Musculoskeletal Pharm Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

what is calcium in the blood good for

A

clot factors, muscle contraction, and nerve function

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2
Q

osteoblasts

A

create and set the bone

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3
Q

osteoclasts

A

break down the bone (reabsorb)

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4
Q

where do osteoblasts and class originate

A

in the bone marrow

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5
Q

what is calcium absorption increased by

A

parathyroid hormone and vitamin D

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6
Q

what decreases calcium absorption

A

glucocorticoids

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7
Q

what eliminates calcium (excretes)

A

calcitonin

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8
Q

what happens if there is TOO much serum calcium

A

give calcitonin to get rid of it

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9
Q

how are calcium levels regulated

A

PTH
Vitamin D
Calcitonin

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10
Q

where is calcium absorbed

A

small intestines

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11
Q

where is calcium excreted

A

kidneys

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12
Q

what are the 4 drugs for disorders involving calcium

A

calcium salts
Vitamin D
Calcitonin-salmon
Bisphosphonates

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13
Q

what are the 3 names of calcitonin-salmon

A

calcimar, miacalcin, fortical

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14
Q

what do the bisphosphonates typically end in and what is the main one we will look at

A

“ate”; alendronate

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15
Q

bisphosphonates ______ bone resorption and the main side effect is_______

A

inhibits; gastritis

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16
Q

what is the proper administration of bisphosphonates (alendronate)

A

take with full glass of water
take 30 minutes before food or other meds
remain upright for at least 30 minutes

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17
Q

why do you take bisphosphonates on empty stomach and why should they remain upright after admin

A

food decreases absorption; prevents esophageal irritations

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18
Q

calcitonin ____ bone resorption and is secreted by the ______

A

inhibits; thyroid gland

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19
Q

what is the proper administration of calcitonin

A

give IM form at night to minimize side effects
alternate nostrils when using nasal form
MUST use calcium supplement with it

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20
Q

why do you have to take calcium supplement with calcitonin

A

because pt will be at high risk for secondary hyperparathyroidism

21
Q

mimics estrogen by reducing bone reabsorption without stimulating tissue or breast or uterus

A

reloxifene (SERM)

22
Q

also given to REDUCE osteoporosis, uterine cancer, treat post menopausel

23
Q

what are the side effects of reloxifene

A

leg cramps, hot flashes, and blood clots

24
Q

what is denosumab used for

A

used in women for high risk fractures

monoclonal antibody against formation of osteoclasts (birth control for osteoclasts)

25
what is given most often for people on LONG TERM corticosteroid therapy
denosumab
26
what is one of the WORST side effects of raloxifene
venous thromboembolism (VTE) so can not take this med while immobilized
27
what is the only drug that increases bone formation
teriparatide (forteo)
28
what does teriparatide do
increases osteoblasts
29
what is the greatest concern when laying down new bone
osteosarcoma (bone cancer)
30
what are the drugs that weaken the bacterial cell wall
cephalosporins and vancomycin
31
what are the most widely used group of antibiotics and are similar to penicillin structure
cephalosporins
32
what do cephalosporins cause and what is important about their toxicity
drug causes lyses and death; toxicity is low
33
cephalosporins bind to _____ binding proteins, disrupts ___ ____ synthesis, and cause cell ____
penicillin; cell wall; lyses
34
which of the cephalosporins are active against broad spectrum antibiotics
beta-lactum (3rd and 4th)
35
what are the ceph generations in order
first gen= cefazolin second gen= cefaclor third gen= cefoperazone fourth gen= cefepime
36
which generations can reach the cerebral spinal fluid
3rd- 5th
37
how should you give cephalosporins if long term
through PICC or Central Line
38
what are first and second generation cephs typically used for
pre op as prophylaxis
39
what generation of cephs is the only one to treat MRSA
5th- ceftarolene
40
what is the action of vancomycin and how should it be given
inhibits cell wall synthesis; given iv cause not absorbed from the gut
41
vancomycin treats...
MRSA or staph
42
why would oral version vanc be used
for C diff if metronidazole was ineffective
43
what is main adverse effects of vancomycin
ototoxicity red mans (if given to fast) thrombophlebitis RENAL FAILURE
44
bacteriocidal inhibitors of protein synthesis
aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin)
45
what is the use of aminoglycosides
aerobic gram neg bacilli and is a narrower spectrum antibiotic
46
do ahminoglycosides cross CSF
NO
47
what are the adverse effects of aminoglycosides
oto and nephrotoxicity
48
why should you get a peak and trough on ahminoglycosides and vancomycin
wanna know the trough because this is what the serum level is BEFORE you give the dose
49
peak levels must be ___ enough to kill bacteria; through levels must be ___ enough to minimize toxicity
high; low