MT 3 Materials Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

DMARDs (Disease Modifying AntiRheumatic Drugs)

A
  • Methotrexate, hydroxycholoroquine, sulfasalizine, leflunomide, azathioprine
  • Organic gold compounds ( Aurothioglucose, Auranofin)
  • Penicillamine ( Cuprimine)
  • Chlorambucil ( Leukeran)
  • Cyclophosphamide (also anticancer)
  • Cyclosporine
  • Etanercept (mechanism - antagonism of tumor necrosis factor)
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2
Q

Chronic Gout Drugs

A
  • Colchicine
  • Allopurinol, Oxypurinol, Febuxostate (Xanthine oxidase inhibitors)
  • Probenecid, Sulfinpyrazone (Uricosuric Agents)
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3
Q

Short Acting Glucocortioids

A
  • hydrocortisone, cortisone
  • Prednisone, Prednisolone
  • Methylprednisolone
  • Meprednisone
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4
Q

Long Acting Glucocorticoids

A

Betamethasone

Dexamethasone

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5
Q

Intermediate Acting Glucocorticoids

A
  • Triamcinolone
  • Paramethasone
  • Fluprednisolone
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6
Q

Topical Corticosteroid

A

Bechlomethasone

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7
Q

Inhaled Corticosteroids

A

Beclomethasone, Budesonide, Fluticasone, Mometasone, Triamcinolone

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8
Q

Glucocorticoids used for anti-inflammatory effects and that have both glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid

A

Hydrocortisone, cortisone, prednisone, prednisolone

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9
Q

Glucocorticoid activity & no mineralocorticoid activity

A
  • Triamcinolone
  • Methylprednisolone
  • Fluticasone
  • Beclomethasone
  • Budesonide
  • Mometasone
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10
Q

Opioid Agonists

A

Pure Phenanthrenes ( 3 six carbon rings)

  • Codeine, Hydrocodone ( Weak)
  • Hydromorphone, Morphine, Oxycodone, Levorphanol (Strong)

Pure Phenylpiperidines

  • Alfentanil, Fentanyl, meperidine, Sulfentanil, Tapentadole

Pure Diphenylheptanes

  • Metadone (strong)
  • Propoxyphene (Weak)
  • Hepatic Metabolism
  • Toxicities: respiratory depression, constipation, addiction
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11
Q

Mixed Opiate Agonist/Antagonists

A
  • Buprenorphine
  • Nalbuphine
  • Pentazocine
  • Butorphanol
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12
Q

Opioid Antagonists

A
  • Naloxone
  • Naltrexone
  • Nalmefene
  • Methylnaltrexone
  • Alvimopan
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13
Q

Antitussives

A
  • Codeine
  • Dextromethorphan
  • Tramadol ( seizures if overdose)
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14
Q

Opioid Partial Agonists

A
  • Codeine
  • Hydrocodone
  • Genetic Variation in metabolism ( due to being metabolized by CYP2D6)
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15
Q

`Glucocorticoids ( Agonist)

A
  • Cortisol
  • Hydrocortisone
  • Dexamethasone
  • Betamethasone
  • Prednisone
  • Triamcinolone
  • Budesonide
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16
Q

Mineralocorticoids (Agonist)

A
  • Aldosterone
  • Deoxycortisone
  • Fludrocortisone
17
Q

GLucocorticoids Antagonists

18
Q

Mineralocorticoid Antagonist

A
  • Eplerenone
  • Spironolactone
19
Q

Synthesis inhibitors (antagonist)

A
  • Ketoconazole
  • Aminoglutethimide
  • Metyrapone
20
Q

Most ototoxic (auditory damage) agents

A

Neomycin, kanamycin, and amikacin

Vancomycin

21
Q

Most Nephrotoxic agents

A

Neomycin, tobramycin, and gentamicin

Vancomycin

22
Q

induce ethanol intolerance, disulfiram-like reaction

A
  • Tinidazole, Metronidazole
  • Cefoperazone, Cefotelan, Cefamandole (Cephalosporins)
23
Q

Quinupritin/Dalfopristin (Synercid)

A
  • Spectogramins class of antibacterials
  • CYP3A4 inhibitos
  • Can cause myopathy (muscle pain)
  • Activity against aerobic gram + microorganisms
24
Q

Linezolid

A
  • Weak MAO inhibitor
  • DDI with SSRI’s
  • The first oxazolidinone created
25
Beta LActamase Inhibitors
* Sulbactam * Tazobactam * Clavulanic
26
Which antibacterial would be the drug of choice for a patient with an upper respiratory infection and who has experienced an episode of bronchospasm following carbapenem therapy?
Telithromycin (Ketolide)
27
Respiratory Fluoroquinolones
Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Gemifloxacin
28
Caution is warranted for which antibacterial/s in patients with renal dysfunction?
* Penicillins (except Methicillin, nafcillin) and Cephalosporins (except ceftriaxone) * Aminoglycosides * Tetracyclines (except doxy & mino) * Chloramphenicol * Fluroquinolones (80% excreted through kidney) * Sulfonamides & Trimethoprim * Clindamycin (is excreted by both kidney and via bile tract) * Nitrofurantoin * Vancomycin * Metronidazole
29
Which drugs work on anaerobes?
 Clindamycin (drug of choice against B. fragilis)  Metronidazole (drug of choice against B. fragilis & Clostridium species)  Penicillin G (Clostridium perfringens)  Ticarcillin (effective against Bacteroides fragilis)  Piperacillin & Mezlocillin (more effective against B. fragilis)  Imipenem (effective against anaerobes)
30
Alternative drugs in patients with a history of severe (anaphylactic) penicillin allergy
* Macrolides * Vancomycin * Clindamycin * Aztreonam (a monobactam; primarily indicated for Gram negative organisms and is not a drug of first choice)
31
Exhibits excellent MRSA activity
* Vancomycin * 3rd gen Quinolones * **Tigecycline** (IV only) * Clindamycin * Quinupristin-Dalfopristin * ceftaroline (5th gen cephalosporins) * Linezolid
32
Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitor
* Beta lactams; * cephalosporins; * carbapenems; * monobactams; * glycopeptide antibiotics (Vancomycin )
33
Patients allergic to sulfonamides antibiotics can have a risk of allergic reactions to
Celecoxib
34
Gram-Negative Antibacterial
* Aztreonam; * Meropenem; * Aminopenicillins; * Cephoslosporins ( 2nd and 3rd ); * Ceftaroline * Fluoroquinolones (both - and +) * Aminoglyosides
35
The mechanism/property attributed to the gastric ulcer by NSAIDs includes
Acidic functional groups and the ability to decrease gastric secretion by inhibition of COX-1
36
eliminated mainly by the liver
* Macrolides, * Ketolides (Telithromycin), * Lincosamide (Clindamycin), * Chloramphencol, * streptogramins (Synercid) , * oxazolidinones (Linezolid)
37
Which of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Vancomycin in combination with 3rd generation cephalosporin such as ceftriaxone.