MSK and Rheum Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

What is reactive arthritis?

A

synovitis as a reaction to a recent infective trigger

aka Reiter Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Difference between septic arthritis vs reactive arthritis

A

reactive arthritis doesn’t have an infection in the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common infections that trigger reactive arthritis

A

gastroenteritis or STIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chlamydia causes _____arthritis

Gonorrhoea causes ______ arthritis

A

reactive, septic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What gene is linked to reactive arthritis?

A

HLA B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the associations of reactive arthritis?

A
  • bilateral conjunctivitis
  • anterior uveitis
  • circinate balanitis

‘can’t see, pee or climb a tree’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How should reactive arthritis be managed?

A
  1. Bloods - FBC, CRP, HLA-B27
  2. Stool or urethral swab
  3. Urinalysis
  4. Joint aspiration to check for septic or crystal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does septic arthritis present?

A
  • hot, red, swollen and painful joint
  • stiffness and reduced range of motion
  • systemic symptoms such as fever, lethargy and sepsis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What bacteria commonly cause septic arthritis?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus most common
  • Neisseria gonorrhoea in sexually active
  • Haemophilus influenza
  • E.coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How should septic arthritis be managed?

A
  • have a low threshold
  • aspirate and send for staining, crystal microscopy, culture
  • empirical IV antibiotics before sensitivities are known
  • flucloxacillin plus rifampicin
  • vancomycin plus rifampicin for penicillin allergy
  • clindamycin is alternative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which joints are affected in ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • sacroiliac joints and vertebral column joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does ankylosing spondylitis present?

A
  • young male
  • symptoms develop gradually over 3 months
  • lower back pain and stiffness
  • sacroiliac pain in buttock region
  • worse at night
  • improves with time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____ fractures are a key complication of ankylosing spondylitis

A

vertebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Associations with ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • weight loss and fatigue
  • chest pain due to costovertebral and costosternal joints
  • enthesitis causing plantar fasciitis and achilles tendonitis
  • dactylitis
  • anaemia
  • anterior uveitis
  • aortitis
  • heart block caused by fibrosis of heart’s conductive system
  • restrictive lung disease
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • IBD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Schober’s test?

A
  • part of spine exam
  • line at L5, line 10cm above and 5cm below
  • bend over
  • less than 20cm gap = restriction and may support ankylosing spondylitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Investigations for ankylosing spondylitis

A
  • inflammatory markers
  • HLA B27 test
  • X-ray of spine
  • MRI of spine can show bone marrow oedema early in the disease
  • look for bamboo spine, squaring of vertebral bodies, subchondral sclerosis, fusion of the joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of ankylosing spondylitis

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. Steroids
  3. Anti-TNF medications
  4. Monoclonal antibodies
  • physiotherapy
  • exercise and mobilisation
  • avoid smoking
  • bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis
  • treatment of complications
  • surgery for deformities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Risk factors for gout

A
  • male
  • obese
  • high purine diet (meat and seafood)
  • alcohol
  • diuretics
  • cardiovascular or kidney disease
  • family history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Presentation of gout

A
  • gouty tophi at DIP, elbow and ear
  • base of metatarsophalangeal joint
  • wrists
  • base of thumb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is gout diagnosed?

A

Clinically or by an aspiration - exclude septic arthritis!
- X-ray

  • Aspiration will show no bacteria, needle shaped crystals, negative birefringence
  • monosodium urate crystals
  • joint space maintained but lytic lesions, punched out erosions, sclerotic borders with overhanging edges
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Management of gout

A

Acute = NSAIDs, colchicine (if renal impairment or significant heart disease), steroids

Prophylaxis: allopurinol to reduce uric acid levels, lifestyle changes (weight loss, hydration, stop alcohol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How should pseudogout be diagnosed?

A
  • aspiration shows no bacteria, calcium pyrophosphate crystals, rhomboid shaped crystals, positive birefringence

X-ray = chondrocalcinosis (white line in the middle of the joint caused by calcium deposition)

  • loss of joint space, osteophytes, subarticular sclerosis, subchondral cysts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How should pseudogout be managed?

A

NSAIDs, colchicine, joint aspiration, steroid injections, oral steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

There is a strong association between polymyalgia rheumatica and _________

A

giant cell arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Who is usually affected by polymyalgia rheumatica?
- over 50 - women - Caucasian
26
What are the features of polymyalgia rheumatica?
- symptoms present for at least 2 weeks - bilateral shoulder pain that may spread to the elbow - bilateral pelvic girdle pain - worse with movement - interferes with sleep - stiffness for at least 45 mins in the morning - weight loss, upper arm tenderness, carpel tunnel syndrome, pitting oedema
27
How should polymyalgia rheumatica be diagnosed?
- clinical presentation and response to steroids - rasied CRP - FBC - calcium - creatine kinase - rheumatoid factor - ANA - anti-CCP
28
How should polymyalgia rheumatica be treated?
15mg prednisolone per day Assess after a week and after 3-4 weeks Start reducing regime Inform about sick day rules and give steroid treatment card Bisphosphonates and calcium and vitamins D supplements to prevent osteoporosis PPIs to protect gastric lining
29
What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?
- old - female (especially post-menopausal) - reduced mobility and activity - low BMI - RA - alcohol and smoking - long term corticosteroids - certain medications (SSRIs, PPIs, anti-epileptics, anti-oestrogens)
30
What is the FRAX tool?
- prediction of a fragility fracture in the next 10 years - first step in assessing risk of osteoporosis - age, BMI, co-morbidities, smoking, alcohol, family history
31
How is bone mineral density and what can we infer from the score?
DEXA scan which gives a T score T more than -1 = normal T -1 to -2.5 = osteopenia T less than -2.5 = osteoporosis T less than -2.5 with a fracture = severe osteoporosis
32
How should osteoporosis be assessed?
1. Do a FRAX assessment 2. If intermediate risk then go for a DEXA scan 3. If high risk then offer treatment
33
How should osteoporosis be managed?
- activity and exercise - healthy weight - adequate calcium intake - adequate vitamin D - avoiding falls - stop smoking - reduce alcohol consumption Bisphosphonates are first-line (alendronate, risedronate, zoledronic acid)
34
What is osteomalacia?
defective bone mineralisation causing soft bones, results from insufficient vitamin D
35
How does osteomalacia present?
- fatigue - bone pain - muscle weakness - muscle aches - pathological or abnormal fractures
36
Investigations for osteomalacia
- serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D - less than 25 nmol/L = deficient - 25-50 nmol/L = insufficient 75 nmol/L or above = optimal - serum calcium is low - serum phosphate is low - serum alkaline phosphatase may be high - PTH may be high - Xrays may show osteopenia - DEXA scan shows low bone mineral density
37
How should osteomalcia be treated?
- supplementary vitamin D
38
Risk factors for vitamin D deficiency
- inadequate sunlight exposure - malabsorption issue - chronic kidney disease - not enough in diet - darker skin
39
What is osteomyelitis?
inflammation in a bone and bone marrow, usually caused by bacterial infection
40
What is the most common causative organism of osteomyelitis?
Staphylococcus aureus
41
What is haematogenous osteomyelitis?
when a pathogen is carried through the blood and seeded in the bone
42
What are the 2 ways in which osteomyelitis can occur?
haematogenous or direct contamination
43
What are the risk factors for osteomyelitis?
- open fracture - orthopaedic operations (particularly prosthetic joints) - diabetes, especially foot ulcers - peripheral arterial disease - IV drug use - immunosuppression
44
How does osteomyelitis present?
- fever - pain and tenderness - erythema - swelling Quite non-specific, with generalised symptoms of infection such as lethargy, nausea and muscle aches
45
How should osteomyelitis be investigated?
- X-rays often don't show any changes early on so cannot exclude osteomyelitis with them but they can show periosteal reactions, localised osteopenia or destruction - MRI scan is best imagine - Raised inflammatory markers - Blood cultures - Bone cultures
46
How should osteomyelitis be managed?
- surgical debridement of infected bone and tissues - antibiotics flucloxacillin alternatives = clindamycin or vancomycin Osteomyelitis with prosthetic joints may require complete revision surgery
47
What are the risk factors for OA?
obesity, age, occupation, trauma, female, family history
48
Which joints are commonly affected by OA?
- hips - knees - sacro-iliac joints - DIPs - carpometacarpal join - wrist - cervical spine (cervical spondylosis)
49
X-ray changes for OA
LOSS - loss of joint space - osteophytes - subchondral sclerosis - subchondral cysts
50
How does OA present?
- joint pain and stiffness - worse on activity and at end of day - bulky, bony enlargement of joint - restricted range of motion - crepitus on movement - effusions around the joint
51
Signs of OA in the hands
- Heberden's nodes (DIP) - Bouchard's nodes (PIP) - squaring at the base of the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint - weak grip - reduced range of motion
52
How is OA diagnosed?
- no investigations needed if over 45, typical pain and no morning stiffness -
53
How should OA be managed?
- patient education to lose weight, physiotherapy, occupational therapy, orthotics - Oral paracetamol and topical NSAIDs - Oral NSAIDs and PPIs - Opiates e.g. codeine and morphine - Intra-articular steroid injections - Joint replacement
54
What are the causes and genetic associations of rheumatoid arthritis?
- autoimmune disease - unknown cause - HLA-DR1 and HLA-DR4
55
Presenting symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis
- gradual onset - joint pain - swelling - morning stiffness - impaired function - symmetrical joins affected - fever, fatigue, weight loss
56
Signs of rheumatoid arthritis on examination
- spindling of fingers, swelling of MCP and PIP joints, warm and tender joints, reduction in range of movement - rheumatoid nodules on elbows, ulnar margin, palms and over extensor surfaces
57
Investigations for rheumatoid arthritis
- clinical - check rheumatoid factor - check anti-CCP antibodies - CRP - x-ray
58
Extra-articular manifestations of RA
- pulmonary fibrosis - bronchiolitis obliterans - felty's syndrome (RA, neutropenia, splenomegaly) - anaemia of chronic disease - cardiovascular - episcleritis and scleritis - rheumatoid nodules - lymphadenopathy
59
How should RA be managed?
- NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors with PPIs to treat flare-ups - DMARDs: methotrexate, leflunomide, sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine. - Add a biologic, usually a TNF inhibitor (adalimumab, infliximab and entanercept) - Rituximab (monoclonal antibody targeting the CD20 protein)
60
Methotrexate side effects
works by interfering with metabolism of folate and suppressing components of the immune system - mouth ulcers - liver toxicity - pulmonary fibrosis - bone marrow suppression and leukopenia - teratogenic
61
Leflunomide side effects
works by interfering with pyrimidines - mouth ulcers - increased blood pressure - rashes - peripheral neuropathy - liver toxicity - bone marrow suppression - teratogenic
62
Sulfasalazine side effects
- temporary male infertility | - bone marrow suppression
63
Hydroxychloroquine side effects
- nightmares - reduced visual acuity - liver toxicity - skin pigmentation
64
Side effects of anti-TNF drugs
- vulnerability to severe infections and sepsis | - reactivation of TB and hepatitis B
65
Side effects of rituximab
- vulnerability to severe infections and sepsis - night sweats - thrombocytopenia - peripheral neuropathy - liver and lung toxicity
66
What is systemic lupus erythematosus?
inflammatory autoimmune connective tissue disease - often takes a relapsing-remitting course
67
Which antibodies are found in SLE?
anti-nuclear antibodies
68
SLE presentation
- fatigue - weight loss - arthralgia - myalgia - fever - photosensitive malar rash - lymphadenopathy - SOB - pleuritic chest pain - mouth ulcers - hair loss - Raynaud's phenomenon
69
How should SLE be investigated?
- autoantibodies (ANA and dsDNA) - FBC (normocytic anaemia) - C3 and C4 (decreased) - Immunoglobulins (raised) -
70
How is SLE treated?
- anti-inflammatory drugs and immunosuppression - no cure, aim is to reduce symptoms and complications - NSAIDs, steroids, hydroxychloroquine - methotrexate, azathioprine, tacrolimus, leflunomide, ciclosporin - rituximab, belimumab