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ME2019 PART 2 > Mutations and Genetic Analysis > Flashcards

Mutations and Genetic Analysis Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different kinds of chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Numerical

Structural

Mutational

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2
Q

When does first trimester begin and end?

A

First day of someone’s last period and lasts until the end of week 12 of an embryo’s life

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3
Q

What percentage of miscarriages during the first trimester are due to chromosomal abnormalities?

A

50%

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4
Q

What are the kinds of numerical abnormalities?

A

Trisomy (additional chromosomes)

Monosomy (less chromosomes)

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5
Q

What is trisomy?

A

Additional chromosomes

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6
Q

What is monosomy?

A

Less chromosomes

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7
Q

What are examples of trisomy?

A

Patau syndrome (additional 13)

Edwards syndrome (additional 18)

Downs syndrome (additional 21)

Klinefelter (boys have additional X)

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8
Q

Patau syndrome is an additional what chromosome?

A

13

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9
Q

Edwards syndrome is an additional what chromosome?

A

18

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10
Q

Downs syndrome is an additional what chromosome?

A

21

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11
Q

Klinefelter syndrome is an additional what chromosome?

A

Boys have an additional X chromosome

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12
Q

What is an example of a monosomy?

A

Turner’s syndrome (female missing all or part of X chromosome)

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13
Q

What chromosome is missing in turner’s syndrome?

A

Female missing all or part of X chromosome

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14
Q

What is disomy?

A

The condition of having a chromosome represented twice in a chromosomal complaint

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15
Q

What is aneuploudy?

A

The presence of an abnormal amount of chromosomes in a cell

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16
Q

What is nondisjunction?

A

Failure of chromosomes to seperate properly during cell division

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17
Q

What may the origin of nondysjunction be?

A

Paternal or maternal, with different kinds of trisomys having different likeliness of each

Most autosomal are maternal and sex monosomy sex linked is paternal and trisomy sex linked is even

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18
Q

What are examples of autosomal chromosomes aneuploidy syndromes?

A

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)

Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)

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19
Q

What are the chances of inheriting trisomy 21 (down syndrome)?

A

1/650

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20
Q

What causes the chances of inheriting down syndrome to increase?

A

Increases with maternal age

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21
Q

What are some characteristics of down syndrome?

A

Facial dysmorphologies (birth defects that affect anatomy)

IQ less than 50

Alzheimer’s disease in later life

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22
Q

What is down syndrome normally due to?

A

Non-dysjunction of chromosome 21 which is usually maternal (95%)

Translocation (5%)

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23
Q

What is the occurance of trisomy 13 (patau syndrome)?

A

1/1000

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24
Q

What are some characteristics of patau syndrome?

A

Multiple dysmorphic features and mental retardnation

Very few survive beyond first year

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25
Q

What is patau syndrome normally caused by?

A

Nondysjunction of chromosome 13 (90%)

Translocation (10%)

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26
Q

What is the occurance of trisomy 18 (edwards syndrome)?

A

1/3000

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27
Q

What are some characteristics of edwards syndrome?

A

Severe developmental problems

Most die in first year

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28
Q

What is edwards syndrome normally caused by?

A

Nondysjunction (90%)

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29
Q

What are some sex chromosomes aneuploidy syndromes?

A

Turner’s syndrome (45, X)

Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY)

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30
Q

What is the occurance of turner’s syndrome?

A

1/5000

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31
Q

What are some characteristics of Turner’s syndrome?

A

Females of short stature and infertile

Neck webbing and widely spaced nipples

Intelligence and lifespam normal

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32
Q

What is the occurance of Klinefelter syndrome?

A

1/1000

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33
Q

What are characteristics of Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Tall stature, long limbs

Males infertile, small testis

Mild learning difficulties

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34
Q

What can structural abnormalities be?

A

Balanced or unbalanced

35
Q

What are examples of chromosomal structural abnormalities?

A

Translocation

Deletions

Insertions

Inversions

36
Q

What are the two kinds of chromosomal translocation?

A

Reciprocal (involving breaks in two chromosomes with formation of two new deriviative chromosomes)

Robertsonian (fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes)

37
Q

What is reciprocal translocation?

A

Breaks in two chromosomes with formation of two new derivative chromosomes

38
Q

What is robertsonian translocation?

A

Fusion of two acrocentric chromosomes

39
Q

What are acrocentric chromosomes?

A

Chromosomes in which the centromere is located quite near one end of the chromosome

40
Q

What is balanced translocation?

A

Translocation where no genetic material is lost (reciprical translocation)

41
Q

What is unbalanced translocation?

A

When someone inherits too much of one chromosome and not enough of another

42
Q

What does robertsonian translocation result in the loss of?

A

The short arms of the two acrocentric chromosomes

43
Q

Where may genetic mutations occur?

A

Germline or somatic

44
Q

What does genetic mutation lead do?

A

Gene disruption

Disease associated

45
Q

What do genetic mutations not have?

A

Phenotypic effect

46
Q

What are different types of genetic mutations?

A

Non-coding

Coding

47
Q

What are the different kinds of coding genetic mutations?

A

Point (only that codon is affected)

Frameshift (codons from that point are affected)

48
Q

What do point mutations affect?

A

Only that codon

49
Q

What do frameshift mutations affect?

A

Codons from that point

50
Q

What are examples of point mutations?

A

Silent (mutation with no change to coded amino acid)

Missense (single nucleotide change results in different amino acid)

Nonsense (single nucleotide change results in stop codon)

51
Q

What is a silent mutation?

A

Mutation with no change to coded amino acid

52
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

Single nucleotide change results in different amino acid

53
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

Single nucleotide change results in stop codon

54
Q

What are examples of frameshift mutations?

A

Deletion (part of sequence lost)

Insertion (insertion of additional nucleotide)

55
Q

What is a deletion mutation?

A

Part of sequence is lost

56
Q

What is an insertion mutation?

A

Insertion of additional nucleotides

57
Q

What are the two types of point mutations in relation to purines and pyrimidines?

A

Transitions (swapping purine for purine (A and G) or pyrimidine for pyrimidine (C and T))

Transversions (swapping purines to pyrimidines and vice versa)

58
Q

What are transition mutations?

A

Swapping a purine for a purine or a pyrimidine for a pyrimidine

59
Q

What are transversion mutations?

A

Swapping a purine for a pyrimidine and vice versa

60
Q

What are the purines?

A

Adesine and guanine

61
Q

What are the pyrimidines?

A

Cytosine and thymine

62
Q

What does the nomenclature of a mutation describe?

A

Its location in the genome

63
Q

How is a mutation named?

A

Describes number from the translation start site (c.10 is 10 nucleotides further into an exon, and c.10+2 is 2 nucleotides into the intron after the exon)

64
Q

What is an example of naming a point mutation?

A

c.586C>T (a substitution of a C nucleotide for a T nucleotide at nucleotide 586 within gene)

65
Q

What is an example of naming a deletion?

A

c485_488del (a deletion of four nucleotides within a gene, from position c.485 up to and including nucleotide 488)

66
Q

What is an example of naming a duplication mutation?

A

c.482_484dup (a duplication of three nucleotides within a gene, from position c.482 up to and including nucleotide c.484)

67
Q

What is an example of naming an insertion mutation?

A

c300insATC (an insertion of three nucleotides within a gene, A, T and C, occuring directly after position c.300)

68
Q

Mutations can be detected by using what?

A

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Gel electrophoresis

Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) analysis

Amplifications refractory mutation system (ARMS)

DNA sequencing

69
Q

What do we need for polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A

Sequencing information

Oligonucleotide primers

DNA

Nucleotides

DNA polymerase

70
Q

What is the process of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A

1) Denaturing (heated to seperate strands)
2) Annealing (cooled to enable DNA primers to attach)
3) Extending (heated and new strand of DNA made by DNA polymerase)
4) Repeated 20 to 40 times, doubling the amount of DNA each time

71
Q

What does gel electrophoresis do and how?

A

Seperates DNA fragments by size

It does this by applying an electric field, and because DNA is negatively charged it moves through the agrose gel mix

72
Q

What are the advantages of PCR?

A

Speed

Ease of use

Sensitive

Robust

73
Q

What can PCR be used for?

A

DNA cloning

DNA sequencing

In vitro mutagenesis

Gene identification

Gene expression studies

Forensic medicine

Typing genetic markers

Detection of mutations

74
Q

How does amplification refractory mutation system (ARMS) work?

A

1) Uses constitutive primer which may be a normal primer or a mutant primer
2) If the DNA is that which is expected the normal primer will cause amplification and the mutant primer will not because the bases will not pair

75
Q

What are the advantages of ARMS?

A

Cheap

Labelling not required

76
Q

What are the disadvantages of ARMS?

A

Need sequence information

Limited amplification size

Limited amount of product

Infidelity of DNA replication

Electrophoresis required

Primer design critical

77
Q

What is restriction endonucleases?

A

Enzymes from bacterial cells that degrade the DNA of invading viruses

Recognise specific DNA sequences, usually 4 to 8 base pairs and always cut DNA at the same site

78
Q

What are advantages of restriction endonucleases?

A

Simple

Cheap

Non-radioactive

79
Q

What are disadvantages of restriction endonucleases?

A

Requires gel electrophoresis

Not always feasible

80
Q

What is DNA sequencing?

A

A chain termination method that uses dideoxynucleotides

81
Q

What are advantages of DNA sequencing?

A

Gold standard for mutation detection

Automation and high throughput

Fast (18 billion base paires in 4 days, 6 human genomes)

82
Q

What are disadvantages of DNA sequencing?

A

Poor quality sequence read

Expensive equipment

83
Q

What should you consider when deciding what detection method you should use?

A

Direct test

Quick and easy

Cheap

Sensitivity

Specificity

ME2019 PART 2 (45 decks)

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