MSK - Liam Flashcards

1
Q

I band

A

Zone of filament that is not superimposed by thick filament

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2
Q

A band

A

Contains entire length of single thick filament

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3
Q

H zone

A

Zone of thick filament not superimposed by thin filament

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4
Q

Titin

A

Connects Z line to thick filament

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5
Q

First line for raynauds phenomenon

A

Calcium channel blockers - nifedipine

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6
Q

Tendons involved in De Quervains tenosynovitis

A

Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus

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7
Q

Joints in RA

A

3+ joints

Symettrical

Spares distal IPJ

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8
Q

Pulled elbow in children cause

A

Subluxation of radial head

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9
Q

Osler nodes

A

Painful red raised lesions on hands and feet, due to deposition of immune complexes

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10
Q

Bouchards nodes

A

Hard bony outgrowths on PIPJ

Sign of IA

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11
Q

Heberdens nodes

A

Chronic swelling of affected joints, leaving permanent bony outgrowths

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12
Q

Ganglion

A

Swelling in association with tendon sheath near a joint

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13
Q

Blood test for SLE

A

Antinuclear antibodys (ANA) positive 99% time

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14
Q

What syndrome is associated with gout

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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15
Q

Common joints in gout

A

70 % with MTP joint

Ankle

Wrist

Knee

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16
Q

Signs of hip fracture

A

Pain

Shortened and externally roated leg

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17
Q

Garden system for hip fracture

A

1 - stable fracture with impaction in valgus

2 - complete fracture but not displaced

3 - displaced fracture but still has bony contact

4 - complete bony disruption

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18
Q

Target for pANCA

A

Myeloperoxidase (MPO)

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19
Q

Barlows test

A

For development dysplasia hip

Attempts to dislocated articulated femoral head

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20
Q

Ortolani test

A

Test for developmental dysplasia of hip

Attemps to reclocated a disloated femoral head

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21
Q

Typical joints affected by RA

A

MCP, PIP

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22
Q

Typical joints affected by OA

A

Large weight bearing joints

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23
Q

Lift off test

A

Internal roation - subscapularis

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24
Q

Scarf test

A

Examines acromioclavicular joint

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25
Q

Empty can test

A

Supraspinatus

26
Q

Hawkins test

A

Subacromial impingement

27
Q

Neers test

A

Acromial impingement

28
Q

Marfans syndrome due to problem with what

A

Fibrillin-1

29
Q

Ehler-Danlos syndrome has increased risk of what serious pathology

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

30
Q

Most common fingers affected by Dupuytrens contracture

A

Ring and little fingers

31
Q

Smiths fracture

A

Fracrture of distal radius with anterior displacement of distal fragment

32
Q

Colles fracture

A

Fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement of distal fragment

33
Q

Monteggia fracture

A

Fracture of proximal third of ulnar with dislocation of proximal head of radius

34
Q

Galeazzi fracture

A

Fracture of distal third of radius with dislocation of distal radioulnar joint

35
Q

What ligament usually sprained in inversion injuries of ankle

A

Anterior talofibular ligament

36
Q

What position is leg in with posterior hip dislocation

A

Internally rotated

37
Q

What position is leg in with anterior hip dislocation

A

Externally rotated

38
Q

Antibody in Sjorens syndrome

A

Anti-La

39
Q

Antibody in x-associated vasculitis disease

A

ANCA

40
Q

Unhappy triad injury

A

Medial collateral ligament

Medial meniscus

Anterior cruciate ligament

41
Q

Microbiology of osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus

42
Q

Antibiotic for osteomylitis

A

Flucloxacillin

43
Q

Froments sign

A

Assesses for ulnar nerve palsy

44
Q

Damange to ulnar nerve

A

Claw appearance of hand

45
Q

Damage to median nerve

A

Inability to abduct and oppose thumb

46
Q

Damage to axillary nerve

A

Deltoid muscle dysfunction, affecting arm abduction

47
Q

Damage to musculocutaneous nerve

A

Impaired bicep brachi muscle, affecting arm flexion

48
Q

Damage to radial nerve

A

Paralsysis of extensor muscles, leading to wrist drop

49
Q

Dermatomyositis is associated with what antibody

A

Anti-Jo-1 antibody

50
Q

Toddlers fracture

A

Oblique tibial fracture in infants

51
Q

Plastic deformity

A

Stress on bone resulting in deformity without cortical disruption

52
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

Unilateral cortical breach only

53
Q

Bucky fracture

A

Incomplete cortical disruption resulting in periosteal haematoma only

54
Q

Salter-Harris system

A

1 - thought physis only

2 - physis and metaphysis

3 - physis and epiphysis to include the joint

4 - physis, metaphysis and epiphysis

5 - crush injury

55
Q

WHat is used to assess risk oif osteoporosis

A

FRAX (estimates 10 year risk)

QFracture (estimates 10 year risk)

56
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is abnormality in what

A

Type 1 collagen

57
Q

Main treatment for vasculitides

A

Immunosuppresion

58
Q

Which of Herberdens and Bouchards is distal and proximal

A

PIP - Bouchards nodes

DIP - Heberdens nodes

59
Q

What antibodyt in JIA

A

Antinuclear antibody position oligoarthritis

60
Q

What serological marker is more specific for rheumatoid arthritis

A

Anti-CCP antibodies

61
Q

FIrst line for SLE

A

Hydroxychloroquine

62
Q

Gustilo classification system

A

For open fractures

1 - <1cm

2 - >1cm, moderate soft tissue damage

3A - extensive soft tissue damage, adaquate periosteal coverage

3B - tissue loss requiring tissue coverage procedure

3C - vascular injury requireing surgery