Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

disruption in musculoskeletal system may be

A

trauma, degenerative disease, inflammation, poor conformation, neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

etiology of long bone fractures

A

trauma, disease, repeated stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

classification of long bone fractures

A

open or closed (pierce the skin or not)
simple or comminuted (single break or multiple small breaks)
stable or unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

transverse fracture

A

break straight across bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

oblique fracture

A

diagonal break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

spiral fracture

A

creates spiral up the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

comminuted fracture

A

multiple breaks creating shards of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

avulsion fracture

A

break at the epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

impacted fracture

A

2 pieces of bone pushing together at site of break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

fissure fracture

A

break along long axis of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

greenstick fracture

A

break that does not go through bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dx of long bone fractures

A

radiographs, at least 2 views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tx for long bone fractures

A

fixation (stabilization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do bones heal?

A

hematoma, fibrocartilaginous (soft) callus, bony (hard) callus, remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

splints and casts

A

used to stabilize fracture, ideal for simple fractures, must be adequately padded and must be kept dry (must be replaced regularly for puppies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

intramedullary pins (IM pins)

A

provides fracture site rigidity, prevent forces of bending/rotation, must be placed in sterile environment, not recommended for forelimbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

bone plates

A

provide stabilization for most fractures, should be removed but sometimes kept in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

external skeletal fixation

A

multiple pins and external bars holding bones in place, good for complex fracture sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

client education for fractures

A

restrict activity, leash walks for 6-8 weeks, surgical site care, follow up RADs, additional surgery may be necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a cruciate ligament

A

ligaments which stabilize the knee, create an X pattern at the femur and tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cruciate ligament injury is the ______ ______ injury to stile of dog

A

most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cruciate ligament injury may be

A

partial tear or complete rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cruciate ligament injury can cause

A

secondary diseases (DJD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

signalment for cruciate ligament injury

A

seen in middle aged, obese, inactive animals (can affect all dogs of all sizes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

dogs with higher chances of CLI

A

rotties, newfies, staffies, mastiff, akita, st bernard, CB retrievers, labs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dx for cruciate ligament injury

A

clinical signs, lameness, gait change, rads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cranial drawer test

A

tibia slides forward over femoral condyles (usually done with sedation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

tibial compression test

A

tibia slides forward over femur while hock is flexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tx for cruciate ligament injury

A

meds (anti-inflammatory) physical therapy, braces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

client education for cruciate ligament

A

contralateral limb will most likely also be affected, Sx to fix ruptured ligament, activity restriction, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

patellar luxation

A

patella pops out of place either medially or laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

medial luxation

A

toy, mini, and large breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

lateral luxation

A

toy and mini breeds, large or giant breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

most common orthopedic condition in dogs

A

patellar luxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

small breeds predisposed to patellar luxation

A

boston terrier, yorki, chihuahua, poms, mini poodles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

large breeds predisposed to patellar luxation

A

shar pei, flat coated retrievers, akitas, great pyrenees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tx for patellar luxation

A

may need Sx, activity restriction, anti-inflammatories, chondroprotectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

genetic/hereditary disease in large breed dogs

A

hip dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is hip dysplasia

A

disease of ball and socket joint due to abnormal acetabulum or femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

clinical signs for hip dysplasia

A

young animals slow to rise, older dogs may have muscle atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dx hip dysplasia

A

RADs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

hip dysplasia is ______ so older animals cannot get this unless born with it

A

congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tx hip dysplasia

A

Sx (total hip replacement or femoral head ostectomy) hip and joint sups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

client education for hip dysplasia

A

OFA recommendations, weight loss, progression/degenerative, Sx is only cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Legg-Perthes Disease (avascular necrosis)

A

loss of blood supply to femoral head which may cause trauma to hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

signalment for LPD

A

small young breeds (terriers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

clinical signs for LPD

A

reduced hip mobility, lack of muscle mass, limb shortening, pet becomes irritable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Dx of LPD

A

RADs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tx for LPD

A

Sx (femoral head ostectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

osteochondrosis dissecans

A

abnormal development of cartilage at end of bone in the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

most common joints of osteochondrosis dissecans

A

shoulder, elbow, hip, knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

signalment for osteochondrosis dissecans

A

rapidly growing medium to large dogs typically between 6-9 mo of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Dx of osteochondrosis dissecans

A

RADs reveal loose cartilage flap or “joint mouse”, arthroscopic exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Tx osteochondrosis dissecans

A

rest, weight control, Sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

panosteitis

A

painful inflammation of outer surface or shaft of one or more long bones (growing pains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

clinical signs of panosteitis

A

shifting leg lameness, occurs suddenly and spontaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

signalment of panosteitis

A

young, rapidly growing dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

predisposed breeds for panosteitis

A

goldens, GSD, great danes, labs, rotties, dobies, bassets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

which sex does panosteitis affect more

A

males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Dx panosteitis

A

RADs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Tx panosteitis

A

anti-inflammatory drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

coxofemoral luxations

A

tearing of joint capsule and round ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

etiology coxofemoral luxations

A

trauma, poor conformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

clinical signs coxofemoral luxations

A

Hx, acute lameness, swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Dx coxofemoral luxations

A

RADs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Tx coxofemoral luxations

A

closed or open reduction, consider other organ systems affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

client education coxofemoral luxations

A

rest, FHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

bacterial myositis

A

bacterial infection of bite or puncture wound (Staphylococcus, Clostridium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Tx for bacterial myositis

A

antibiotics

70
Q

protozoal myositis

A

toxoplasma encysted within muscles of + cats

71
Q

Tx of protozoal myositis

A

antiprotozoal

72
Q

polymyositis

A

immune-mediated condition that causes depression, lameness, weakness, fever

73
Q

Tx of polymyositis

A

steroids

74
Q

masticatory myositis

A

involves muscles of mastication

75
Q

Tx of masticatory myositis

A

steroids

76
Q

feline polymyopathy

A

hypokalemia causes ventral neck flexion

77
Q

Tx feline polymyopathy

A

K+ supplement

78
Q

most common neoplasia

A

osteosarcoma

79
Q

commonly affected sites for neoplasia

A

distal radius, proximal humerus, distal femur, prox tibia

80
Q

signalment for neoplasia

A

large breed male dogs over 7

81
Q

Dx neoplasia

A

RADs, Bx

82
Q

Tx neoplasia

A

amputation, chemo

83
Q

client education

A

amputation will not prevent metastasis, chemo is $$$ and has side effects

84
Q

the equine foot

A

basically horse walking on middle finger

85
Q

____ percent of horse lameness come from the hoof

A

90

86
Q

diseases affected the hoof

A

subsolar bruise, abscess, navicular syndrome, thrush, fractures

87
Q

etiology subsolar bruise

A

trauma that causes hemorrhage

88
Q

clinical signs of subsolar bruise

A

chronic, low-grade lameness

89
Q

Dx subsolar bruise

A

hoof testers, visualizing the bruise

90
Q

Tx and prevention subsolar bruise

A

proper trimming and shoeing

91
Q

etiology of hoof abscess

A

bacteria within hoof capsule

92
Q

signalment of hoof abscess

A

horses with foreign body penetration

93
Q

clinical signs of hoof abscess

A

fever, acute lameness, increased digital pulse, fetlock and pastern swelling

94
Q

Dx of hoof abscess

A

visualize draining tract, RADs

95
Q

Tx hoof abscess

A

pare out abscess, anti-inflammatory, foot soaks, antibiotics, +/- tetanus

96
Q

navicular disease etiology

A

inflammation of navicular bursa, excessive strain on tendons, improperly trimmed hooves

97
Q

signalment for navicular disease

A

6-8 yr, quarter horses and thoroughbred

98
Q

clinical signs of navicular disease

A

pointing, pain over frog, chronic, bilateral lameness

99
Q

Dx navicular disease

A

digital nerve block, RADs

100
Q

Tx navicular disease

A

NSAIDS, correct hoof imbalance, suspensory ligament desmotomy

101
Q

etiology of thrush

A

bacterial infection of frogs, wet conditions

102
Q

bacteria of thrush

A

Fusarium necrophorum

103
Q

clinical signs of thrush

A

foul smelling black discharge from frog

104
Q

Tx for thrush

A

clean feet, remove necrotic material, topical astringents

105
Q

client education for thrush

A

husbandry, keep feet clean

106
Q

sidebones

A

ossification of collateral cartilage found on either side of hoof protruding past coronary band

107
Q

etiology of sidebones

A

trauma

108
Q

signalment for sidebones

A

draft horses, older horses

109
Q

Dx of sidebones

A

rads

110
Q

Tx of sidebones

A

rest, NSAIDS, immobilize foot

111
Q

proximal sesamoid fractures

A

just know that they exist

112
Q

signalment for sesamoid fractures

A

high athletic horses, performance horses

113
Q

Tx for sesamoid fractures

A

Sx removal, internal fixation, rest up to a year

114
Q

sesamoiditis

A

inflammation of the sesamoid bones due to high stress/impact

115
Q

signalment of sesamoiditis

A

racehorses, dressage horses

116
Q

Dx of sesamoiditis

A

rads

117
Q

Tx of sesamoiditis

A

NSAIDS, rest

118
Q

bucked shins

A

painful periostitis, on cranial surface of metacarpal and metatarsal bones

119
Q

signalment of bucked shins

A

forelimbs of young thoroughbreds

120
Q

clinical signs of bucked shins

A

warm, painful swelling, lameness

121
Q

Tx for bucked shins

A

rest, NSAIDS, decrease training

122
Q

prevention bucked shins

A

modify exercise and training

123
Q

splints

A

inflammation of the splint bones

124
Q

etiology of splints

A

mineral and vitamin imbalances (Ca, phos, vitamins A and D)

125
Q

clinical signs of splints

A

swelling along cannon bone

126
Q

Dx splints

A

rads

127
Q

Tx splints

A

diet change, rest

128
Q

laminitis (founder)

A

inflammation of sensitive laminae causes blood to pass dermal laminae, vasoconstriction causes laminae to separate from hoof wall

129
Q

clinical signs of laminitis

A

pounding digital pulse, warmth, pain over toe

130
Q

Dx laminitis

A

rads

131
Q

Tx laminitis

A

NSAIDS, proper shoeing (high heel)

132
Q

shoulder sweeny

A

damage to superscapular nerve, atrophy in shoulder muscle

133
Q

etiology of shoulder sweeny

A

trauma

134
Q

Tx of shoulder sweeny

A

steroids, NSAIDS, acupuncture, therapy laser

135
Q

bog spavin

A

chronic synovitis of talocrural joint, distention of capsule

136
Q

signalment of bog spavin

A

young horses

137
Q

etiology of bog spavin

A

trauma

138
Q

clinical signs of bog spavin

A

swelling of hock

139
Q

Tx of bog spavin

A

rest, steroids, withdrawal of fluids

140
Q

rhabdomyolysis

A

muscle fatigue, pain, or cramping associated with exercise

141
Q

hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)

A

inherited disorder that affects the sodium channels in muscle cells and ability to regulate potassium levels

142
Q

clinical signs of HYPP

A

muscle trembling, prolapse of third eyelid, weakness, complete collapse

143
Q

secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

aka big head, high potassium low calcium

144
Q

clinical signs of big head

A

enlarged facial bones, spontaneous fractures, shifting leg lameness

145
Q

Tx of big head

A

mineral balance

146
Q

infectious footrot etiology

A

Dichelobacter nodosus

147
Q

clinical signs of footrot

A

lameness, malodorous discharge, interdigital dermatitis

148
Q

Tx of footrot

A

hoof trimming, cleaning, topical antiseptics

149
Q

signalment for septic arthritis

A

neonates

150
Q

etiology of septic arthritis

A

penetrating wound near joint, umbilical infection

151
Q

clinical signs of septic arthritis

A

lameness, swelling, fever, anorexia

152
Q

Dx septic arthritis

A

rads

153
Q

Tx septic arthritis

A

antibiotics, joint lavage

154
Q

prevention of septic arthritis

A

adequate colostrum, cleaning umbilicus

155
Q

etiology of caprine arthritis encephalitis

A

retrovirus

156
Q

signalment of CAE

A

goats under 6 months

157
Q

transmission of CAE

A

mother to baby

158
Q

clinical signs of CAE

A

chronic arthritis, swelling

159
Q

Dx CAE

A

serology

160
Q

Tx CAE

A

supportive

161
Q

rickets and osteomalacia

A

malformation of bones due to lack of vitamin D, Ca, and phos

162
Q

clinical signs of rickets

A

stiff gate, recumbency, enlarged costochondral junction

163
Q

Dx for rickets

A

rads and labs

164
Q

Tx for rickets

A

vit D injection, calcium and phos supplement

165
Q

prevention of rickets

A

sunlight, proper nutrients

166
Q

etiology of ergot toxicosis

A

ingestion of fungus Claviceps purpurea (infected feed)

167
Q

pathogenesis of ergot toxicosis

A

vasoconstriction by direct action of the limbs of the arterioles and repeated injury

168
Q

clinical signs of ergot toxicosis

A

distal limb discoloration, swelling, lameness

169
Q

Dx ergot toxicosis

A

ID organism in feed

170
Q

TX ergot toxicosis

A

remove animals from infected pasture or remove contaminated feed