MUSCULOSKELZ

Question 1

Traction or tear of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus causes this..

Answer 1

Erb-Duchenne palsy (waiter’s tip), C5-C6 roots injured

Question 2

Findings of erb-duchenne palsy

Answer 2

paralysis of abduction, lateral rotators, biceps

Question 3

Klumpke’s palsy

Answer 3

an embryologic defect affecting inferior trunk of brachial plexus C8-T1

Question 4

thoracic outlet syndrome

Answer 4

a cervical rib can compress subclavian artery and inferior trunk, resulting in thoracic outlet syndrome

Question 5

Klumpke’s palsy- loss of…

Answer 5

81 roots that ult form median and ulnar nerves; they innervate all of the intrinsic hand muscles

Question 6

Pope’s blessing

Answer 6

distal ulnar nerve lesion

Question 7

Claw hand of 2nd and 3rd fingers

Answer 7

distal median nerve 57

Question 8

Ape hand

Answer 8

proximal median nerve lesion; loss of opponens pollicis muscle

Question 9

Klumpke’s total claw

Answer 9

lesion of lower trunk 81, loss of function of a lumbricals, clawing of all digits

Question 10

Radial nerve is known as

Answer 10

the great extensor

Question 11

Radial nerve innervates

Answer 11

the BEST! brachioradialis, extensors of the wrist and fingers, supinator, triceps

Question 12

Dorsal interosseous muscles

Answer 12

abduct the fingers (DAB)

Question 13

Palmar interosseous mucles

Answer 13

adduct the fingers PAD

Question 14

PED mnemonic

Answer 14

peroneal Everts and Dorsiflexes; if injured, foo dropPED

Question 15

TIP memonic

Answer 15

Tibial Inverts and Plantarflexes; if injured, can’t stand on toes

Question 16

Sciatica MC involves these nerves

Answer 16

L5 or S1

Question 17

Point of actin attachment

Answer 17

Z line

Question 18

myosin attaches to

Answer 18

M line

Question 19

Only THICK lines

Answer 19

H zone

Question 20

type 1 muscle

Answer 20

slow twitch, for sustained contraction; increased mitochondria and myoglobin concentration

Question 21

type 2 muscle

Answer 21

fast twitch, white fibers, anaerobic glycolysis

Question 22

achondroplasia

Answer 22

failure of longitudinal bone growth, FGFR3 inhibits chondrocyte proliferation

Question 23

Type 1 and 2 osteoporosis

Answer 23

postmenopausal; senile

Question 24

Patient with HTN and CHf, at risk for osteoporosis; give

Answer 24

Hydrochlorothiazide

Question 25

osteopetrosis

Answer 25

failure of normal bone resorption due to abnormal osteoclasts. anemia, thrombocytopenia, infection. carbonic anhydase 2 deficiency. erlenmeyer flask bones. cn defects.

Question 26

osteolmalacia/rickets

Answer 26

defective mineralization/calcification of osteoid

Question 27

Septic arthritis mnemonic

Answer 27

STD- synovitis, tenosynovitis, dermatitis

Question 28

SLE mnem

Answer 28

``` IM DAMN SHARP: Ig (anti-dsDNA, Sm, antiphospholipid) Malar rash Discoid rash Antinuclear Ab Mucositis Neuro d/o Serositis Hemat d/o Arthritis Renal d/o Photosens ```

Question 29

SLE-defective FAS gene product does this...

Answer 29

impairs clonal deletion of activated T lymphocytes

Question 30

Monitor in ank spondy

Answer 30

chest expansion (enthesopathies of costovertebral and costosternal jx)

Question 31

Reiter's syndrome usually occurs after

Answer 31

GI or chlamydia infections

Question 32

Reiter's triad

Answer 32

conjunctivitis and anterior uveitis, urethritis, arthritis

Question 33

Sarcoidosis mnem

Answer 33

GRAIN; gammaglobulinemia, RA, ACE increas, Interstitial fibrosis, Noncaseating granulomas

Question 34

MCTD mnem

Answer 34

FAME; fatigue, arthralgias, myaglgias, esopgaheal hypomotility

Question 35

MCTD antibodies

Answer 35

U1RNP; Ab against a mix of macromoleules; ribo-nucleo-protein

Question 36

Where is the superior gluteal nerve? Sciatic nerve?

Answer 36

superiomedial- sup gluteal; inferomedial- sciatic n

Question 37

layers of epidermis mnem

Answer 37

cali likes girls in stiring bikinis | corneum, lucidum, franulosum, spinosum, basalis

Question 38

MC dislocated; where is it

Answer 38

lunate, next to scaphoid

Question 39

MC fractured

Answer 39

scaphoid; immediately superior to radius

Question 40

SITS stands for

Answer 40

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

Question 41

unhappy knee triad

Answer 41

MCL, ACL, LM

Question 42

tight junctions

Answer 42

prevents diffusion across paracellular space; composed of cluadins and occludins

Question 43

zona adherens

Answer 43

cadherins connect to actin, surrounds area just below zona occ

Question 44

desmosomes

Answer 44

macula adherens; small and discrete, cadherins connect to intermediate filaments

Question 45

gap junctions

Answer 45

allow adjacent cells to comm for el and metab fx

Question 46

hemidesmosome

Answer 46

connects cells to underlying ECM

Question 47

integrin

Answer 47

maintains integrity of BM; binds to laminin (in BM)

Question 48

poly/dermatomyositis labs

Answer 48

Increased CK, aldolase; + ANA, anti;Jo-1

Question 49

LTB4 on neutrophils

Answer 49

chemotactic

Question 50

LTC, D, E

Answer 50

bronchconstriction, vasoconstriction, contraction of sm ms, incre vasc perm

Question 51

PGI2

Answer 51

inhibits platelet aggregation and promotes vasodilation

Question 52

dose of aspirin when it becomes AI

Answer 52

>2400mg/day

Question 53

name the bisphosphs

Answer 53

PALER; pamidronate, alendronate, etidronate, risedronate

Question 54

acute gout

Answer 54

colchicine, indomethacin

Question 55

chornic gout

Answer 55

probenecid, allopurinol

Question 56

name TNF-a inhibitors

Answer 56

AEI etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab;

Question 57

infliximab inlix pain on

Answer 57

TNF

Question 58

etanercept acts as a

Answer 58

decoy receptor

Question 59

adalimumab

Answer 59

blocks TNF-R

Question 60

TNF-a inhibitors can ...

Answer 60

reactivate latent TB