical management of a shoulder dislocation?
Unsuccessful closed reduction Displaced Bankart lesion Recurrent shoulder dislocations Young and active individuals may require early surgery to prevent recurrent dislocations in the future.
63
What is the definition of shoulder osteoarthritis?
Glenhumeral degenerative joint disease characterised by damage to the articular surfaces of the humeral head and/or glenoid.
64
What is the aetiology of shoulder osteoarthritis?
``` primary osteoarthritis Secondary arthritis: - post traumatic (fracture or dislocation) - inflammatory /crystalline arthritis - osteonecrosis - rotator cuff arthropathy ```
65
What are the symptoms of shoulder osteoarthritis?
Shoulder pain Loss of range of motion - especially external rotation due to anterior capsule contraction Pain at night
66
What will a physical exam of a patient with shoulder osteoarthritis show?
Decreased range of movement | Crepitus
67
Which x-ray views should be taken to look for shoulder osteoarthritis?
AP and lateral
68
What will x-ray of a patient with osteoarthritis show?
``` Joint space narrowing Subchondral sclerosis Subchondral cysts Osteophytes circumferentially at humeral head "goat's beard" Posterior glenoid wear ```
69
What is the non-operative treatment for shoulder osteoarthritis?
NSAIDs Physiotherapy Corticosteroid injections
70
What is the operative treatment for shoulder osteoarthritis?
Shoulder replacement
71
What is the differential diagnosis of shoulder pain?
``` Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis Tennis elbow Golfer's elbow Olecranon bursitis ```
72
What are the symptoms of elbow osteoarthritis?
Progressive painful movement. Loss of terminal extension. Painful locking or catching of elbow.
73
What can be found on examination in elbow osteoarthritis?
Reduce range of movement.
74
What can be seen on x-ray in elbow osteoarthritis?
Loss of joint space Osteophytes Subchondral sclerosis Subchondral cysts
75
What are the two types of elbow osteoarthritis?
Primary | Post-traumatic
76
What is the non-operative treatment for elbow osteoarthritis?
NSAIDs | Cortisone injections
77
What is the operative treatment for elbow osteoarthritis?
Debridement: removal of osteophytes and capsular release | Arthroplasty
78
What can be found on physical examination in elbow rheumatoid arthritis?
Fixed flexion deformity and ligamentous incompetence
79
What can be seen on x-rays in rheumatoid arthritis of the elbow?
Periarticular erosions | Cystic changes
80
What is tennis elbow?
Overuse injury at origin of common extensor tendon leading to tendinosis and inflammation.
81
What are the symptoms of tennis elbow?
Pain with gripping | Resisted wrist extension
82
What can be found on examination in tennis elbow?
Point tenderness at ECRB origin (lateral epicondyle). | Resisted extension of long finger exacerbates pain.
83
What do x-rays show in tennis elbow?
Usually normal. | May be calcifications at extensor origin.
84
What is the non-operative treatment for tennis elbow?
NSAIDs Physiotherapy Corticosteroid injections
85
What is the operative treatment of tennis elbow?
Release and debridement of ECRB origin.
86
What is golfer's elbow?
Overuse of flexor-pronator origin (medial epicondylitis).
87
What are the symptoms of golfer's elbow?
Pain with gripping | Resisted wrist flexion.
88
What can be found on examination in golfer's elbow?
Point tenderness just distal to medial epicondyle. | Test: pain with resisted forearm pronation and wrist flexion.
89
What can be seen on x-rays in a patient with golfer's elbow?
Usually normal | May be calcifications at flexor origin.
90
Which other imaging (in addition to x-ray) may be used in a patient with golfer's elbow?
MRI - to rule out ulnar collateral ligament injury in overhead throwers.
91
What is the non-operative treatment of golfer's elbow?
NSAIDs Physiotherapy Bracing Corticosteroid injections
92
What is the operative treatment in golfer's elbow?
Debridement and reattachement of flexor-pronator origin
93
What causes olecranon bursitis?
``` Trauma Prolonged pressure Infection Rheumatoid arthritis Gout ```
94
What is the presentation of olecranon bursitis?
``` Swelling Pain Redness Warmth Fever and malaise if infective. ```
95
What are the investigations of olecranon bursitis?
FBC Uric acid level CRP X-rays - radio-opaque foreign bodies, olecranon spur Aseptic needle aspiration of bursa (gold standard for diagnosis of infection) - urgent gram stain, culture and sensitivity. Pathology for crystals.
96
What is the treatment for olecranon bursitis?
Non-infective: Ice, elevation, NSAIDs, treat the cause. Infective: After aspiration start broad-spectrum antibiotics (covering S.aureus), oral or IV depending on severity of infection.
97
What is the treatment for recurrent bursitis?
Once the infection has settled and interval bursectomy can be considered.
98
What is the differential diagnosis of tingling fingers?
Peripheral nerve entrapment (carpal tunnel syndrome and cubital tunnel syndrome) Central nerve entrapment Peripheral neuropathy
99
What are the key features of peripheral nerve entrapment?
Pain/parasthesia in the distribution of the nerve. Altered sensation in the distribution of the nerve. Reduce muscle function supplied by the nerve.
100
What are the structures that pass through the carpal tunnel?
Median nerve 4 x flexor digitorum superficialis 4 x flexor digitorum profundus flexor pollicis longus
101
Which conditions are associated with carpal tunnel syndrome?
``` Diabetes mellitus Hypothyroidism Rheumatoid arthritis Acromegaly Wrist fractures Pregnancy Use of heavy vibrating mechinery ```
102
What is the presentation of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Nocturnal waking with tingling (relieved by shaking hands/running under water/keeping dependant) Altered/reduced sensation in median nerve distribution Difficulty manipulating small objects Clumsiness (dropping cups/mugs/loose change)
103
What are the clinical signs of carpal tunnel syndrome?
``` Altered sensation in median nerve distribution Ring finger splitting Reduced power of thumb abduction. Thenar muscle wasting Positive tinel's sign Positive phalen's test ```
104
What is the management of carpal tunnel syndrome?
``` Wrist splints Steroid injection Carpal tunnel decompression surgery - local anaesthetic with tourniquet - divide flexor retinaculum longitudinally. ```
105
Where is the cubital tunnel?
Behind medial epicondyle of the elbow.
106
What is the cubital tunnel formed by?
Cubital tunnel retinaculum.
107
Where does the ulna nerve travel between?
Between two heads of flexor carpi ulnaris under the cubital tunnel retinaculum.
108
What is the presentation of cubital tunnel syndrome?
Nocturanl waking with tingling (in ulnar nerve distribution). Altered/reduced sensation in ulnar nerve distribution.
109
What are the clinical signs of cubital tunnel syndrome?
``` Relative loss of sensation between hands or nerve territories. Ring finger splitting Reduce power of finger abduction Claw posture (if severe) Hypothenar muscle wasting Interosseus muscle wasting Positive Tinel's sign at elbow. ```
110
What is the management of cubital tunnel syndrome?
Soft elbow splints | Cubital tunnel decompression surgery
111
What is the differential diagnosis of sticking fingers?
Trigger finger | Extensor tendon subluxation
112
What happens is the pathophysiology of trigger finger?
Constriction and thickening of A1 pulley. | Nodule on tendon.
113
What is the clinical presentation of trigger finger?
Finger sticks in flexion then clicks painfully as finger is extended. Symptoms generally worse in morning.
114
Who is at increased risk of trigger finger?
People with diabetes.
115
What is the management of trigger finger?
Non-operative: Splintage Steroid injection Operative: Surgical release/widening of A1 pulley
116
What is the pathophysiology of extensor tendon subluxation?
Weakness of saggital bands that hold extensor tendon centrally over MCPJ.
117
Who is extensor tendon subluxation more common in?
People with rheumatoid arthritis.
118
What is the clinical presentation of extensor tendon subluxation?
Tendon subluxes on flexion into the ulna gutter. | Flicks back in extension or finger has to be straightened manually.
119
What is the management of extensor tendon subluxation?
Acute: splint with metacarpo-phalangeal joints extended for 6 weeks. Failed conservative or chronic presentation: surgical repair/reconstruction.
120
What is the differential diganosis of stuck fingers?
Dupuytren's disease Radial nerve or posterior interosseus nerve palsy Locked trigger finger Subluxed MCPs
121
What is the genetic inheritence of dupuytren's disease?
Autosomal dominant with variable penetrance.
122
What is the pathophysiology of dupuytren's disease?
Proliferation of myofibroblasts in the palmar fascia producing pathological nodules and cords.
123
What are the ectopic manifestations of dupuytren's disease?
Plantar fascia of feet Knuckls pads on dorsal aspect of PIPJs Dartos fascia of penis
124
Which conditions are associtaed with dupuytren's disease?
Diabetes | Epilepsy and anti-convulsants
125
What is the clinical presentation of dupuytren's disease?
Fixed flexion deformities of MCP and PIP joints. | Difficulty with ADLs (can't put hand in pocket, poke themselves in eye when washing face)
126
What is the management of dupuytren's disease?
Needle aponeurectomy Collagenase injections Fasciectomy Dermofasciectomy
127
What causes raidal/posterior interosseus nerve palsy?
Trauma - laceration of nerve RA of elbow - synovitis causes swelling and pressure on nerve Compression neuropathy
128
What is the presentation of radial/posterior interosseus nerve palsy?
Weakness of active extension of wrist/fingers and thumb. Wrist drop. Normal passive movement.
129
What is the treatment for radial/posterior interosseus nerve palsy?
Laceration - repair nerve Synovitis - treat inflammation Compression neuropathy - surgical decompression
130
What are the causes of subluxed MCPs?
Rheumatoid arthritis
131
What is the clinical presentation of subluxed MCPs?
Swollen painful MCPs | Inability to extend with obvious deformity.
132
What is the treatment of subluxed MCPs?
Joint replacement if painful.
133
What is the differential diagnosis of radial sided wrist pain?
``` De Quervain's stenosinsg tenovaginitis Scaphoid fracture Radial styloid fracture Thumb CMC joint osteoarthritis Scaphotrapeziotrapezoid osteoarthritis ```
134
What is the pathophysiology of de uervain's stenosing teno-vaginitis?
Stenosing process at 1st dorsal extensor compartment. | APL and EPB tendons pass through compartment
135
What is the clinical presentation of de quervain's stenosing teno-vaginitis?
Pain on wringing or removing stiff lids. Pain on resisted abduction Positive Eichoff's test Pain over De Quervain's tendons on ulna deviatin with thumb in fist.
136
What is the treatment for de quervain's stenosing teno-vaginitis?
Non operative: splintage, steroid injection Operative: surgical release of 1st dorsal compartment
137
What is the clinical presentation of thumb carpo-metacarpal osteoarthritis?
Pain and stiffness Pain on wringing or removing stiff lids Positive grind test Often comes to light after a fall
138
What is the investigation for carpo-metacarpal osteoarthritis?
X-ray - ask for writs and thumb views. Look for x-ray features of OA. Look for scapho-trapezio-trapezoid OA as well
139
What are the treatment options for thumb carpo-metacarpal osteoarthritis?
Non-operative: Analgesia Splintage Steroid injection Operative: Excise (trapeziectomy) Fuse Replace
140
What are the differential diagnosis of lumps and bumps in the hands?
``` Ganglion Giant cell tumour Heberden's and bouchard's nodes Skin lesions Gouty tophi Rheumatoid nodules lnclusion cysts Osteochondroma Enchondroma ```
141
What are the common sites for ganglions?
Dorsal wrist Volar wrist Finger flexor sheath DIP joint
142
What are the treatments for ganglions?
Leave alone (many will spontaneously regress) Aspirate Excise
143
Are giant cell tumours of the tendon sheath benign or malignant?
Benign
144
What is the treatment for giant cell tumours of the tendon sheath?
Excision
145
What is the treatment for gouty tophi?
Control gout | Excision
146
What is an enchondroma?
Commonest bony tumour of hand.
147
How do enchondroma's often present?
Pathological fracture
148
What is the treatment for enchondromas?
Observation only | Curretage and bone graft.
149
What are the symptoms of OA of the hip?
Pain in buttock, groin and thigh or knee. | Pain during activities or at night.
150
What are the examination findings of a patient with osteoarthritis of the hip?
Antalgic or trendelenberg gait. Deformity, asymmetry, swelling, muscle wasting. Walking stick. Tenderness on deep palpation over groin or around greater trochanter. Reduced range of motion, especially internal rotation.
151
What is the non-operative management of OA of the hip?
Weight loss advice Use of walking stick in opposite side to pain. Analgesia Physiotherapy
152
What is the operative treatment of OA of the hip?
Total hip arthroplasty.
153
What is the non-operative management of OA of the knee?
``` Weight loss advice Walking stick in opposite hand to pain. Analgesia Physiotherapy Lifestyle modification ```
154
What are the operative management options for OA of the knee?
``` Tibial osteotomy (wedge of bone removed from lateral side of tibia) Unicompartmental joint replacement Total knee replacement ```
155
What are the risk factors for traumatic avascular necrosis?
Femoral head/neck fracture Hip dislocation SUFE
156
What are the risk factors for non-traumatic avascular necrosis?
``` Alcohol abuse Corticosteroids Irradiation Haematological disease Dysbaric disorders Hypercoagulable states Connective tissue disorders Viral e.g. hepatitis, HIV Idiopathic ```
157
What are the clinical features of avascular necrosis of the hip?
Insidious onset of buttock, groin/anterior hip, or thigh pain. A sudden increase in pain may indicate femoral head collapse. Can be asymptomatic until late stage disease. Hip joint will be stiff Patient may walk with limp.
158
What are the investigations for avascular necrosis of hip?
X-ray - will detect advanced disease | MRI - will detect much earlier change in the bone
159
What is the management of avascular necrosis?
Non-operative - observe with symptom control, bisphosphonates may be beneficial in early stage disease. Operative: - Core decompression with or without bone grafting - Rotational osteotomy - Total hip resurfacing - Total hip replacement
160
What is slipped upper femoral epiphysis?
A fracture through the femoral physis, causing the epiphysis to 'slip' posteriorly and inferiorly
161
What are the risk factors for slipped upper femoral epiphysis?
Adolescents Male Obesity
162
What are the clinical features of slipped upper femoral epiphysis?
Limp Groin pain Externally rotated and shortened leg Pain on attempts to rotate hip Decreased range of motion, esp. internal rotation Presentation can be acute, after injury, subacute or chronic.
163
What will a slilpped upper femoral epiphysis look like on x-ray?
Disruption to Shenton's line Additional shadow behind superior femoral neck. Widening of physis and reciprocal decreases in height of epiphysis. Prominent lesser trochanter due to external rotation. Line drawn along superior edge of femoral head (Klein's line) fails to intersect the lateral part of the superior femoral epiphysis.
164
What are the risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
``` Female First born Breech position in utero or delivery Family history Other MSK disorders ```
165
What is the main clinical feature of a quadriceps tendon rupture?
Unable to extend knee against resistance. | May be unable to straight leg raise.
166
What are the main clinical features of a patella tendon rupture?
Unable to straight leg raise or maintain extension of knee. | Reduced range of motion at knee joint with difficulty weight bearing.
167
What is the management of quadriceps tendon rupture?
Open repair followed by protection in extension cast or splint.
168
What is the management of patella tendon rupture?
Non-operative - immobilisation in full extension with progressive exercise programme. Operative - open repair of tendon.
169
What are the risk factors for quadricep and patella tendon rupture?
``` Previous tendon injury Existing tendinopathy Previous corticosteroid injection Steroid use Co-morbidities e.g. SLE, RA Increasing age (for quadriceps rupture). ```
170
What is the typical mechniam of injury for meniscal tears?
Twisting the knee while weight bearing.
171
What are the investigations used to diagnose meniscal tears?
MRI | Diagnostic arthroscopy
172
Which T score is diagnostic of osteoporosis?
T< -2.5
173
What are common places for fragility fractures?
Hip fractures Vertebral fractures Distal radius fractures Humeral neck fractures
174
What are causes for fragility fractures?
``` Osteoporosis Metastatic disease Myeloma Osteomalacia Paget's disease ```
175
What is the treatment for osteoporosis?
``` Weight bearing activity Reduce fizzy drinks HRT for menopause <40 Vitamin D Calcium Bisphosphonates e.g. alendronate ```
176
What are osteomalacia and rickets most commonly due to a deficiency of?
Vitamin D
177
Which age group gets rickets?
Children
178
What is the pathophysiology of rickets?
Poor calcification of cartilage matrix of growing long bones. Occurs at zone of provisional calficiation - fraying and widening of metaphysis called cupping. Leads to increased physeal width and cortical thinning and bowing. Most prominent at large physes (knee, wrist).
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What effect does rickets have on long bones?
Bowing of long bones.
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What are the clinical features of rickets?
Rachitic rosary - widening of anterior ribs at costal cartilages leading to line of prominences (like beads) Flattening of skull Pain may be associated with deformities
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What is the treatment for rickets?
``` Replacement of missing components: Vitamin D Calcium Calcitriol Phosphate ```
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What are the clinical features of osteomalacia?
Pain in bones and muscles Proximal muscle weakness - waddling gait Fractures
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What is Paget's disease?
Disorder of bone remodelling. | Increased osteoclast activity.
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What are the 3 stages of paget's disease?
Lytic Mixed Sclerotic
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What are the common sites for paget's disease?
``` Femur Tibia Pelvis Skull Spine ```
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What are the biochemistry results in paget's disease?
Calcium and phosphate normal Alkaline phosphate raised Urinary hydroxyproline raised
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What are the clinical features of paget's disease?
``` Localised pain and tenderness Increased focal temperature due to hyperaemia Increased bone size Bowing deformities Kyphosis of the spine Decreased range of motion ```
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What are the complications of Paget's disease?
``` Osseious weakening resulting in deformity and pathological fractures Increased risk of osteoarthritis Hearing loss Neural compression Malignant transformation Hyperparathyroidism Extramedullary haematopoeisis ```
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What is the treatment of paget's disease?
Expectant if symptoms minimal. Bisphosphonates Calcitonin
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What is the definition of major trauma?
Any injury that has the potential to cause prolonged disability or death. An injury severity score >15.
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What is polytrauma?
A syndrome of multiple injuries exceeding a defined severity with sequential system reactions that may lead to dysfunction or failure of remote organs and vital systems which have themselves been directly injured.
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What is golden hour?
Period of time following an injury with the highest likelihood that prompt medical and surgical treatment will prevent death.
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What are the sources of major haemorrhage?
``` Chest Abdomen Pelvis Long bones Obvious wounds ```
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What is the definition of shock?
A life-threatening condition of circulatory failure resulting in cellular injury and inadequate tissue function.
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What are the complications of major trauma?
Fat embolism syndrome | Compartment syndrome
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What are the symptoms of fat embolism syndrome?
Respiratory Neurological Dermatological Haematological
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What are the treatments for finger tip injuries?
Dressings only Trimming of bone and dressings Terminalisation and primary closure Local advancement or transposition flap
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Which tendon and nerve are most at risk from cutting wrists due to self harm?
Palmaris longus tendon | Median nerve
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How should tendon and nerve injuries be assessed?
Vascular assessment Neurological assessment Tendon assessment
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What is the treatment for tendon and nerve injuries?
Local anaesthetic and irrigation - not instil local anaesthetic until neurological assessment has been made. Tetanus IV antibiotics Dressing and back slab Low threshold for surgical exploration - any suspicion of tendon or nerve injury refer to orthopaedics/plastics.
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How should animal or human bites be treated?
X-ray for tooth Consider surgical debridement Low threshold for surgical irrigation
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What are the common pathogens causing post-operative infection in hip-arthroplasty?
Coagulase negative staphylococcus | Staphylococcus aureus
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What are the risk factors for post-operative AKI?
``` Age Pre-existing CKD Diabetes Liver disease Hypertension Use of ACE inhibitors ```
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What are the risk factors for compartment syndrome?
``` Trauma with crushing injuries to tissues Trauma with long lie Long bone fractures Patients with vascular injury to limb Ischaemia of tissues Patients with coagulopathy ```
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What are the clinical features of compartment syndrome?
``` Paraesthesia Pallor Pulselessness Paralysis Perishing cold ```
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What is the management of compartment syndrome?
Immediately splint all dressings to skin along length of limb. Reassess if this has helped pain. If not, call for senior orthopaedic help. Patient is likely to require emergency fasciotomy.
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What are the three features of Virchow's triad?
Blood stasis Endothelial injury Hypercoagulability
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What are the risk factors for thromboembolic disease post-operatively?
``` Age Obesity Varicose veins Family history of VTE Thrombophilia Combined OCP/HRT Immobility Immobility due to travel Lower limb fracture Spinal cord injury Lower limb surgery ```
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Gives examples of mechanical VTE prophylaxis?
Early mobilisation Graduated compression stockings Intermittent pneumatic compression devices
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Gives examples of pharmacological VTE prophylaxis.
Aspirin Vitamin K antagonists Unfractionated heparin DOACs
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How many weeks after hip fracture can hypercoagulability persist?
6 weeks
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What are the benign osteogenic tumours?
Osteoid osteoma | Osteoblastoma
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What are the benign chondrogenic tumours?
Enchondroma Osteochondroma Chondroblastoma Chondromyoid fibroma
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What are the benign bone tumours of unknown origin?
Giant cell tumour | Histiocytoma
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Name a benign fibrogenic tumour.
Nonossifying fibroma
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Name a benign vascular tumour.
Hemangioma
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Name a benign lipogenic tumour.
Lipoma
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What are the malignant osteogenic tumours?
Parosteal osteosarcoma Periosteal osteosarcoma Intramedullary osteosarcoma
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What are the malignant chondrogenic tumours?
Chondrosarcoma
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What are the malignant bone tumours of unknown origin?
Adamantinoma | Ewing's tumour
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What are the malignant fibrogenic tumours?
Desmoplastic fibroma | Fibrosarcoma
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what are the malignant haematopoeitic tumours?
Multiple myeloma Lymphoma Leukaemia
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Name a malignant vascular tumour?
Hemangioendothelioma
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Name a malignant notochordal tumour.
Chordoma
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What are the signs and symptoms of bone tumours?
``` Pain Swelling Joint swelling and stiffness Limping Fever Generally unwell Weight loss Anaemia ```
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What are the early investigations of suspicious bone/soft tissue lesions?
``` X-ray Blood tests - alkaline phosphatase CT scan MRI Biopsy ```
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What is osteoid osteoma?
A benign bone tumour that arises from osteoblasts.
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What is osteochondroma?
Most common benign tumours of bones. Take the form of cartilage-capped bony projections.
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What is an enchondroma?
A noncancerous bone tumour that begins in cartilage.
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How can unicameral bone cysts be classified?
Active or latent
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What is fibrous dysplasia?
A bone disorder in which fibrous tissue develops in place of normal bone.
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What is a lipoma?
A benign tumour made of fat tissue.
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What is osteosarcoma?
Most common bone sarcoma. Peaks in adolescents during growth spurts. Classically arise from the metaphysis of the distal femur, proximal tibia or proximal humerus.
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What is chondrosarcoma?
Malignant tumour of cartilaginous origin. Arises from diaphyseal-metaphyseal region of long bones. Common in males aged 30-50.
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What is Ewing's sarcoma?
Highly malignant tumour occuring in children. Arises from mesenchymal cells of medullary cavity. Arises at diaphysis of long bones and flat bones like pelvis.
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Which cancers commonly causes bony metastases?
``` Breast Prostate Thyroid Renal Lung ```
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In a hip fracture in which the blood supply to the femoral head is preserved how could it be fixed?
Fix with screws and plate
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What are the complications of a hip fracture and treatment?
Fixation can fail if poorly done. Hemiarthroplasty may dislocate if a patient falls or if the capsule and surrounding tissue give way. Important to mobilise patients as soon as possible to prevent DVT, chest infections and pressure sores.
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What is the post-op management of a patient with a hip fracture?
Physiotherapists - mobilise patient with appropriate walking aids. Occupational therapists -assess safety of patient to function at home. Care of elderly medicine team - assess general health and any underlying cause for fall. Home care - may be required after discharge. Patient may not be able to return home.
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Which bones are scanned in a DEXA scan?
Lumbar spine | Hip
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Which structures are at risk of damage in a pelvic fracture?
``` Bowel Bladder Female genital organs Male prostate/urethra Nerves ```
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What is the management of pelvic fractures?
Immediate management: pelvic binder | Definitive management: plates and bolts
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Which fracture are hip dislocations often associated with?
Acetabular fracture
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What are the risks associated with hip dislocations?
Damage to local nerves - sciatic if posterior. Avascular necrosis of native femoral head. Post-traumatic arthritis in native hip.
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Which artery is at risk of damage in knee dislocations?
Popliteal artery
246
What is the management of knee dislocations?
Reduce and splint Angiogram Multiple ligament reconstruction
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Name a risk associated with fracture of the femur.
Hypovolaemic shock
248
What is emergency management of the fracture of the femur?
Reduce and splint | Thomas-type splint - fixed traction.
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What is the surgical management of fracture of the femur?
Intramedullary nail | Plates may be used
250
How long does a femoral shaft fracture generally take to heal?
4 months
251
How are fractures of the proximal tibia investigated?
CT scan
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What is the management of a fracture of the tibial shaft?
May be treated in cast if undisplaced. | May require fixation for early mobilisation.
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What risk is associated with fracture of the tibial shaft?
Compartment syndrome.
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What is the clinical examination for compartment syndrome?
Pain on passive movement of distal extremity.
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What would a compartment pressure monitor show in compartment syndrome?
Difference in <30mmHg between compartment pressure and diastolic blood pressure
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What is the management of compartment syndrome?
Fasciotomies - all 4 compartments in leg. | Secondary closure - +/- skin grafting.
257
Which part of the bone do fractures of the distal tibia affect?
Metaphyseal bone
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How should distal tibia fractures be assessed?
CT scan
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How are distal tibia fractures managed?
Reconstruct joint to reduce risk of osteoarthritis.
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What is the name of the structure between the distal tibia and fibula?
Syndesmosis
261
How do you know if an ankle fracture is stable or unstable?
Damage to one side or both sides of joint. | Disruption to ankle joint mortice.
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How are ankle joint fractures stabilised?
Internal fixation
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What are the main dangers of an unreduced ankle joint?
Pressure on skin and soft tissues - may make surgery difficult if skin breaks down or swells/blisters. Pressure damage to articular cartilage of ankle joint surface - arthritis of ankle.
264
What are the areas of the foot?
Hindfoot - calcis/talus Midfoot - navicular/cuboid/cuneiforms Forefoot - metatarsals/phalanges
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What is the risk with a fracture of the talus?
Blood supply passes along neck of talus. Risk of avascular necrosis if fracture displaced. May require fixation if displaced.
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What is a lisfranc fracture?
Dislocation of midfoot between tarsal bones and base of metatarsals. Requires reduction and fixation.
267
Which nerves provide sensation to ankle and foot?
L3-S2 | check diagram for regions
268
What are the compartments of the leg?
Anterior Lateral Superficial Posterior Deep posterior
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Which nerve is in the anterior compartment of the leg?
Deep peroneal nerve
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Which nerve is the lateral compartment of the leg?
Superficial peroneal nerve
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Which nerve is in the superficial posterior compartment of the leg?
Tibial nerve
272
Which nerve is in the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
Tibial nerve
273
What is a high foot arch called?
Cavus
274
What is a flat foot called?
Planus
275
what are the movements of the ankle joint?
Dorsiflexion | Plantar flexion
276
What are the movements of the subtalar joint?
Inversion | Eversion
277
Name two deformities of the big toe.
Hallux valgus | Hallux rigidus
278
Name three deformities of the lesser toes.
Mallet toe Hammer toe Claw toe
279
What is the differential diagnosis for pain under the forefoot?
``` Overload from tight calf Fracture Morton's neuroma Freiberg's infarction Secondary to first ray pathology ```
280
What is the differential diagnosis for lateral ankle pain?
Peroneal tendon pathology Lateral ligament Subtalar joint arthritis
281
What is the differential for medial ankle pain?
Deltoid ligament injury Tibialis posterior tendinopathy Osteoarthritis
282
What is the differential for anterior ankle pain?
Osteophytes impingement Osteoarthritis Loose bodies
283
What is the differential diagnosis for posterior ankle pain?
Achilles tendon problems - ruptures, tendinopathy. Os trigonum Sub talar osteoarthritis
284
What is the treatment for hallux valgus?
Non-operative: - accommodative shoes - orthotics Operative - osteotomy
285
What are the indications for an osteotomy to treat hallux valgus?
Failed non-operative Pain Skin compromise Not for cosmesis.
286
What is hallux rigidus?
1st MTPJ osteoarthritis | Pain, stiffness, prominent bump.
287
What is the non-operative treatment for hallux rigidus?
Accommodative footwear Rocker sole Orthotics
288
What is the operative treatment for hallux rigidus?
Cheilectomy - for mild cases, treats the bump Fusion - gold standard. Eliminates the joint and related pain.
289
What are the non-operative treatments for ankle arthritis?
Analgesia Activity modification Splints/supports Injection
290
What are the operative treatments for ankle arthritis?
Fusion - eliminates movement | Replacement - maintains movement - can wear/loosen
291
What is subluxation?
Partial displacement - some continuity maintained
292
What is the name of the classification system for open fractures?
Gustillo-Anderson
293
What is a type I Gustillo-Anderson fracture?
<1cm skin wound
294
What is a type II Gustillo-Anderson fracture?
1-10cm skin wound
295
What is a type III Gustillo-Anderson fracture?
>10cm wound or high energy fracture
296
What do types A, B and C means in a type III Gustillo-Anderson fracture?
A - adequate tissue for coverage. B - extensive periosteal stripping and requires flap C - vascular injury requiring vascular repair
297
What are the complications of open fractures?
``` Soft tissue infection Osteomyelitis Tetanus Crush syndrome Skin loss Non-union Amputation ```
298
What is the emergency department management of open fractures?
``` Control the bleeding Cover with sterile dressing Splint IV antibiotics Tetanus prophylaxis Assume any wound over or near a joint extends to the joint until proven otherwise. ```
299
Which pathogens usually cause septic arthritis?
Staph. aureus Beta haemolytic streptococci Streptococcus pneumoniae
300
What is the aetiology of septic arthritis?
``` Direct inoculation Trauma Iatrogenic Hematogenously Adjacent osteomyelitis Soft tissue infection ```
301
What are the clinical features of septic arthritis?
``` Rapid onset Joint pain Joint swelling Joint warmth Joint erythema Fever Decreased range of motion Pain with active and passive ROM ```
302
What is the management of septic arthritis?
Aspiration of joint - evidence that serial aspiration is as effective as surgical lavage. IV antibiotics - tailored to infecting organism sensitivies. May require several months of treatment. Washout of joint - arthroscopic or open
303
What are the complications of septic arthritis?
``` Rapid destruction of joint with delayed treatment (>24 hours) Degenerative joint disease Soft tissue injury Osteomyelitis Joint fibrosis Sepsis Death ```
304
What is the management of periprosthetic septic arthritis?
Aspiration in theatre Debridement and implant retention can be effective May require single or two stage revision.
305
What is compartment syndrome?
A condition where the intra-compartmental pressure in a fascial compartment becomes elevated beyond the capillary perfusion pressure.
306
What are the clinical features of compartment syndrome?
``` Pain Paresthesia Pallor Paralysis Pulselessness Pressure ```
307
What is necrotising fasciitis?
Life threatening bacterial infection of subcutaneous fascia.
308
What is the common infecting organism in necrotising fasciitis?
Group A strep.
309
What is the management of necrotising fasciitis?
Urgent surgical debridement of affected tissue. | High dose broad spectrum antibiotics.
310
What is cauda equina syndrome?
A syndrome where a space occupying lesion (usually a disc prolapse) within the lumbosacral canal puts pressure on the nerves of the cauda equina.
311
What are the symptoms of cauda equina syndrome?
Bowel/bladder dysfunction Saddle aneasthesia Lower sensorimotor changes.
312
What can be found on examination of a patient with cauda equina syndrome?
Reduced or absent sensation to pin prick in S2-S4. | Decreased/absent anal tone
313
What are the investigations of cauda equina syndrome?
Pre and post voiding bladder scan looking for retention and incomplete bladder emptying. Emergent MRI scan.
314
What is the treatment for cauda equina syndrome?
Urgent surgical decompression within 24 hours of symptom onset. If cord compression due to malignancy discuss with oncology as may be treated with radiotherapy.
315
What are the complications of cauda equina syndrome due to delayed presentation or decompression?
Urinary dysfunction, requiring catheterisation. Sexual dysfunction Chronic pain Persistent leg weakness/altered sensation.