MT Flashcards
A client is concerned about a rash that has developed on their abdomen. What is the nurse’s best response to the client?
a. A rash is similar to infection.”
b. “Inflammation always leads to gangrene.”
c. “A rash is a sequential reaction to injury.”
d. “Rashes indicate the presence of harmful microorganisms that are thriving.”
c.“A rash is a sequential reaction to injury.”
Diphenhydramine was prescribed to a client with an allergic reaction. The client asks “how does this medication work?” The nurse states “Diphenhydramine works by inhibiting the release of _____________.”
a. Histamine
b. Serotonin
c. Bradykinins
d. Prostaglandins
a. Histamine
A surgeon’s progress notes indicated “sanguineous drainage on wound gauze.” The nurse’s best description for the drainage is which of the following?
a. Bloody
b. Purulent
c. Clear
d. Thick
a. Bloody
A trauma nurse is replacing an old chest tube canister filled with clear-pinkish secretions. What is the best description of the exudate the nurse should enter in the progress notes?
a. Catarrhal
b. Hemorrhagic
c. Serosanguineous
d. Sanguineous
c. Serosanguineous
A wound care nurse is managing a client with Stage IV pressure ulcer. The wound was noted to be foul-smelling with yellowish discharge draining copiously. Which of the following findings is most concerning for the nurse?
a. Purulent discharge
b. Serous secretions
c. Fibrinous plaque
d. Catarrhal drainage
a. Purulent discharge
A local response to inflammation involved release of histamine. Which of the following are effects of histamine? Select all that apply.
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Edema
c. Redness
d. Heat
b. Edema
c. Redness
d. Heat
A patient with Pneumothorax underwent emergency insertion of chest tube. Which of the following assessment findings is most concerning to nurse?
a. Bubble arising from the suction control chamber.
b. Drainage is lower than the patient
c. Hemorrhagic secretions 400 ml in the chamber
d. Suction is at -20 cm H2O
c. Hemorrhagic secretions 400 ml in the chamber
Inflammation involves different transmitters. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes contraction of smooth muscles? Select all that apply.
a. Complement component
b. Serotonin
c. Kinins
d. Histamine
b. Serotonin
c. Kinins
According to CDC, in 2004 about 159,000 of all nursing home residents developed pressure ulcers. What are the common causes of pressure ulcers? Select all that apply.
a. Immobility
b. Prolonged moisture exposure
c. Bedbound
d. Shearing forces
a. Immobility
b. Prolonged moisture exposure
c. Bedbound
d. Shearing forces
A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with a sacral pressure ulcer. What intervention should the nurse include in the client’s care plan to prevent worsening of the ulcer?
a. Frequent repositioning
b. Accurate titration of vasoactive drugs
c. Pain control
d. Proper nutrition
a. Frequent repositioning
A wound care nurse is conducting a lecture about complications of improper wound healing. Which complication is described as: the creation of connecting wound from original source to adjacent structure?
a. Adhesion
b. Fistula
c. Infection
d. Evisceration
b. Fistula
A nurse is entering a physician’s request for a wound vacuum into the electronic medical system. Which pressure ulcer is this device being prescribed to treat?
a. Stage I Pressure Ulcer
b. Stage II Pressure Ulcer
c. Mildly draining Stage III Pressure Ulcer
d. Copiously draining Stage IV Pressure Ulcer
d. Copiously draining Stage IV Pressure Ulcer
A surgeon ordered: “Cleanse Sacral Stage IV Pressure Ulcer with normal saline, apply clean moist gauze with normal saline, cover abdominal pad, secure with tape.” What type of debridement has the physician prescribed to treat this wound?
a. Surgical debridement
b. Mechanical debridement
c. Enzymatic debridement
d. Autolytic debridement
b. Mechanical debridement
A client with abdominal surgical incision is being investigated for delayed wound healing. Which of the following can cause delayed wound healing? Select all that apply
a. Infection
b. Smoking
c. Advanced age
d. Diabetes Mellitus
a. Infection
b. Smoking
c. Advanced age
d. Diabetes Mellitus
A nurse is documenting a wound assessed on client. What is the accurate pressure ulcer stage for the wound shown below:
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
e. Unstageable
f. Suspected Deep Tissue Injury

f. Suspected Deep Tissue Injury
A nurse is documenting a wound assessed on client. What is the accurate pressure ulcer stage for the wound shown below:
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
e. Unstageable
f. Suspected Deep Tissue Injury

e. Unstageable
A nurse performs a wound assessment on a client. How should the nurse document this wound?
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
e. Unstageable
f. Suspected Deep Tissue Injury

d. Stage IV
A nurse assesses a client’s wound. What pressure ulcer stage should the nurse document for this client?
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
e. Unstageable

c. Stage III
A nurse assesses a client’s wound. What pressure ulcer stage should the nurse document for this client?
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
e. Unstageable

b. Stage II
A nurse assesses a client’s wound. What pressure ulcer stage should the nurse document for this client?
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
e. Unstageable

a. Stage I
Which of the following diets would place a client at the highest risk for macrocytic anemia?
a. Lacto-ovo-vegetarian
b. Lacto-vegetarian
c. Macrobiotic
d. Vegan
d. Vegan
The nurse is caring for a 50-year-old client in the clinic. The client’s annual physical examination revealed a hemoglobin value of 10 g/dL (100 g/L) compared to 13 g/dL (130 g/L) a year ago. What should be the nurse’s initial action?
a. Encourage intake of over-the-counter iron pills
b. Encourage intake of red meat and egg yolks
c. Facilitate a screening colonoscopy
d. Facilitate another blood test in 6 months
c. Facilitate a screening colonoscopy
A client is admitted to the medical surgical floor with a hemoglobin level of 5.0 g/dL (50 g/L). The nurse should anticipate which findings? Select all that apply.
a. Coarse crackles
b. Dyspnea
c. Pallor
d. Respiratory depression
e. Tachycardia
b. Dyspnea
c. Pallor
e. Tachycardia
The nurse teaches a client diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia about iron-rich foods. The nurse determines teaching has been effective when the client chooses which of the following meals?
a. Chicken salad with lettuce on French bread, chocolate pudding, and milk
b. Fat-free yogurt, carrot sticks, apple slices, and diet soda
c. Ham, steamed carrots, green beans, gelatin dessert, and iced tea
d. Kale salad with boiled eggs and dried fruit, a brownie, and orange juice
d. Kale salad with boiled eggs and dried fruit, a brownie, and orange juice



