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MSK 100 test 1 > MSK quiz questions & answers > Flashcards

MSK quiz questions & answers Flashcards

1
Q

What is the correct definition of the anatomical term?

1) Protraction
2) Unilateral
3) Proximal
4) Depression
5) Ipsilateral
6) Caudad

A

1) Protraction: Movement in anterior direction

2) Unilateral: Located on one side of the midline

3) Proximal: Closer to the origin/trunk

4) Depression: Movement in inferior direction

5) Ipsilateral: Located on the same side of the midline

6) Caudad: Structure closer to the feet

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2
Q

You are at the gym and attempt to pick up a heavy weight. Even with your immense strength and effort, you are unable to move the weight off the rack. What type of muscle action are you engaging in?

A

Isometric: Tightening/activation of a muscle with no change in muscle length or joint movement.

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3
Q

What term can be used to describe the movement shown in the image?

A

Extension

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4
Q

What term would best describe the indicated structure in the image?

A

Foramen

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5
Q

What term can be used to describe the movement shown in the image?

A

Flexion

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6
Q

Describe the function of the following synovial joints:

1) Pivot
2) Planar Synovial
3) Hinge
4) Saddle
5) Ball and Socket
6) Ellipsoid

A

1) Pivot: Surfaces allowing uniaxial movement

2) Planar Synovial: Flat surface permitting slide and glide

3) Hinge: Permits uniaxial motion in flexion and extension

4) Saddle: Reciprocal convex/concave surfaces

5) Ball and Socket: Round surface permitting triaxial motion

6) Ellipsoid: Oval surface permitting flexion/extension/adduction/abduction

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7
Q

You are in the clinic observing a physician perform a routine wellness checkup on an 11 month old child. During the examination the physician comments on the appearance and nature of the infants sutures. What type of joint is the physician referring to?

A

Fibrous

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8
Q

Which term is used to describe the portion of a long bone that participates in an articulation joint?

A

Epiphysis

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9
Q

What is the term for a muscle that decreases the angle of the joint?

A

Flexor

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10
Q

What is the term for the muscle that brings a bone towards the midline of the body?

A

Adductor

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11
Q

Which of the following cervical vertebrae do not have a body?

a) C2
b) C1
c) C7
d) C3
e) C5

A

b) C1

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12
Q

What are all of the articular joints formed by rib #4?

A

T3 & T4 vertebral bodies, TVP of T4 and sternal body

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13
Q

Which of the following features is found only on a cervical vertebrae?

a) Mammillary process
b) Intervertebral foramen
c) Articular process
d) Transverse foramen
e) Transverse costal facet

A

d) Transverse foramen

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14
Q

Which of the following joint classifications applies to the intervertebral joint between vertebrae and the intervertebral disc?

a) synarthrosis
b) diarthrosis
c) fibrous
d) amphiarthrosis

A

d) amphiarthrosis

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15
Q

The articular facet of a rib tubercle articulates with?

A

The transverse process of a thoracic vertebrae

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16
Q

How would you describe the costovertebral joint of the thoracic spine?

A

Planar joint

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17
Q

What are the correct articular surfaces to the following joints?

a) Medial atlantoaxial joint
b) costotransverse
c) Atlantooccipital joint
d) sternocostal
e) Facet joint

A

a) Medial atlantoaxial joint: Anterior facet on dens with anterior arch

b) Costotransverse: Tubercle of rib with TVP at same level

c) Atlantooccipital joint: Superior facet of C1 with occipital condyles

d) Sternocostal: Costal cartilage of true rib with sternum

e) Facet joint: Superior articular process with inferior articular process

18
Q

Which joint permits rotation as it’s primary movement?

A

Atlantoaxial joint

19
Q

Choose the FALSE statement regarding the anatomy of the cervical spine:

a) The first cervical vertebrae is known as the axis which permits 50% of cervical rotation

b) The cervical spine processes are long and angled inferiorly

c) The cervical spine is made up of eight vertebral segments oriented in a lordotic curvature

d) The cervical vertebral bodies exhibit costal facets for articulation with ribs

e) The cervical spine is made up of seven vertebral segments oriented in a kyphotic curvature

A

c) The cervical spine is made up of eight vertebral segments oriented in a lordotic curvature

(I’m not sure why E would also not be one of the correct statements since the cervical spine is not kyphotic)

20
Q

What is the name of the foramen that is located between the pedicles of adjacent vertebrae?

A

Intervertebral foramen

21
Q

Choose the FALSE statement regarding the deep layer of the deep back muscles:

a) Their action can cause rotation of the lumbar and intervertebral joints

b) They lie between the transverse and the spinous processes of the vertebrae

c) Generate flexion between individual vertebral segments

d) They include the semispinalis and the multifidus muscles

A

c) Generate flexion between individual vertebral segments

22
Q

Choose the muscle that is innervated by the ANTERIOR rami of the spinal nerves:

a) erector spinae
b) The middle scalenes
c) The multifidus
d) The semispinalis

A

b) The middle scalenes

23
Q

Which of the following is an action of the scalene muscles?

a) Neck extension
b) Neck rotation
c) Lateral neck flexion
d) Aid in forceful expiration

A

c) Lateral neck flexion

24
Q

Select the FALSE statement with regards to the splenius muscles:

a) They are innervated by the posterior rami of the spinal nerves

b) When acting bilaterally, they rotate the head to the side of the active muscles

c) They are in the most superficial layer of the deep back muscles

d) When acting unilaterally, they laterally flex the neck

A

b) When acting bilaterally, they rotate the head to the side of the active muscles

25
Q

Choose the FALSE statement re: sternocleidomastoid:

a) It attaches to the mastoid process

b) It attaches inferiorly to the manubrium

c) It is innervated by the cranial nerve XII

d) Unilateral contraction results in lateral flexion and rotation of the neck

A

c) It is innervated by the cranial nerve XII

26
Q

Which of the following statements about the diaphragm is correct?

a) Attaches to the superior margin of ribs 9 and 10

b) The aortic hiatus is found at T12

c) The caval hiatus is found at T10

d) The esophageal hiatus is found at T8

e) Creates increased pressure and decreased volume

A

b) The aortic hiatus is found at T12

27
Q

Which intercostal nerve is associated with skin innervation of the nipple?

A

T4

28
Q

When you take a deep breath in, what is happening?

A

External intercostals contract to move ribs superiorly

29
Q

What muscles are active when you take a breath out?

A

Internal intercostals only

30
Q

Which of the following is responsible for generating flexion of the cervical spine?

a) Longus Coli

b) Semispinalis capitus

c) Splenius capitus

d) Rectus capitus posterior

e) Illiocostalis capitus

A

a) Longus Coli

31
Q

Choose the skull bone that is not paired:

a) Parietal bone
b) maxilla
c) Occipital bone
d) zygomatic bone
e) nasal bone

A

c) Occipital bone

32
Q

Choose the FALSE statement re: the foramen magnum:

a) The internal jugular vein travels through the foramen magnum

b) The foramen magnum is formed by the occipital bone

c) The vertebral arteries pass through the foramen magnum

d) The spinal cord passes through the foramen magnum

A

a) The internal jugular vein travels through the foramen magnum

33
Q

Which of the following is NOT a muscle of mastication?

a) Masseter
b) Temporalis
c) Orbicularis oris
d) Lateral pterygoid
e) Medial pterygoid

A

c) Orbicularis oris

34
Q

In the acronym “SCALP”, what layer does the letter P refer to?

A

Pericranial tissue

35
Q

Choose the FALSE statement about the temporomandibular joint (TMJ):

a) The TMJ is a modified hinge joint

b) There is an articular disc in the TMJ

c) The TMJ is formed by the articulation of the coronoid process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone

d) The movements allowed by the TMJ include elevation, depression, and lateral movements

A

c) The TMJ is formed by the articulation of the coronoid process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone

36
Q

Choose the TRUE statement regarding the coronal suture-more than one will apply:

a) The coronal suture separates the occipital and parietal bones

b) The coronal suture separates the right and left parietal bones

c) The coronal suture contributes to the “lambda” landmark

d) The coronal suture contributes to the “bregma” landmark

e) The coronal suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones

A

d) The coronal suture contributes to the “bregma” landmark

e) The coronal suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones

37
Q

List the associated number to the cranial nerves:

1) Vagus
2) Optic
3) Abducens
4) Facial

A

1) Vagus: X
2) Optic: II
3) Abducens: VI
4) Facial: VII

38
Q

List the associated number to the following cranial nerves:

1) Hypoglossal
2) Trochlear
3) Glossopharyngeal
4) Olfactory

A

1) Hypoglossal: XII
2) Trochlear: IV
3) Glossopharyngeal: IX
4) Olfactory: I

39
Q

Which of the following structures are NOT part of the middle cranial fossa?

a) Crista galli
b) superior orbital fissure
c) petrous part of the temporal bone
d) sella turcia

A

a) Crista galli

40
Q

Which of the following bones forms the neurocranium of the skull?

a) Lacrimal bone
b) Palatine bone
c) Ethmoid bone
d) Sphenoid bone
e) Zygomatic bone

A

d) Sphenoid bone

MSK 100 test 1 (7 decks)

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