MT open qs 3 Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

True of False?

Perosis is for Mg deficiencies

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does brucella cause in bones in swine?

A

Rarefaction + ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pic of the enlarged vulva of a piglet. What could cause this?

A

F2 toxicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

A medical condition in which the bones become brittle and fragile from loss of tissue, typically as a result of hormonal changes, or deficiency of calcium or vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is amyelia?

A

Congenital absence of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does fibrosis stand for?

A

Irreversible regressive change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which one causes haemorrhages in the urinary bladder:

a) distemper
b) swine fever
c) ethylene glycol toxicosis
d) none of the above

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pic of fibrous pnemounia: which stain is used?

A

Weigert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is poliomyelitis?

A

Inflammation of the grey matter of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which one cause embryonic malformation during embryonic phase?
BVD, brucellosis, listeria, all of the above

A

All of the above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which bacteria can lead to meningitis (in eq)

A

Actinomyces, Klebsiella, and Streptococcus species are sporadic causes of meningitis in horses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Osteodystrophea fibrosa frequesntly occurs in which bone?

A

Frequently in facial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Oregon disease?

A

Green muscle disease of chicken and turkey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following leads to osteopetrosis in birds?

a. Retrovirus
b. Manganese deficiency
c. Manganese toxicity
d. Hypoparathyroidism

A

a. Retrovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Coronavirus targets dogs of what age?

A

< 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Specific disease caused by coronavirus in cats?

A

Feline infectious peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Enterotoxaemic E coli causes?

A

Edema disease of swine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

EPEC causes what?

A

Coli septicaemia and effacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which E. coli adheres to mucosa?

A

Enteropathogenic (EPEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pigs with ETEC have what symptoms?

A

Post weaning diarrhea - (usually thin yellowish diarrhea, exciccation & emaciation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Enterotoxigenic E coli causes?

Consequence of this?

A

Enterosorption

Consequence can be neonatal diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The heat stable enterotoxin in pigs has what action?

A

STa –> incr. cGMP - inhibits absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Enterotoxigenic E coli produces what enterotoxin in calves?

A

Heat labile (LT) –> incr. cAMP - promotes secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List the 4 types of E. coli

A

Entero-toxigenic, -pathogenic, -toxaemic, & invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What occurs in the kidney of cattle due to adenovirus?
- Virus multiplication in tubular epithelium - Necrosis - detachment of epithelium - Proteinuria - Focal interstitial nephritis
26
What can occur in the lung of cattle due to adenovirus ?
- Intralobular interstital pneumonia - Necrotizing microbronchitis - Obturation of bronchi - Lobular atalectasy - 2ry bonchoaveolar pneumonia
27
Specific disease caused by adenovirus in cattle?
Bovine adenoviral pneumoenteritis
28
Adenovirus in cattle targets what age?
4 weeks to 4 month
29
Adenovirus infection of cattle begins in which organ ?
Pharyngeal lymph nodes
30
Rotavirus targets cattle of which age?
< 3 weeks
31
Clinical sings of rotavirus in cattle?
Fluid filled bowel loops, watery yellow diarrhea
32
Rotavirus targets swine of what age?
< 10 days
33
Which is not a cause of gastritis? a. Erosion b. Ileus c. Trauma d. Parasites/bacteria
a. Erosion
34
Amount of area affected by parasitic gastritis?
Focal
35
Type of gastritis caused by parasites or allergies?
Eosinophilic
36
Tuberculosis causes what type of gastritis?
granulomatous
37
Which type of gastritis is caused by fungi?
mycotic gastritis (abomasitis)
38
Which is not affected by Vit A? a. Vision b. Steroid synthesis c. Calcification d. Development of epithelium
c. Calcification
39
What is the main cause of xeropthalmia?
Vit A deficiency
40
Which is not a cause of stenosis in the esophagus? a. Constriction (?) b. Obturation c. Spasms of muscles d. Dilation
d. Dilation
41
Most common lesion in sheep due to stachybotryotoxicosis?
loss of wool
42
What is not a common lesion in Eq in case of stachybotryotoxicosis? a. Necrotic dermatitis nose + lips b. bleeding of intestines c. Necrotic stomatitis oral cavity d. Liver dystrophy
b. bleeding of intestines
43
Main source of infection of stachybotryotoxiccosis?
contamination of hay & straw in wet/humid conditions
44
What does the Ncp strain of BVD cause?
immunotolerance, seropositivity
45
What does the cp strain of BVD cause?
diarrhea, respiratory signs, abortion, developmental anomalies, immunosuppression (2ry infections)
46
What does atresia mean?
not fully developed lumen of hollow organ / failure of opening of the tubules/ductules
47
What does Fusobacterium necrophorum cause?
oral necrobacillosis
48
2 types of fibrinous gastritis?
Croupous and diphteric
49
What does Clostridium septicum cause?
Acute gastritis, malignant edema
50
Which species is affected by Bradsot?
sheep, wild small ruminants
51
Symptoms of Koves disease?
necrosis, edema, emphysema
52
Symptoms of chronic superficial gastritis?
mild lymphoplasmocytic infiltration (follicular gastritis)
53
Symptoms of chronic hypertrophic gastritis?
deep sulci, edema, thickened mm, cystic dilation of gl.
54
Swine fever symptoms are an example of?
Haemorrhagic gastritis
55
What is not a common lesion in Eq in case of stachybotryotoxicosis? a. Necrotic dermatitis nose + lips b. Bleeding of intestines c. Necrotic stomatitis oral cavity d. Liver dystrophy
b. Bleeding of intestines (in calves not eq)
56
Which is not a cause of stenosis in the esophagus? a. Constriction b. Obturation c. Spasms of muscles d. Dilation
d. Dilation
57
Which is not a consequence of lesions of continuity in forestomaches? a. Peritonitis b. Edema c. Metastatic abscesses d. Pericarditis
b. Edema
58
a) Age of lesions if there is granulation tissue? b) What characterizes a lesion of 5-7 days? c) What characterizes a lesion of 4 weeks (28days)? d) What characterizes a lesion of 6 weeks?
a) 2 weeks (10-14 days) b) first collagen fibres c) first appearance of elastic fibres d) 2-3 cm of CT
59
What is the main cause of xeropthalmia?
Vit A deficiency
60
Which is not affected by Vit. A? a. Vision b. Steroid synthesis c. Calcification d. Development of epithelium
c. Calcification
61
What are the pathological changes to the skin due to Vit A deficiency?
Hyper/parakeratosis, hair follicle degeneration
62
Another term for primary tympany of rumen?
Frothy bloat
63
Which is not a common PM finding after primary tympany? a. Hypertrophy b. Black line in esophagus c. Dark, poorly clotted blood d. Hemorrhages
a. Hypertrophy
64
Another term for secondary tympany, and what is the main cause of it?
Free gas bloat – physical or functional defect in eructation
65
What is affected in anteroventral perforation?
Diaphragm and pericardia
66
What causes ventral perforation?
Abscesses at xiphoid (Acute local fibrinous peritonitis?)
67
Which of the following changes can develop in the bones of pigs during brucellosis?
Rarefying and ossification osteitis
68
In which direction does the vertebral column bend in case of scoliosis?
Lateral
69
In which of the following cases is there a decreased osteoid margin formation in the trabeculae of the bones?
Calcium deficiency
70
In which species and age group can spondylosis deformans cervicospinalis be observed?
Young horses
71
Which endocrine organ has a major role in the ossification process?
Parathyroid gland
72
Beside the muscular pathology, what other changes can be observed in the birds in case of Vit. E and selenium deficiency?
Exudative diathesis and encephalomalacia
73
Which of the following changes is characteristic for rickets?
Uncalcified cartilage and osteoid tissue in the growing zone
74
What is one inner criteria leading to the development of constitutional myopathy?
Anaerobic glycolysis
75
Arthrosis can be defined as?
Regressive changes in the joint cartilage
76
What type of cells are found in pustules?
Inflammatory cells – Neutrophils (less often eosinophils, could be a mix of the two)
77
Which processes are not fused in hare lip?
Failure of fusion of the frontal-nasal processes (cheiloschisis superior media)
78
Causative agent of bovine viral diarrhoea (BVD)?
Family Flaviviridae and genus pestivirus
79
Secondary lesions of FMD found where?
(From lectures: other gross lesions) 1. vesicular dermatitis (interdigital cleft, coronary band, teats, vulva) 2. myocarditis – zenkers disease (in young animals)
80
Definition of attrition?
Type of teeth wear caused by tooth to tooth contact – results in loss of tooth
81
Stachybotryotoxicosis lesions in horse?
In the horse specifically: - Necrotic dermatitis on nares and lips - Necrotic stomatitis (lips, tongue , buccal surface) - Deep necrosis of tonsils - Liver dystrophy - Agranulocytosis - Lymphocytopenia - Hamorrhages (stomach brain)
82
Primary lesions of FMD are found where?
(from lectures: gross lesions) - Small clear fluid filled vesicles – lips, buccal mucosa, tongue, nasal mucosa, oesophagus, conjunctivitis (rumen) - Enlarge - create bullae and ulcerate – irregular red patches, denuded submucosa erosions (ulcers)