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Flashcards in My Mock Registry Deck (926)
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1
Q

What is a normal pulse rate for a healthy adult

A

60-100 beats/minute

2
Q

Systolic blood pressure corresponds with the contraction of which chamber of the heart

A

Left ventricle contraction

3
Q

What is a normal blood pressure

A

120/80 or less

4
Q

Diastolic blood pressure corresponds to

A

Ventricular diastole or ventricular relaxation

5
Q

Initial electrical impulse in the heart is generated by the

A

Sinus node

6
Q

An elevated ST segment on an EKG indicates what

A

Myocardial infarction

7
Q

Which reasons might a patient’s pulse ox reading fall below 90%

A

Sleep apneaPoorly placed oximetry sensorChronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseCardiac arrest

8
Q

Which aspect of the EKG rhythm strip represents the electrical conduction through the atria of the heart

A

P segment (the first little bump)

9
Q

Which aspect of the EKG rhythm strips represents the electrical activity of the ventricles during diastole e

A

T segment(small little bump at the end)

10
Q

Normal range for BUN

A

7-21 mg/dL

11
Q

What factors can cause creatinine levels to fluctuate

A

AgeMuscle massHydrationGender

12
Q

Which tests are used for renal function

A

BUNCreatinineGFR

13
Q

Which tests are hematology tests

A

HematocritHemoglobinPlateletsWBC

14
Q

What tests are coagulation tests

A

PT (Prothrombin time)PTT (Partial thromboplastin time)INR (International standardized ratio)ACT (activated coagulation time)

15
Q

What is the normal range for creatinine

A

0.7-1.5mg/dL

16
Q

What is the normal GFR range

A

90-120

17
Q

A GFR below 90 would indicate what

A

Poor renal function

18
Q

A GFR below 30 would indicate

A

Potential renal failure

19
Q

A BUN over 50 would indicate

A

Potential renal failure

20
Q

A creatinine over 2 indicates what

A

Potential renal failure

21
Q

What factors are used to calculate a patient’s GFR

A

Creatinine levelAgeGender

22
Q

What represents the amount of red blood cells in whole blood

A

Hematocrit

23
Q

Which lab tests may help to indicate if a patient has anemia

A

HemoglobinHematocrit

24
Q

Which lab tests May indicate bleeding or blood loss

A

HematocritHemoglobin

25
Q

What lab test may indicate a patient’s potential for bleeding

A

Platelet countPTTPTINRACT

26
Q

What is a normal hemoglobin range for males

A

14-17

27
Q

What is a normal hemoglobin range for females

A

12-15

28
Q

A software program that allows for digital documentation of all patient health information

A

EHR

29
Q

This system has replaced hard copy and film storage systems in most Radiology departments

A

PACS

30
Q

“Meaningful use” is a set of electronic medical records standards as governed by

A

Center for Medicare and Medicaid services (CMS)

31
Q

An information-sharing system unique to the diagnostic imaging department is identified as

A

RIS

32
Q

The acronym PACS stands for

A

Picture archiving and communication system

33
Q

A PACS program consists of what three things

A

Storage deviceDisplay workstationImaging modality

34
Q

The acronym RIS stands for

A

Radiology information system

35
Q

Definitions for appropriate sharing of personally identified health information is largely provided by

A

Health insurance portability and accountability Act (HIPAA)

36
Q

Define embolism

A

Anything blocking a vessel

37
Q

Define thrombus

A

Clotting within a vessel

38
Q

Define thrombotic embolism

A

Condition in which the formation or movement of a thrombus occludes a vessel causing infarction of the tissues being supplied by the vessel

39
Q

Define CVA

A

A critical condition in which a thrombus in the brain causes irreversible damage to brain cells

40
Q

Define TIA

A

Focal cerebral ischemia not associated with permanent cerebral infarction

41
Q

How long do the symptoms of a TIA typically last

A

Less than 1 hour

42
Q

Which of the following terms are synonymousIschemic strokeTransient ischemic attackCerebral infarctCerebrovascular accident

A

Ischemic strokeCerebral infarctCerebrovascular accident

43
Q

Which signs/symptoms are often associated with CVA

A

Acute confusionPermanent brain infarctionAcute dysphasiaUnilateral weakness

44
Q

Define cardiogenic shock

A

A physiologic state in which inadequate tissue perfusion results from cardiac dysfunction

45
Q

Define myocardial infarction

A

Irreversible necrosis of heart muscle secondary to prolonged ischemia

46
Q

Define congestive heart failure

A

A clinical syndrome in which the heart fails to pump blood at the rate required by the metabolizing tissues

47
Q

Define cardiac tamponade

A

A clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space

48
Q

Which of these compensatory mechanisms are associated with CHFIncreased blood volumeIncreased cardiac filling pressureDecreased heart rateDecreased myocardial mass

A

Increased blood volumeIncreased cardiac filling pressure

49
Q

Which of the following is a critical cardiac arrhythmiaVentricular tachycardiaAtrial fibrillationVentricular fibrillationAsystole

A

Ventricular tachycardiaVentricular fibrillationAsystole

50
Q

Which of these cardiac conditions can cause inadequate ventricular filling in the presence of a healthy myocardiumMyocardial infarctionCongestive heart failureCardiogenic shockCardiac tamponade

A

Cardiac tamponade

51
Q

Which of these conditions typically occurs secondary to myocardial infarctionCardiogenic shockCardiac tamponadeCongestive heart failureTransient ischemic attack

A

Cardiogenic shock

52
Q

Which of these conditions is caused by a thrombus in the coronary arteriesCongestive heart failureCardiac tamponadeMyocardial infarctionCardiogenic shock

A

Myocardial infarction

53
Q

Which of the following can cause respiratory arrestTraumaAirway obstructionRespiratory muscle weaknessDecreased respiratory drive

A

All of them

54
Q

Which of the following are clinical signs of anaphylaxisHypertensionAirway edemaVasoconstrictionMucus secretions

A

Airway edemaMucus secretions

55
Q

Hypotension and hypertension are always secondary to other clinical conditions true or false

A

False

56
Q

Which of the following could potentially cause a vasovagal responseAnxietyFearMedicationsPain

A

All of them

57
Q

Which of the following are considered common vasovagal responsesFaintingSpontaneous arrhythmiasSyncopeDeath

A

FaintingSyncope

58
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the intended effect of contrast agent administration in medical imagingEnhance tissue discriminationDifferentiate between normal tissuesDifferentiate between normal tissues and abnormalitiesStimulate physiological response in abnormal tissues

A

Enhanced issue discriminationDifferentiate between normal tissuesDifferentiate between normal tissues and abnormalities

59
Q

Tissue differentiation in sonography imaging is based on

A

Tissue harmonics

60
Q

Tissue differentiation in MRI imaging is based on

A

Variable nuclear resonance

61
Q

Tissue differentiation in Interventional Imaging is based on

A

Differential attenuation of the radiation beam

62
Q

Tissue differentiation in a computed tomography is based on

A

Differential attenuation of the radiation beam

63
Q

Which of these materials would be correctly described as paramagneticIodineAirMicrobubblesIron

A

Iron

64
Q

Differential ultrasonic imaging may be enhanced with what type of contrast

A

Microbubbles

65
Q

Describe what effect a non-toxic contrast agent has on the body

A

Unless it’s minimal adverse effects in the body

66
Q

Describe what effect a stable contrast agent has on the body

A

Does not break down in the body

67
Q

Describe what effect an inert contrast agent has on the body

A

Does not readily react with other chemicals or medications

68
Q

Describe what effect contrast agent specificity has on the body

A

Engages only the organs or tissues it is intended to affect

69
Q

A contrast material requiring a large volume injection to produce the necessary image contrast would be described as having poor

A

Carrier efficiency

70
Q

The harmonic qualities of tissues and materials is a physical characteristic most relevant to which imaging modality

A

Sonography

71
Q

The administration of a gadolinium nanoparticle for an MRI procedure would have the most pronounced effect on which aspect of the digital imageSpatial resolutionTemporal resolutionContrast resolutionDigital matrix size

A

Contrast resolution

72
Q

A patient in your department is injected with an iodonated contrast material. Which of these reactions would be described as a normal, non-idiosyncratic response to the contrast agentSensations of warmthPersistent vomitingPulmonary edemaScattered urticaria

A

Sensations of warmth

73
Q

Mild palpitations, tachycardia, and bradycardia are all symptoms of which level of contrast reactionNon-idiosyncratic ModerateMildSevere

A

Moderate

74
Q

With which of these symptoms of a contrast reaction to the administration of contrast be stopped immediatelyLaryngeal edemaBronchospasmHivesDizziness

A

All of them

75
Q

Define diaphoresis

A

Sweating

76
Q

Define urticaria

A

Hives

77
Q

Define pruritus

A

Itching

78
Q

Define rhinorrhea

A

Runny nose

79
Q

Define retching

A

Dry heaving

80
Q

Define laryngeal edema

A

Throat swelling

81
Q

The imager’s response to a contrast reaction should includeCall for nursing and physician on staffHave contrast reaction kit and O2 mask on handAcquire vital signsBe prepared to call a code blue if necessary

A

All of them

82
Q

A patient presented to your department has a regular bowel incontinence and has an accident on the examination table it was later determined that patient has c-diff as a consequence of inadequate cleaning of the exam table at least one other patients can do later in the day develops the same infection this type of infection is referred to as

A

Nosocomial

83
Q

Acquiring an infectious agent while bathing a patient is what kind of transmission

A

Direct contact

84
Q

Influenza requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Droplet isolation

85
Q

Acquiring an infectious agent through the hospital ventilation system is what kind of transmission

A

Airborne

86
Q

Another word for aseptic technique

A

Sterile technique

87
Q

What procedure is focused on the absence of pathogenic organisms but does not require items to be sterile

A

Medical asepsis

88
Q

Procedures including hand washing, routine equipment cleaning, and proper personal hygiene are considered

A

Medical asepsis

89
Q

What procedures should be followed any time the patient’s skin is intentionally perforated

A

Sterile technique

90
Q

What procedures should be used during procedures involving entry into the peritoneal cavity

A

Sterile technique

91
Q

Another term for “clean technique”

A

Medical asepsis

92
Q

What procedure is required during IV catheter insertion

A

Sterile technique

93
Q

Which of the following applies to a patient with standard precautionsHand hygieneSafe injection practicesUse of personal protective equipmentRespiratory hygiene/cough edicate

A

All of them

94
Q

Which of the following is a transmission based infection precautionContact isolationDroplet isolationStandard precautionAirborne isolation

A

Contact isolationDroplet isolationAirborne isolation

95
Q

What isolation precaution is applicable to a patient with an infectious condition that may be transmitted through skin-to-skin contact

A

Contact isolation

96
Q

Which precaution is most relevant when a patient care is an infectious agent that can be carried by sputum droplets through the air

A

Droplet isolation

97
Q

Pneumonia requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Droplet isolation

98
Q

Meningitis requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Droplet isolation

99
Q

What type of isolation precaution is used for all patients at all times

A

Standard precautions

100
Q

Which type of isolation precautions require special air handling units

A

Airborne isolation

101
Q

Tuberculosis requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Airborne isolation

102
Q

What type of isolation precaution is most relevant when infectious agents can be suspended in air for long periods of time over long distances

A

Airborne isolation

103
Q

MRSA requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Contact isolation

104
Q

C-diff requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Contact isolation

105
Q

Acquiring an infectious agent by touching a contaminated door handle is what kind of transmission

A

Indirect contact

106
Q

876 year old female is brought to your department for imaging of the abdomen. The patient is in contact isolation for MRSA. To avoid transmitting this infection to other patients you shouldShut down the room after the patients departureWash your hands after the procedureWear a fitted surgical mask during the examinationDisinfect any equipment used for imaging

A

Wash your hands after the procedureDisinfect and equipment used for imaging

107
Q

Which precaution is most relevant when infectious agents may be spread through a contaminated EKG machine

A

Contact isolation

108
Q

VRE requires what kind of isolation precaution

A

Contact isolation

109
Q

What type of precaution is the most relevant when a patient care is an infectious agent that may be spread through talking, sneezing, or coughing

A

Droplet isolation

110
Q

You receive a requisition in your department to complete an imaging procedure of a patient’s lower extremity. This patient has VRE. An appropriate way of minimizing potential infection to other patients in this situation isPerform the exam portably in the patient’s roomWear a mask during the examinationRequest the patient wears a mask during the examinationPerform the exam in a negative pressure room

A

Perform the exam portably in the patient’s room

111
Q

Reusing gloves between patients is most likely to result in what kind of infection transmissionInfluenzaC-diffMeningitisPneumonia

A

C-diff

112
Q

What factors potentially affect the human body’s response to a medication

A

Patient weightPatient immune statusPatient genderPatient age

113
Q

Define duration of action

A

The time during which the drug is in the body and elicits a therapeutic response

114
Q

Define onset of action

A

The point at which a drug reaches its intended effect

115
Q

Define maximum Peak

A

This is when a drug reaches its highest potential and begins to subside

116
Q

Define antagonist

A

A drug or natural substance that is attracted to and blocks specific receptor sites

117
Q

Define therapeutic index (TI)

A

A measure of the relative safety of a drug

118
Q

Define drug receptors

A

Specific biologic sites located on a cell surface or within the cell

119
Q

Define Agonist

A

A drug or natural substance with an attraction to a specific receptor site that produces a physiologic response

120
Q

Which of the following represents the most desirable therapeutic index10:11:12:1200:1

A

200:1

121
Q

Define narcotic

A

Opium-based or opium-like pain relievers

122
Q

Define analgesic

A

Pain relievers

123
Q

Define sedatives

A

A drug that calms anxiety

124
Q

Define antibiotics

A

A soluble substance derived from a mold or bacteria that kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms

125
Q

Define anxiolytics

A

An anti-anxiety medication

126
Q

Define antiemetic

A

A drug that prevents or minimizes nausea and vomiting

127
Q

Define anticoagulant

A

A drug that prevents or reduces the coagulation of blood

128
Q

Define vasoconstrictors

A

A drug causing increased blood pressure

129
Q

Define anti-arrhythmic

A

A medication that may prevent tachycardia

130
Q

Define thrombolytics

A

A clot dissolving medication

131
Q

Define vasodilators

A

A drug causing relaxation and opening of blood vessels

132
Q

What drug classification do calcium channel blockers fall under

A

Anti-arrhythmic

133
Q

What drug classification does epinephrine fall under

A

Vasoconstrictor

134
Q

What drug classification does Xanax fall under

A

Anxiolytic

135
Q

What drug classification does tPA fall under

A

Thrombolytic

136
Q

What drug classification does Zofran fall under

A

Antiemetic

137
Q

What drug classification does fentanyl fall under

A

Narcotic

138
Q

What drug classification does Valium fall under

A

Sedative

139
Q

What drug classification does tetracycline fall under

A

Antibiotic

140
Q

What drug classification does Coumadin fall under

A

Anticoagulant

141
Q

What drug classification does aspirin fall under

A

AntiplateletAnalgesicAnticoagulant

142
Q

What drug classification does morphine fall under

A

Narcotic

143
Q

Which of these drugs is known to increase heart rate, constrict blood vessels, dilate air passages, and stimulate the sympathetic nervous responseBenadrylOxygenAlbuterolEpinephrine

A

Epinephrine

144
Q

Which of these medications might be valuable to a patient having a respiratory reaction to ICMAtropineAlbuterolAtenololOxygen

A

AlbuterolOxygen

145
Q

Which of these medications function as an immunosuppressant to counteract hives and/or itchingEpinephrineSolu-MedrolBenadrylAtropine

A

BenadrylSolu-Medrol

146
Q

Which of these medications would be valuable to a patient experiencing hypotension or bradycardia during and medication reactionBenadrylAtropineVersedEpinephrine

A

EpinephrineAtropine

147
Q

What medication types. The body’s inflammatory response to iodinated contrastDiazepamSolu-MedrolEpinephrineBenadryl

A

Solu-MedrolBenadryl

148
Q

Which of these medications would be useful to a patient experiencing acute dyspnea? (choose all correct) Epinephrine Albuterol Zofran Oxygen

A

Epinephrine Albuterol Oxygen

149
Q

A patient with atrial fibrillation is prone to ischemia stroke as a result of blood thrombi formed in the heart and deposited in the cerebrum. Examples of medications that may reduce the risk of stroke for this patient are: (choose all correct) warfarin epinephrine diazepam heparin

A

warfarin heparin

150
Q

A patient with severe pulmonary edema is brought to your department for an examination of the lungs. A patient with this condition is likely to be on which of these medications? Atropine Lasix Normal saline Epinephrine

A

Lasix

151
Q

CT angiography of the heart is sometimes performed prior to ablation procedures in patients with atrial fibrillation. Which of these medications may help to stabilize the rhythm of the heart during the CT angiography study? Antibiotic Antiemetic Narcotic Beta-blocker

A

Beta-blocker

152
Q

Describe deep sedation

A

limited response to stimuli

153
Q

Describe general anesthesia

A

requires significant support of vital functions

154
Q

Describe anxiolysis sedation

A

relaxes patient and reduced anxiety

155
Q

Describe conscious sedation

A

patient follows specific instructions

156
Q

Which of these medications are likely to be used together for sedation and analgesia during a radiology procedure? (choose all correct) midazolam hydromorphone morphine fentanyl

A

midazolamfentanyl

157
Q

When should vital signs be assessed for a patient scheduled for an interventional procedure requiring some level of sedation? (choose all correct) after the procedure before the procedure only during deep sedation during the procedure

A

after the procedure before the procedure during the procedure

158
Q

T/F: All contrast media is potentially harmful and should be used knowledgeably.

A

True

159
Q

T/F: Intravascular contrast media administration is performed under the supervision of a licensed physician.

A

True

160
Q

T/F: Technical and nursing personnel injecting contrast media must be knowledgeable in the recognition of, and able to assist in the treatment of any adverse reaction.

A

True

161
Q

T/F: Literature in the MRI community and manufacturer recommendations lists the dosage of intravenous gadolinium chelate contrast to be 0.1 mmol/kg of body weight.

A

True

162
Q

T/F: Any and all adverse events, incidents or “near incidents” that occur pertaining to MR safety are to be reported to the MRI Medical Director, the MRI Department Supervisor or the Radiology Administrator immediately.

A

True

163
Q

T/F: A student may review and sign the MRI screening sheet prior to an individual entering the scan room.

A

False

164
Q

T/F: The Medical Director will be involved with the introduction of new policies and procedures as needed with the advancement of technologies and procedures in the MRI environment.

A

True

165
Q

T/F: Zone III – This area is synonymous with the MR scanner room itself.

A

False

166
Q

T/F: Lenz’s Law is an important consideration with non-ferromagnetic objects.

A

True

167
Q

T/F: Having undergone a previous MRI successfully with an implanted device indicates that the device is MRI safe.

A

False

168
Q

T/F: The potential for translational forces (“projectile forces”) exists at any field strength.

A

True

169
Q

T/F: After a quench the patient and personnel should evacuate the area immediately.

A

True

170
Q

Which of the following describe T1 Recovery? (Choose all that apply) Spin lattice relaxationThe time it takes 63% of transverse magnetization to decay in the tissue.Caused by the nuclei giving up their energy to the surrounding environment or lattice.Spin-spin relaxation that results in decay or loss of coherent transverse magnetization.

A

Spin lattice relaxationCaused by the nuclei giving up their energy to the surrounding environment or lattice.

171
Q

What MUST be done prior to anyone entering the scan room? (Select the BEST answer) Pat the patient down for metal objects.A screening sheet must be filled out and in the patient’s chart.The patient must be scanned with the metal detector.The completed screening sheet must be signed by a level II staff member and the patient must be scanned with the metal detector, prior to admittance to the MRI scan room.

A

The completed screening sheet must be signed by a level II staff member and the patient must be scanned with the metal detector, prior to admittance to the MRI scan room.

172
Q

What happens to the alignment of hydrogen protons when placed in an external magnetic field? (Check all that apply) Nothing until an RF pulse is applied.The magnetic moments of the nuclei align with or against the main magnetic field.More nuclei oppose the main magnetic field than line up with the main magnetic field.Slightly more nuclei line up with the main magnetic field than against it.

A

The magnetic moments of the nuclei align with or against the main magnetic field.Slightly more nuclei line up with the main magnetic field than against it.

173
Q

Where do we look up the safety of an implanted device? (Check all that apply) www.MRISafety.comShellock’s reference manualThe manufacturer’s websiteIf we remember that it is a safe implant, there is no need to look it up again.

A

www.MRISafety.comShellock’s reference manualThe manufacturer’s website

174
Q

What effect does the magneto-hemodynamic effect have? Is this a permanent effect? (Check all that apply)Increase in the amplitude of the “R” wave on EKG gating.Increase in the amplitude of the “T” wave on EKG gating.Reversible effect– EKG tracing returns to normal when the patient is removed from the static magnetic field.Permanent effect– EKG tracing continues to show an elevated wave form after the patient has had an MRI exam.

A

Increase in the amplitude of the “T” wave on EKG gating.Reversible effect– EKG tracing returns to normal when the patient is removed from the static magnetic field.

175
Q

What is the gyromagnetic ratio of hydrogen? 21.28 MHz/T 33.8 MHz/T42.57 MHz/T 42.57 MHz/G

A

42.57 MHz/T

176
Q

Select the three components of the magnetic field from those listed below. Static Magnetic Field Faraday’s Field Radiofrequency FieldsTime Varying Magnetic Fields Precessional Frequency Field

A

Static Magnetic Field Radiofrequency FieldsTime Varying Magnetic Fields

177
Q

What are the guidelines for pregnant employees? (Choose all that apply) No changes to pregnant employees work environment in MRI. Everyone knows that MRI doesn’t use radiation.Pregnant employees may enter the scan room, but should leave before scanning begins.Pregnant employees are exempt from scanning and may only do paperwork.Pregnant employees MUST transfer to x-ray once they’ve announced their pregnancy to the MRI department.

A

Pregnant employees may enter the scan room, but should leave before scanning begins.

178
Q

T/F: The gyromagnetic ratio expresses the relationship between the angular momentum and the magnetic moment of each MR active nucleus.

A

True

179
Q

Identify which of the following describe a “fringe field.” (Select all that apply) The stray magnetic field outside the bore of the magnet.An area on the outskirts of the magnet– generally two feet long by three feet wide.Active or passive shielding is used to reduce the size of the fringe field.The fringe field is not confined by walls, floors, or ceilings.

A

The stray magnetic field outside the bore of the magnet.Active or passive shielding is used to reduce the size of the fringe field.The fringe field is not confined by walls, floors, or ceilings.

180
Q

What would you do in the event of a CODE BLUE in MRI? (Select all that apply) Stay with the patient in the scan room until help arrives. Begin CPR.Activate the Code Blue response process (push the Code Blue button)Get the patient out of the scanner and into Zone III; locking the scan room door and monitoring it when other Code Team members arrive

A

Begin CPR.Activate the Code Blue response process (push the Code Blue button)Get the patient out of the scanner and into Zone III; locking the scan room door and monitoring it when other Code Team members arrive

181
Q

What are the two results of resonance? (Choose from the list below) The NMV moves out of alignment and away from B0.The NMV moves into a repeating pattern of /- 100 MHZ.The magnetic momements of hydrogen nuclei move out of phase with each other.The magnetic moments of hydrogen nuclei move into phase with each other.

A

The NMV moves out of alignment and away from B0.The magnetic moments of hydrogen nuclei move into phase with each other.

182
Q

T/F: The “warm zone” in MRI is the scan room itself.

A

False

183
Q

Which of the following best describe spin-lattice relaxation? (Choose all that apply) T2 Decay T1 RecoveryTime it takes 88% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in tissue.Nuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery.

A

T1 RecoveryNuclei give up energy to the surrounding environment, resulting in longitudinal recovery.

184
Q

What makes a nucleus an MR active nucleus? (Select all that apply) Odd mass numbers Atoms with a balanced mass number Nuclei with a net spin or angular momentumNone of the above

A

Odd mass numbers Nuclei with a net spin or angular momentum

185
Q

T/F: We ALWAYS scan pregnant patients with contrast.

A

False

186
Q

T/F: For resonance of hydrogen to occur, RF at EXACTLY the Larmor frequency of hydrogen must be applied.

A

True

187
Q

What are the three types of motion present in an atom? (Select all that apply) Electrons spinning on their own axis. Nuclei spinning around each other.Electrons orbiting the nucleus.The nucleus itself spinning about its own axis.

A

Electrons spinning on their own axis.Electrons orbiting the nucleus.The nucleus itself spinning about its own axis.

188
Q

Identify the two factors that determine which hydrogen nuclei align parallel and which align anti-parallel with the main magnetic field. The strength of the external magnetic fieldHow many nuclei there are in each patient’s body The thermal energy level of the nucleiThe orientation of the patient in the scanner (head first vs. feet first)

A

The strength of the external magnetic field The thermal energy level of the nuclei

189
Q

Which way does the main magnetic field run in permanent magnets? HorizontallyVerticallySide to SideDown the bore of the magnet

A

Vertically

190
Q

What is the terminal velocity of a paperclip at 1.5T? 64 mph55mph40mphNone- not attracted

A

40mph

191
Q

Which of the following describe the purpose of gradients in MRI? (Choose all that apply) Alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion Change thermal equilibrium Spatially encode data Cause electrons to spin on their own axis

A

Alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion Spatially encode data

192
Q

What does SAR stand for?Special Atomic RateStart Atoms RollingSpecific Absorption RateSpecific Atomic Rate

A

Specific Absorption Rate

193
Q

What does the net magnetization vector (NMV) represent? The type of MR active nuclei present The relative number of electrons to protons The atomic number of the nuclei presentThe relative balance of spin-up to spin-down nuclei

A

The relative balance of spin-up to spin-down nuclei

194
Q

Which way does the main magnetic field run in superconducting magnets? Along the bore of the magnet (horizontal)Along the Y-axisVerticallySide to side

A

Along the bore of the magnet (horizontal)

195
Q

What is the best device to use when monitoring a patient’s status in MRI? Blood pressure cuff Pulse ox EKGAuditory monitoring

A

Pulse ox

196
Q

What does the Larmor Equation calculate? The NMVThe precessional frequencyThe gyromagnetic ratio The atomic mass

A

The precessional frequency

197
Q

What is the T2 relaxation time of tissue?[Hint: Think about which axis T2 relaxation is occurring in (longitudinal vs. transverse) and whether T2 relaxation indicates recovery vs. decay.]The time it takes 43% of the longitudinal magnetization to recover in the tissue.The time it takes 63% of the transverse magnetization to recover in the tissue.The time it takes 63% of the longitudinal magnetization to decay in the tissue.The time it takes 63% of the transverse magnetization to decay in the tissue.

A

The time it takes 63% of the transverse magnetization to decay in the tissue.

198
Q

What is another term for T2 Decay? Spin-lattice relaxationSpin-spin relaxationT1 recoveryNMV

A

Spin-spin relaxation

199
Q

How do gradients affect the main magnetic field? (Select all that apply) They add to the main magnetic field They subtract from the main magnetic fieldThey alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion They give the image its shades of gray

A

They add to the main magnetic field They subtract from the main magnetic fieldThey alter the main magnetic field in a linear fashion

200
Q

T/F: Rewinders are gradients that rephase.

A

True

201
Q

Which of the following controls T2* weighting in gradient echo? TETRFlip angleTR and flip angle

A

TE

202
Q

What controls the polarity of a gradient?The steepness of the slice select gradientThe sharpness of the frequency readoutThe direction of the current through the gradient coilThe strength of the main magnetic field

A

The direction of the current through the gradient coil

203
Q

T/F: TR controls T2 weighting.

A

False

204
Q

Which of the following is known as the basic MRI contrast? T1 weightingT2 weightingGray imagingProton density weighting

A

Proton density weighting

205
Q

Choose extrinsic contrast parameters from the list below.T1 Recovery TimeTRProton DensityFlip AngleFlowTEb Value

A

TRFlip AngleTEb Value

206
Q

What are the two extremes of contrast in MRI?T1 RecoveryFatAirWater

A

FatWater

207
Q

T/F: The TE is twice the TAU.

A

True

208
Q

T2* decay is faster than T2 decay since it is a combination of which two of the following effects? T1 decay with spin echoT2 decay itselfDephasing due to magnetic field inhomogeneities*weighting

A

T2 decay itselfDephasing due to magnetic field inhomogeneities

209
Q

Which of the following best describes a T1 weighted image? (Select all that apply) Bright water Bright fat Dark Water Dark Fat

A

Bright fat Dark Water

210
Q

Which of the following statements is true: Spin-spin interactions drive T1 contrastSlow tumbling molecules lead to decreased spin-spin dephasingFast tumbling molecules lead to increased spin-spin dephasing Spin-spin interactions drive T2 contrast

A

Spin-spin interactions drive T2 contrast

211
Q

What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of water at 1T?200 ms500 ms2000 ms2500 ms

A

2500 ms

212
Q

Which of the following items are T1 and T2 relaxation times dependent on? (hint: there are three) How well the molecular tumbling rate matches the Larmor frequency of hydrogenSpin-spin interactions of oxygen atomsHow closely packed the molecules are The inherent energy of the tissueThe number of electrons orbiting the nucleus

A

How well the molecular tumbling rate matches the Larmor frequency of hydrogenHow closely packed the molecules are The inherent energy of the tissue

213
Q

T/F: Intrinsic parameters are those that cannot be changed because they are inherent to the body’s tissues.

A

True

214
Q

To achieve T1 weighting in gradient echo sequences, the flip angle should be ______. LargeSmallNo flip angle should be used

A

Large

215
Q

T/F: Spin echo sequences do not compensate for magnetic field inhomogeneities, while gradient echo sequences do compensate for magnetic field inhomogeneities.

A

False

216
Q

___ controls the amount of T1 weighting. TRTETIPD

A

TR

217
Q

For PD weighting, the TR must be ______. LongShortIntermediateT1

A

Long

218
Q

T/F: Generally speaking, gradient echo sequences are faster than spin echo sequences.

A

True

219
Q

For T2 weighting, the TE must be _____. shortlongintermediatePD

A

long

220
Q

Gradients that dephase are called __________. rewindersweighted spoilersvariable flip angles

A

spoilers

221
Q

The spin echo is created by: The application of a long TE The application of a rewinding gradient A 180 degree RF pulse A rapid TI

A

A 180 degree RF pulse

222
Q

Gradients are used to rephase spins in gradient echo sequences because: The resulting images have less artifact than spin echo images They are faster to apply than an RF pulseThey rephase spins more completely than an RF pulseThey result in images with better contrast resolution

A

They are faster to apply than an RF pulse

223
Q

Which of the following controls T1 weighting in gradient echo? TITEGradient amplitudeTR and flip angle

A

TR and flip angle

224
Q

Saturation results in T1 weighting because: The flip angle used was small so vectors are not pushed beyond the transverse planeOnly occurs when the TR is long as this allows for full recoveryVectors are pushed beyond the transverse plane because they were completely recovered before the RF excitation pulseVectors are pushed beyond the transverse plane as they were incompletely recovered before the RF excitation pulse

A

Vectors are pushed beyond the transverse plane as they were incompletely recovered before the RF excitation pulse

225
Q

T/F: nhomogeneities are areas within the magnetic field that do not exactly match the external magnetic field strength.

A

True

226
Q

What does the phase encoding gradient do? Encode data along the LONG axis of the anatomyEncode data along the DIAGONAL axis of the anatomyEncode data along the SHORT axis of the anatomy Both the DIAGONAL and SHORT axes

A

Encode data along the SHORT axis of the anatomy

227
Q

Which gradient performs slice selection for coronal slices?X gradientY gradientZ gradientAny combination of gradients

A

Y gradient

228
Q

Which gradient performs phase encoding for coronal slices?X gradientY gradientZ gradientAny combination of gradients

A

X gradient

229
Q

When is the slice select gradient switched on during a spin echo pulse sequence? During the rephasing pulse onlyDuring the 90 and 180 degree pulses During the excitation pulse onlyIt is always on during the scan

A

During the 90 and 180 degree pulses

230
Q

To achieve thin slices, do we need a STEEP or SHALLOW slice select slope? STEEPSHALLOW

A

STEEP

231
Q

To achieve THIN slices would we use a narrow or broad transmit bandwidth? NarrowBroad

A

Narrow

232
Q

When is the phase encoding gradient switched on in a pulse sequence? Before the 90 degree excitation pulseUsually just before the application of the 180 degree rephasing pulse Between TRs During the spin echo

A

Usually just before the application of the 180 degree rephasing pulse

233
Q

What does the slope of the frequency encoding gradient determine? (Select all that apply)The size of the anatomy covered along the frequency encoding axisThe 180 degree rephasing pulse The FOV The size of the phase matrix

A

The size of the anatomy covered along the frequency encoding axis The FOV

234
Q

What is another term for the duration of the readout gradient? X gradient Sampling time Z gradient Window of opportunity

A

Sampling time

235
Q

How often must we sample frequencies, according to the Nyquist Theorem? Once per cycleTwice per cycleThree times per cycleLess than once per cycle

A

Twice per cycle

236
Q

What artifact occurs if we sample frequencies less than once per cycle? Zipper Cross talk Cross excitationAliasing

A

Aliasing

237
Q

What is the unit of K space? Inches Radians per meterRadians per centimeterDegrees

A

Radians per centimeter

238
Q

T/F: The phase axis of K space is vertical and is centered in the middle of K space perpendicular to the frequency axis.

A

True

239
Q

Which part of K space do steep phase gradients fill? Outer lines of K space, positive onlyOuter lines of K space, both positive and negativeCentral lines of K space, positive onlyCentral lines of K space, both positive and negative

A

Outer lines of K space, both positive and negative

240
Q

Which part of K space do shallow phase gradients fill? Outer lines of K space, positive onlyOuter lines of K space, both positive and negative Central lines of K space, positive onlyCentral lines of K space, both positive and negative

A

Central lines of K space, both positive and negative

241
Q

T/F: K space is not the image

A

True

242
Q

Which gradient locates signal along the LONG axis of the anatomy? Phase encoding gradient Frequency encoding gradient Slice select gradient Isocenter gradient

A

Frequency encoding gradient

243
Q

T/F: The scan time is the time to fill K space.

A

True

244
Q

T/F: Data in K space are symmetrical.

A

True

245
Q

What kind of information is contributed by data collected in the central lines of K space? (Select all that apply) ResolutionSignalContrast*weighting

A

SignalContrast

246
Q

What kind of information is contributed by data collected in the outer lines of K space?ResolutionSignalContrast*weighting

A

Resolution

247
Q

What controls the polarity of a gradient? The steepness of the slice select gradient The sharpness of the frequency readoutThe direction of the current through the gradient coil The strength of the main magnetic field

A

The direction of the current through the gradient coil

248
Q

T/F: Phase encoding gradient positive fills the bottom half of K space.

A

False

249
Q

Which gradient performs slice selection for sagital slices?X gradientY gradientZ gradientAny combination of gradients

A

X gradient

250
Q

What is another name for the frequency encoding gradient? Phase encoding gradient Short gradient Readout gradient Rephasing gradient

A

Readout gradient

251
Q

Where are the data points collected by the system stored?FFTK spaceFrequency domain42.57 MHz

A

K space

252
Q

During a typical spin echo sequence, there are three gradient applications. In chronological order they are: Phase encoding, Slice select, Frequency encodingSlice select, Phase encoding, Frequency encoding Frequency encoding, Phase encoding, Slice select Slice select, Frequency encoding, Phase encoding

A

Slice select, Phase encoding, Frequency encoding

253
Q

Which gradient lies along the horizontal axis of a typical superconducting MRI system? X gradientY gradientZ gradientW gradient

A

X gradient

254
Q

If a 512 phase matrix is selected, which k-space lines are likely to be filled in a normal acquisition? 0 to 512256 to -256 0 to -512 256, 0 to -255

A

256 to -256

255
Q

Which of the following statements is true? A data point contains frequency encoding information onlyA data point contains phase encoding information onlyA data point contains both phase and frequency informationA data point represents a specific pixel on the image

A

A data point contains both phase and frequency information

256
Q

T/F: A thicker slice has a better SNR than a thinner slice.

A

True

257
Q

Decreasing receive bandwidth by half increases the SNR by how much? 60%40% 1/2 .22

A

40%

258
Q

T/F: A fine matrix is one with a low number of frequency encodings and/or phase encodings, and results in a small number of pixels in the FOV.

A

False

259
Q

Choose three factors that affect the SNR from the list below (there are three factors). Magnetic field strength of the system Proton density of the area under examination The patient’s height and weightReceive bandwidth

A

Magnetic field strength of the system Proton density of the area under examinationReceive bandwidth

260
Q

T/F: A long TE increases SNR and a short TE decreases SNR.

A

False

261
Q

T/F: TR controls the amount of T2 weighting.

A

False

262
Q

Choose the term that best describes “a unit volume of patient tissue” from the list below. Pixel Grayscale value Voxel Slice thickness

A

Voxel

263
Q

Which of the following factors affect scan time during a sequential acquisition? (choose all that apply) TRTEPhase MatrixNEXFrequency Matrix

A

TRPhase MatrixNEX

264
Q

Which of the following factors affect voxel size (choose all that apply)? Slice thickness Number of pixels or matrix Size of the flip angle FOV

A

Slice thickness Number of pixels or matrix FOV

265
Q

T/F: Square pixels ALWAYS provide better spatial resolution than rectangular pixels.

A

True

266
Q

If we double the NEX, what does that do to our scan time? Reduces the scan time by 1/2 Doubles the scan time Reduces the scan time by 1.4 Increases the scan time by 1.4

A

Doubles the scan time

267
Q

Decreasing the phase matrix does which of the following? Decreases SNR Increases spatial resolution Makes the scan shorter Has no effect on scanning

A

Makes the scan shorter

268
Q

Of the following parameters, which would give the best spatial resolution? 256 × 256, 3 mm slice thickness, 12 cm FOV, 1 NEX256 × 128, 8 mm slice thickness, 40 cm FOV, 4 NEX512 × 256, 6 mm slice thickness, 14 cm FOV, 2 NEXNone of the above would give good spatial resolution.

A

256 × 256, 3 mm slice thickness, 12 cm FOV, 1 NEX

269
Q

Of the following parameters, which would give the highest SNR? 256 × 256, 3 mm slice thickness, 12 cm FOV, 1 NEX256 × 128, 8 mm slice thickness, 40 cm FOV, 4 NEX512 × 256, 6 mm slice thickness, 14 cm FOV, 2 NEXNone of the above.

A

256 × 128, 8 mm slice thickness, 40 cm FOV, 4 NEX

270
Q

Increasing the field strength increases SNR because: The flip angle increasesThe NMV increases in size because the high energy population of spins increases The precessional frequency increasesThe NMV increases in size because the low energy population of spins increases

A

The NMV increases in size because the low energy population of spins increases

271
Q

Halving a square FOV reduces the SNR by: 1/21/43/41/8

A

3/4

272
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur when the receive bandwidth is reduced? SNR increases Chemical shift artifact improves Number of slices available decreases TE increases

A

Chemical shift artifact improves

273
Q

Doubling the number of signal averages changes the SNR by how much? × 21/222 √2

A

√2

274
Q

Which of these is a consequence of decreasing the TR from 2500 ms to 500 ms? Scan time decreases T1 weighting decreases Spatial resolution decreases Slice number available increases

A

Scan time decreases

275
Q

Do we achieve greater SNR with a long or a short TR? longshort

A

long

276
Q

Pixel area = __ / matrix size. SNRResolutionFOVGNR

A

FOV

277
Q

Which sequence is considered the gold standard for MR imaging? SSFP Spin EchoGradient Echo Coherent Gradient Echo

A

Spin Echo

278
Q

What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of CSF at 1T? 2000 ms150 ms500 ms3000 ms

A

2000 ms

279
Q

What is the approximate T1 relaxation time of fat at 1T? 2000 ms200 ms500 ms3000 ms

A

200 ms

280
Q

What do T1 images typically best demonstrate? Anatomy Pathology Bright fluid Everything

A

Anatomy

281
Q

What does STIR stand for? Short ___ Inversion Recovery.

A

TautauTAU

282
Q

When would we be most likely to use a STIR sequence? CSF flow studies MSK studies (i.e. knee, wrist)Head or Spine studies (to look for periventricular lesions)All studies must include a STIR sequence

A

MSK studies (i.e. knee, wrist)

283
Q

T/F: FLAIR stands for Fluid Low Attenuation Inversion Recovery

A

False

284
Q

When would we be most likely to use a FLAIR sequence? MSK studies (i.e. knee, wrist)Head or spine studies (to look for periventricular lesions) All studies must include a FLAIR sequence To image the great vessels

A

Head or spine studies (to look for periventricular lesions)

285
Q

How is time reduced in fast spin echo? (Choose all that apply) The operator must prescribe fewer slicesUse a turbo factor Use thinner slices Use an echo train

A

Use a turbo factorUse an echo train

286
Q

What artifact can occur as a result of using long echo trains?Cross talkTruncationImage BlurringAliasing

A

Image Blurring

287
Q

An inversion recovery pulse sequence begins with which of the following? 90 degree RF pulse 180 degree inverting pulse180 rephasing pulse Gradient pulse (variable flip angle)

A

180 degree inverting pulse

288
Q

Which Fast Inversion Recovery sequence(s) do we often use? STIRSSFPFLAIRIncoherent Gradient Echo

A

STIRFLAIR

289
Q

What is Double IR prep used to accomplish? Used to null blood for cardiac imagingFlips the NMV back to zero Imaging large patients FSE sequences

A

Used to null blood for cardiac imaging

290
Q

A coherent gradient echo sequence samples which of the following? FID Only Stimulated Echo Only Both the FID and Stimulated Echo T2 Information Only

A

Both the FID and Stimulated Echo

291
Q

T/F: During EPI all the lines of K space are filled during one repetition.

A

True

292
Q

How is K space filled in Fast Gradient Echo Sequences? (choose all that apply) Elliptical filling Centric filling Keyhole filling Outside to inside

A

Centric filling Keyhole filling

293
Q

In which of the following sequences is all the transverse magnetization rewound at the end of each TR period? Coherent gradient echo Incoherent gradient echoEPI

A

Coherent gradient echo

294
Q

Which of the following statements is true in an incoherent gradient echo sequence? Residual transverse magnetization has the same phase as the magnetization most recently created The flip angle is always 10°The system discriminates between residual and the most recently created transverse magnetization because it has a different phase value It is not a steady state sequence

A

The system discriminates between residual and the most recently created transverse magnetization because it has a different phase value

295
Q

What type of echoes are sampled during SS-FSE? Spin echoes Gradient echoes Incoherent Gradient echoes

A

Spin echoes

296
Q

What are the advantages of propeller K Space filling? Better detailLow SNR but high resolution Bright signalRapid imaging, increased SNR and CNR, reduced motion artifact.

A

Rapid imaging, increased SNR and CNR, reduced motion artifact.

297
Q

T/F: Using a long echo train decreases the SAR.

A

False

298
Q

T/F: STIR sequences should NOT be used in conjunction with contrast enhancement.

A

True

299
Q

T/F: Spin echo pulse sequences are classified according to whether the residual transverse magnetization is in phase (coherent) or out of phase (incoherent).

A

False

300
Q

SSFP sequences usually produce images that are ___ weighted. T1T2T2T1 or T2

A

T2

301
Q

T/F: Parallel imaging is usually used to increase resolution or decrease scan time.

A

True

302
Q

Which artifact is produced as a result of motion of flowing nuclei? Zipper effect Aliasing Phase ghosting Truncation

A

Phase ghosting

303
Q

Which type of motion can we compensate for in MRI? First order laminar flowSecond order motion accelerationThird order motion jerk All of those listed can be compensated for

A

First order laminar flow

304
Q

T/F: TOF phenomenon results in a dark vessel.

A

True

305
Q

Which of the following effects does TOF depend on? (Select all that apply) Velocity of flowTE Slice ThicknessTR

A

Velocity of flowTE Slice Thickness

306
Q

Choose the two main uses of spatial pre-saturation from the list below. (Select all that apply) Chemical Pre-saturationSTIRFLAIRSPIR

A

Chemical Pre-saturationSPIR

307
Q

T/F: Counter current flow occurs when flowing nuclei are traveling in the same direction as slice selection.

A

False

308
Q

Which of the following is/are result(s) of time of flight? (Select all that apply) Flow-related enhancement Entry slice phenomenon High velocity signal void Zipper effect

A

Flow-related enhancement High velocity signal void

309
Q

In a dual echo sequence, which of the following combinations would result in reduced flow artifact in the second echo? TE 20 and 50 ms TE 20 and 70 ms TE 40 and 80 msTE 40 and 95 ms

A

TE 40 and 80 ms

310
Q

What is the chemical shift at 1.5 T? 2.2 Hz22 Hz220 Hz220KHz

A

220Hz

311
Q

T/F: STIR is most useful in post contrast imaging.

A

False

312
Q

T/F: Even echo rephasing reduces intra-voxel dephasing.

A

True

313
Q

T/F: Intra-voxel dephasing results in an increase in total signal amplitude from the voxel.

A

False

314
Q

Stationary nuclei always receive both excitation and rephasing pulses, but flowing nuclei present in the slice for the excitation may have exited the slice before rephasing. This is called ______________. Time of Flight Phenomenon Entry Slice PhenomenonIntra-Voxel Dephasing Turbulent Flow Effects

A

Time of Flight Phenomenon

315
Q

T/F: As velocity of flow decreases, the time of flight effect decreases.

A

True

316
Q

T/F: Another term for time of flight is inflow effect.

A

False

317
Q

Determine which of the following parameters would result in the most entry slice phenomenon (i.e. entry slice phenomenon would increase compared to the other options). Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness Slice 1 out of 20, 400 TR, 1.2 mm slice thicknessSlice 10 out of 20, 3000 TR, 1.2 mm slice thickness Slice 10 out of 20, 400 TR, .7 mm slice thickness

A

Slice 1 of 20, 3000 TR, .7 mm slice thickness

318
Q

T/F: Flow affects image quality.

A

True

319
Q

The frequency difference between fat and water is called ___________ and can be used to specifically null the signal from either fat or water. Chemical Pre-Saturation Chemical Shift Precessional Frequency Even Echo Rephasing

A

Chemical Shift

320
Q

T/F: Any tissue can be nulled as long as an RF pulse matching its precessional frequency is applied to the imaging volume before excitation.

A

True

321
Q

T/F: Pre-saturation techniques increase the RF deposition to the patient.

A

True

322
Q

What is another term for phase ghosting?Phase wrapPhase mismappingChemical misregistraionAliasing

A

Phase mismapping

323
Q

What is another term for phase ghosting?Phase wrapPhase mismappingChemical misregistraionAliasing

A

Phase mismapping

324
Q

In which direction does phase ghosting occur? (Choose all applicable)Phase AxisFrequency AxisSlice Select AxisAnterior to Posterior

A

Phase Axis

325
Q

Which of the following are methods of reducing phase ghosting? (Choose all that apply)Using respiratory compensation techniquesDecrease the TECarefully explain the procedure to the patientSwap phase and frequencyUse pre-saturation pulsesUse “no phase wrap” software

A

Using respiratory compensation techniquesCarefully explain the procedure to the patientSwap phase and frequencyUse pre-saturation pulses

326
Q

In which direction does aliasing occur? (Choose all that apply)Phase AxisFrequency AxisSlice Select AxisAnterior to Posterior

A

Phase AxisFrequency Axis

327
Q

Which of the following is a remedy for aliasing?Decreasing the slice thicknessDecreasing the size of the FOVDecreasing the TEUsing “no phase wrap” software

A

Using “no phase wrap” software

328
Q

Which of the following best describes the appearance of chemical shift artifact on an image?Extra information wraps into the imageThe cancellation of fat and water signals when they are out of phase.Banding artifact at the interfaces of high and low signal.Produces a dark edge at the interface between fat and water.

A

Produces a dark edge at the interface between fat and water.

329
Q

In which direction does chemical shift artifact occur? (Choose all that apply)Phase AxisFrequency AxisSlice Select AxisAnterior to Posterior

A

Frequency Axis

330
Q

What unit is used to express the amount of chemical shift?MHz Hz ppm gyromagnetic ratio

A

ppm

331
Q

What is another name for a truncation artifact in a sagital cervical spine?TruncationGyromagnetic ArtifactGibbsFaraday

A

Gibbs

332
Q

How can we reduce truncation? Increase the TEIncrease the TRIncrease the number of phase encoding stepsIncrease the number of frequency encoding steps

A

Increase the number of phase encoding steps

333
Q

In which direction does truncation occur? (Choose all that apply)Phase AxisFrequency AxisSlice Select AxisAnterior to Posterior

A

Phase Axis

334
Q

Which best describes the appearance of a zipper artifact?Distortion of the image together with large signal voids.Anatomy folded into the FOVA dense line on the image at a specific point.Tissues return a high signal intensity

A

A dense line on the image at a specific point.

335
Q

Which best describes the appearance of a zipper artifact?Distortion of the image together with large signal voids.Anatomy folded into the FOVA dense line on the image at a specific point.Tissues return a high signal intensity

A

A dense line on the image at a specific point.

336
Q

Which of the following is a possible cause of shading artifact?A hemorrhageA leak in the RF shielding of the scan roomSpin echo sequencesInhomogeneities in the main magnetic field

A

Inhomogeneities in the main magnetic field

337
Q

Which of the following best describes Moire artifact?Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOVFat and water are out of phase and their signals cancel each other out.Different chemical environments of fat and water produce a dark edge at the interface between fat and water.Anatomy from outside the FOV are wrapped into the image.

A

Black and white banding artifact on the edge of the FOV

338
Q

T/F: To reduce chemical shift artifact, ALWAYS use the widest receive bandwidth in keeping with good SNR and the smallest FOV possible.

A

True

339
Q

T/F: To reduce chemical shift artifact, ALWAYS use the widest receive bandwidth in keeping with good SNR and the smallest FOV possible.

A

True

340
Q

In spin echo sequences using a pre-saturation pulse, what would persistent bright signal within the vessel indicate?Slow Flowing BloodFast Flowing BloodBlood ClotVascular Occlusion

A

Slow Flowing BloodBlood ClotVascular Occlusion

341
Q

Which of the following best describes what the “P” wave represents?Atrial Systole (Contraction)Ventricular SystoleVentricular DiastoleNone of the above

A

Atrial Systole (Contraction)

342
Q

Which of the following best describes what the “QRS” complex represents?Atrial Systole (Contraction)Ventricular SystoleVentricular Diastole (Relaxation)None of the above

A

Ventricular Systole

343
Q

Which of the following best describes what the “T” wave represents?Atrial Systole (Contraction)Ventricular SystoleVentricular Diastole (Relaxation)None of the above

A

Ventricular Diastole (Relaxation)

344
Q

Which of the following sequence(s)/technique(s) can be used to make vessels appear bright?Gradient Echo ImagingGradient Moment RephasingContrast EnhancementAll of the above

A

All of the above

345
Q

Which of the following is used to trigger each pulse sequence when using ECG gating?P waveQ waveR waveS wave

A

R wave

346
Q

How much does a typical patient’s heart rate vary during an exam?10- 20 %20- 30%40- 50%60- 70%

A

10- 20 %

347
Q

If the R to R interval is 500 ms, the trigger window is 10%, and the trigger delay is 50 ms, what is the time available to acquire data?310 ms400 ms460 ms500 ms

A

400 ms

348
Q

If the R to R interval is 500 ms, the trigger window is 10%, and the trigger delay is 50 ms, what is the time available to acquire data?310 ms400 ms460 ms500 ms

A

400 ms

349
Q

What determines the length of the R to R interval?The technologist performing the examThe radiologist who establishes the protocolThe patient’s heart rateThe type of sequence

A

The patient’s heart rate

350
Q

What is the waiting period before each R wave called?Trigger WindowTrigger DelayR to R IntervalAvailable Imaging Time

A

Trigger Window

351
Q

T/F: ECG gating is prospective.

A

True

352
Q

When using MRA to evaluate intracranial vascularity, flow within smaller vessels can best be demonstrated by:2D Time of Flight MRA3D Time of Flight MRA3D Phase Contrast MRAAll of the Above

A

3D Time of Flight MRA

353
Q

When using MRA to evaluate intracranial vascularity, flow within smaller vessels can best be demonstrated by:2D Time of Flight MRA3D Time of Flight MRA3D Phase Contrast MRAAll of the Above

A

3D Time of Flight MRA

354
Q

MRA techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:TOF-MRAPC-MRACE-MRACT-MRA

A

CT-MRA

355
Q

Which of the following does NOT reduce flow motion artifact?SATECG gatingGMNSubtraction

A

Subtraction

356
Q

Which of the following can be used to improve coverage and at the same time maintain the signal from blood flowing within the larger volume?MC-TOFPC-MRAMOTSAPhase images

A

MOTSA

357
Q

The vascular signal, produced on time of flight MRA (TOF-MRA), relies on:MOTAPCFlow related enhancementVelocity-induced phase shifts

A

Flow related enhancement

358
Q

The vascular signal, produced on PC-MRA, relies on:MOTAPCFlow related enhancementVelocity-induced phase shifts

A

Velocity-induced phase shifts

359
Q

Contrast enhanced MRAs are acquired with all of the following EXCEPT:Test bolusBolus trackingVENC settingsFluoro triggering

A

VENC settings

360
Q

Contrast enhanced MRAs are acquired with all of the following EXCEPT:Test bolusBolus trackingVENC settingsFluoro triggering

A

VENC settings

361
Q

Multiphase images, acquired with additional modulation of magnetization, are known as:TOF-MRAPC-MRAVENCSPAMM

A

SPAMM

362
Q

What is the available imaging time using these parameters? R to R 800 ms, trigger window 10%, delay after trigger 4 ms.688 ms700 ms716 ms800 ms

A

716 ms

363
Q

When using MRA to evaluate peripheral vascular flow, such as that within the arteries of the legs, saturation pulses are:Placed superior to the acquired slicesPlaced in the acquired slicesPlaced inferior to the acquired slicesNot necessary

A

Placed inferior to the acquired slices

364
Q

When using MRA to evaluate extracranial vascular flow, such as that within common carotid arteries, a recommended technique is:2D time of flight MRA3D time of flight MRA3D phase contrast MRAAll of the above

A

2D time of flight MRA

365
Q

When using MRA to evaluate extracranial vascular flow, such as that within common carotid arteries, a recommended technique is:2D time of flight MRA3D time of flight MRA3D phase contrast MRAAll of the above

A

2D time of flight MRA

366
Q

Magnetic field strength can be expressed in units of Tesla (T) or gauss (G), where:1 T = 1 G1.5 T = 1500 G3.0 T = 0.3 G1 T = 10 000 G

A

1 T = 10 000 G

367
Q

The homogeneity of a magnetic field is expressed in units of:ppm (parts per million)T (Tesla)G (gauss)MHz (megaHertz)

A

ppm (parts per million)

368
Q

The homogeneity of a magnetic field is expressed in units of:ppm (parts per million)T (Tesla)G (gauss)MHz (megaHertz)

A

ppm (parts per million)

369
Q

Gradient strength is expressed in units of all of the following EXCEPT:w/kgmT/mG/cmT/m/s

A

w/kg

370
Q

Gradient strength is expressed in units of all of the following EXCEPT:w/kgmT/mG/cmT/m/s

A

w/kg

371
Q

Passive magnetic shielding can be accomplished by lining the scan room walls with:CopperLeadSteelShim plates

A

Steel

372
Q

Fourier transform (FT) is a mathematical process that is used to convert MR signal from a FID into a spectrum. FT occurs in the:Image processorArray processorRF coilGradient amplifier

A

Array processor

373
Q

What rule determines the direction of current flow through a coil, and the direction of the magnetic field that the current produces?The size of the magnetic fieldRight hand thumb ruleMRI Fringe Field RuleWhether you are using an open or closed configuration

A

Right hand thumb rule

374
Q

What is the maximum field strength allowed for clinical imaging of adults in the USA?3 T4 T8 T10 T

A

8 T

375
Q

T/F: The purpose of magnetic field shimming is to reduce the size of the fringe field.

A

False

376
Q

What is the most common material used to make permanent magnets?TitaniumHeliumIronAlnico

A

Alnico

377
Q

Ohm’s law states:B = k (l)V = I (R)B = H (1 x)1 T = 10 kG

A

V = I (R)

378
Q

T/F: The law of electromagnetic induction indicates that whenever a charge particle such as an electron exhibits motion, a corresponding magnetic field is induced.

A

True

379
Q

Which cryogen is commonly used to super cool wires in MRI?Liquid heliumNiobiumAlnicoHydrogen

A

Liquid helium

380
Q

Which material is most commonly used to make superconducting wires?Liquid heliumNiobium-titanium alloyAlnicoHydrogen

A

Niobium-titanium alloy

381
Q

Why do we use shimming?To apply a magnetic fieldTo make the field even or homogenousTo make the magnetic field smallerTo induce a current

A

To make the field even or homogenous

382
Q

Select all of the following that determine the strength of an electromagnet:The amount of current passed through the windingsThe number of windings in the coilThe distance or spacing between the windingsThe diameter of the wire used in the windings

A

All of the above

383
Q

In a typical superconducting magnet, the direction of the magnetic field is:VerticalHorizontalAround the flux linesHard to measure

A

Horizontal

384
Q

T/F: The SNR is enhanced when using local coils.

A

True

385
Q

T/F: The SNR is enhanced when using local coils.

A

True

386
Q

What does BOLD stand for?Blood oxygenation level dependentBlood oxygen line developedBody oriented level dependentType of CT scanning

A

Blood oxygenation level dependent

387
Q

Functional imaging techniques include which of the following (check all that apply)?DWIfMRISpectroscopyPerfusion imaging

A

All of the above

388
Q

T/F: Functional imaging techniques allow MRI to be used to assess function and physiology as opposed to merely conventional structural imaging.

A

True

389
Q

What term is used to describe the net displacement of diffusion spins across a tissue?SWI fMRIADC MRS

A

ADC

390
Q

What is the extrinsic parameter that controls the amount of diffusion seen in an image?TRTEflip angleb factor

A

b factor

391
Q

What signal intensity is an area of abnormality likely to have on an ADC map?HypointenseHyperintenseIsointense

A

Hypointense

392
Q

What signal intensity is an area of abnormality likely to have on a trace image?HypointenseHyperintenseIsointense

A

Hyperintense

393
Q

T/F: Perfusion is the regional blood flow in tissues and is defined as the volume of blood that flows into one gram of tissue.

A

True

394
Q

Which of the following best describes a use for MR Spectroscopy (MRS)?To show ankle anatomyTo aid in brain tumor stagingTo demonstrate perfusion

A

To aid in brain tumor staging

395
Q

T/F: Interventional MRI includes performing biopsies in the MR suite.

A

True

396
Q

Chemical shift is measured in which of the following units?mm/sppmT/mG/cm

A

ppm

397
Q

T/F: Perfusion is measured using MRI by tagging the fat in arterial blood during image acquisition.

A

False

398
Q

The anatomy of white matter tracts can be mapped using strong multi-directional gradients in which of the following?SWIdiffusion tensor imaging (DTI)continuous arterial spin labeling (CASL)CBV

A

diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)

399
Q

T/F: MR microscopy (MRM) is useful as a research tool when studying detail in a very small area of tissue.

A

True

400
Q

T/F: MR microscopy (MRM) is useful as a research tool when studying detail in a very small area of tissue.

A

True

401
Q

T/F: Gadolinium chelates are ferromagnetic.

A

False

402
Q

After gadolinium administration, it is recommended that which images are acquired?One T1 weighted imageOne T2 weighted imageMultiple T1 weighted imagesMultiple T2 weighted images

A

Multiple T1 weighted images

403
Q

Enhanced MR images are evaluated for sensitivity and specificity, where sensitivity is ________ and specificity is ________.The ability to detect the lesion/the ability to classify the lesionThe ability to classify the lesion/the ability to detect the lesionTE used to evaluate the lesion/TR used to evaluate the lesionTR used to evaluate the lesion/TE used to evaluate the lesion

A

The ability to detect the lesion/the ability to classify the lesion

404
Q

T/F: All gadolinium contrast agents have the same ‘relaxivity’.

A

False

405
Q

Choose all of the following that enhancement agents can be useful in detecting.InfectionTumorsInfarctionInflammation

A

All of the above

406
Q

On a T1 weighted pre-contrast image, fat appears _____ and water appears _____.Bright, DarkBright, BrightDark, BrightDark, Dark

A

Bright, Dark

407
Q

T/F: Scar tissue enhances in the lumbar spine shortly after the injection of contrast.

A

True

408
Q

T/F: Scar tissue enhances in the lumbar spine shortly after the injection of contrast.

A

True

409
Q

Which sequence would be used to best visualize metastatic lesions in the bone?FLAIR with contrastFat saturation techniques with contrastT2 weighted sequencesNon-contrast imaging

A

Fat saturation techniques with contrast

410
Q

T/F: Gadolinium cannot cross the intact blood-brain barrier (BBB).

A

True

411
Q

Gadolinium element is ________ and gadolinium chelate contrast media is ________.Ferromagnetic/paramagneticFerromagnetic/ferromagneticParamagnetic/ferromagneticParamagnetic/paramagnetic

A

Ferromagnetic/paramagnetic

412
Q

T/F: When using gadolinium, the T1 relaxation time of the water is reduced so enhancing lesions (such as tumors associated with free water) appear bright on a T1 weighted image.

A

True

413
Q

Select all of the following that were discussed as possible MR contrast agents in the text.GadoliniumBlueberry juiceMango juiceDilute barium solutions

A

All of the above

414
Q

An axial plane divides the body into _______ and ________ portions.Dorsal and ventralUpper and lowerFront and backRight and left

A

Upper and lower

415
Q

In standard anatomic position, the hands and feet are:Internally RotatedPronatedDorsaflexedForward

A

Forward

416
Q

In standard anatomic position, a sagittal plane is oriented:HorizontallyObliquelyVerticallyAxially

A

Vertically

417
Q

Define Anterior/Ventral

A

Towards the front

418
Q

Define Superior

A

Above

419
Q

Define Posterior/Dorsal

A

Towards the back

420
Q

Define Medial

A

Towards the midline

421
Q

Define Inferior

A

Below

422
Q

Define Lateral

A

Away from midline

423
Q

Define Proximal

A

Towards the origin

424
Q

Define Deep

A

Away from skin/surface

425
Q

Define Cranial/Cephalic

A

Towards the head

426
Q

Define Caudal

A

Towards the feet

427
Q

Define Distal

A

Away from the origin

428
Q

Define Superficial

A

Towards the skin/surface

429
Q

Define Ipsilateral

A

On the same side

430
Q

Define Plantar

A

Bottom of foot

431
Q

Define Contralateral

A

On the opposite side

432
Q

Define Palmar

A

Anterior hand

433
Q

Define Costal Margin

A

L3

434
Q

Define Symphysis Pubis

A

Coccyx

435
Q

Define Mastoid Tip

A

C1

436
Q

Define Umbilicus

A

L3/4

437
Q

Define Iliac Crest

A

L4

438
Q

Define ASIS

A

S1

439
Q

Define Vertabra Prominens

A

C7

440
Q

Define Jugular Notch

A

T2/3

441
Q

Define Sternal Angle

A

T4/5

442
Q

Most of the Stomach is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RLQLLQLUQRUQ

A

LUQ

443
Q

Much of the SB is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RLQLLQLUQRUQ

A

LLQ

444
Q

The appendix is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RUQRLQLLQLUQ

A

RLQ

445
Q

The cecum is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RUQLLQRLQLUQ

A

RLQ

446
Q

The Dorsal cavity is partitioned into what two cavities? (mark all correct)CranialPelvisSpinalMediastinalAbdominal

A

CranialSpinal

447
Q

The elbow is _________ to the shoulder.DeepSuperficialProximalDistal

A

Distal

448
Q

The gallbladder is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?LLQRLQRUQLUQ

A

RUQ

449
Q

The hepatic flexture of the colon is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?LUQRUQRLQLLQ

A

RUQ

450
Q

T/F: The kidneys are oriented deep to the muscles of the abdominal wall.

A

True

451
Q

The lungs are located within which body cavity?All of the aboveDorsalMediastinumPleural

A

Pleural

452
Q

The neck is ________ to the chest.CephalicInferiorCaudalPosterior

A

Cephalic

453
Q

The right and left arms would be referred to as:IpsilateralLateralContralateralMedial

A

Contralateral

454
Q

The sigmoid colon is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?LLQRUQRLQLUQ

A

LLQ

455
Q

The spine is nearest what surface of the body?DorsalRostralVentralAnterior

A

Dorsal

456
Q

The spleen is located within which quadrant of the abdomen?RLQLLQRUQLUQ

A

LUQ

457
Q

The thoracic cavity is further subdivided into what other body cavities? (choose all correct)CranialSpinalPleuralPelvisMediastinal

A

PleuralMediastinal

458
Q

The thymus is located within which body cavity?PleuralMediastinumDorsalAll of the above

A

Mediastinum

459
Q

The thyroid cartilage is at the level of:C3C4C2C5

A

C5

460
Q

The Xiphoid process is at the level of:T12T10T9T11

A

T10

461
Q

Which of the following is the largest cavity of the body?DorsalMediastinumCranialVentral

A

Ventral

462
Q

Which of the following organs is not located within the mediastinum?None of the aboveThyroidHeartGreat Vessels

A

Thyroid

463
Q

Which of these structures are contained within the mediastinum? (choose all correct)ThyroidEsophagusTracheaThymus

A

EsophagusTracheaThymus

464
Q

Which of these structures are contained within the pelvic cavity? (choose all correct)OvariesGonadsKidneysRectum

A

OvariesGonadsRectum

465
Q

A process of the malar bone joins with which bone of the cranium to form the zygomatic arch?TemporalParietalSphenoidFrontal

A

Temporal

466
Q

Internal and external protuberances are processes of what cranial bone?SphenoidParietalEthmoidOccipital

A

Occipital

467
Q

Structures within which portion of the ear also control equilibrium and balance?ExternalTympanic portionMiddleInner

A

Inner

468
Q

The angle of the mandible is also known as the:GonionRamusAlveolar ProcessBody

A

Gonion

469
Q

The bones of the cranium are joined together at immovable joints called:SinusesSuturesSpinesSphenoid

A

Sutures

470
Q

T/F: The boney orbit is formed by several bones including the maxillae, frontal, lacrimal, and ethmoid bones.

A

True

471
Q

The chin is also called the:GonionRamusMentumAcanthion

A

Mentum

472
Q

The cochlea is found in which portion of the ear?InnerMiddleTympanic portionExternal

A

Inner

473
Q

The cranium is comprised of how many bones?22814None of the above

A

8

474
Q

The external and middle ear are separated by the:Eustachian tubeAuricleTympanic membraneEAM

A

Tympanic membrane

475
Q

The external walls of the EAM are formed by which portion of the temporal bone?PetrousSquamousTympanicMastoid

A

Tympanic

476
Q

The foramen ovale provides passage for which of the following?Optic NerveMandibular branch of the trigeminal nerveMaxillary NerveMiddle meningeal artery

A

Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

477
Q

The foramen rotundum provides passage for which of the following?Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerveMaxillary NerveMiddle meningeal arteryOptic Nerve

A

Maxillary Nerve

478
Q

The foramen spinosum provides passage for which of the following?Maxillary NerveOptic NerveMiddle meningeal arteryMandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve

A

Middle meningeal artery

479
Q

The jugular foramen is formed at the junctions of what two bones?Occipital and temporalSphenoid and temporalTemporal and sphenoidTemporal and parietal

A

Occipital and temporal

480
Q

The largest immovable bones of the face are which of the following?MaxillaeMandiblePalatineZygoma

A

Maxillae

481
Q

The mandible and maxillary bones each have which of the following processes?ZygomaticCondylarAlveolarPalatine

A

Alveolar

482
Q

The mandibular condyle articulates with which of the following cranial bones?OccipitalFrontalTemporalParietal

A

Temporal

483
Q

The mastoid air cells are found in which of the following cranial bones?TemporalOccipitalSphenoidEthmoid

A

Temporal

484
Q

The middle and inner ear are formed by which portion of the temporal bones?SquamousPetrousMastoidTympanic

A

Petrous

485
Q

The most superior point of the junction of what two bones is referred to as the vertex of the skull?TemporalParietalSphenoidFrontal

A

Parietal

486
Q

The optic nerve and the ophthalmic artery pass through the optic canals in which cranial bone?ParietalSphenoidOccipitalEthmoid

A

Sphenoid

487
Q

The perpendicular plate of what bone forms the superior portion of the nasal septum?SphenoidEthmoidPalatineVomer

A

Ethmoid

488
Q

The perpendicular plate articulates with which bone to form the boney nasal septum?OccipitalEthmoidVomerSphenoid

A

Vomer

489
Q

The posterior portion of the sella turcica is called the:Dorsum SellaeStyloid ProcessGreater wingsTuberculum Sellae

A

Dorsum Sellae

490
Q

The sphenoid sinus is located below which aspect of the sphenoid bone?Optic CanalSella turcicaLesser wingGreater wing

A

Sella turcica

491
Q

The zygomatic process extends from which portion of the temporal bone?PetrousSquamousTympanicMastoid

A

Squamous

492
Q

What single cranial bone articulated with all other cranial bones?OccipitalEthmoidParietalSphenoid

A

Sphenoid

493
Q

Which aspect of the ear contains the auditory ausicles?InnerExternalMiddleAuricular portion

A

Middle

494
Q

Which boney process within the cranium contains the pituitary gland?Sella TurcicaSphenoid sinusForamen magnumDorsum Sellae

A

Sella Turcica

495
Q

Which of the following is not a process of the Ethmoid bone?Inferior nasal conchaeSuperior nasal conchaeMiddle nasal conchaeCribriform plate

A

Inferior nasal conchae

496
Q

Which of the following is a process of the sphenoid bone? (choose all correct)Sella TurcicaTuberculum SellaeLesser wingsGreater wings

A

All of the above

497
Q

Which of the following is the largest of the facial bones?MaxillaFrontalZygomaMandible

A

Mandible

498
Q

Which of the paranasal sinuses is present at birth?SphenoidFrontalEthmoidMaxillary

A

Maxillary

499
Q

Which of the sinuses is the largest?FrontalEthmoidMaxillarySphenoid

A

Maxillary

500
Q

Which portion of the temporal bone is considered the thickest boney aspect of the cranium?TympanicMastoidSquamousPetrous

A

Petrous

501
Q

All of the venous pathways in the brain ultimately drain into which major vessels of the neck?Internal jugular veinsCommon carotid arteriesInternal carotid arteriesVertebral arteries

A

Internal jugular veins

502
Q

Blood is supplied to the Circle of Willis by way of which of the following? (mark all correct)Basilar arteryCommunicating arteriesInternal CarotidsCerebral arteries

A

Basilar arteryInternal Carotids

503
Q

The basilar artery is formed by the union of what two arteries?Communicating arteriesVertebralsInternal carotidsCerebral arteries

A

Vertebrals

504
Q

The cerebellum communicates with other aspects of the brain by way of which of the following?All of the aboveTentoriumPedunclesVermis

A

Peduncles

505
Q

The cerebral aqueduct of the ventricular system is a passage way for: which of the following?CSFVenous bloodArterial bloodMyelinated axon bodies

A

CSF

506
Q

The cerebrum is connected medially by which of the following structures?VermisInsulaMidbrainCorpus Callosum

A

Corpus Callosum

507
Q

The fold of the dura mater extending into the longitudinal fissure is termed the:Falx CerebelliInferior Sagittal SinusSuperior Sagittal SinusFalx Cerebri

A

Falx Cerebri

508
Q

The folds of the brain’s surface may be referred to as:SinusesFissuresSulciGyri

A

Gyri

509
Q

The lobes of the cerebellum are connected medially by which of the following structures?VermisCorpus CallosumInsulaMidbrain

A

Vermis

510
Q

The lobes of the cerebellum are connected medially by way of the:Cerebral CortexInsulaVermisCorpus Callosum

A

Vermis

511
Q

The longitudinal fissure separates which aspects of the brain?Cerebral and CerebellarRight and Left Cerebral LobesTemporal and Parietal LobesFrontal and Parietal

A

Right and Left Cerebral Lobes

512
Q

The most posterior aspect of the cerebrum is the:DiencephalonBrainstemCerebellumOccipital lobe

A

Occipital lobe

513
Q

The pineal gland is the most important feature of which aspect of the diencephalon?HypothalamusThalamusPituitary glandEpithalamus

A

Epithalamus

514
Q

The pituitary gland is attached by the infundibulum to what other feature of the diencephalon?ThalamusEpithalamusPituitary glandHypothalamus

A

Hypothalamus

515
Q

The pre-central and post-central gyri are adjacent to which fissure of the brain?Longitudinal FissureInterhemispheric FissureLateral FissureCentral Fissure

A

Central Fissure

516
Q

The sigmoid sinus is an extension of what vein in the brain?Sigmoid sinusStraight sinusInferior sagittal sinusTransverse sinus

A

Transverse sinus

517
Q

The space outside of the dura mater is termed the:Cisterna magnaSubdural spaceSubarachnoid spaceEpidural space

A

Epidural space

518
Q

The subarachnoid space is between which meninges?Pia and duraArachnoid and piaDura and arachnoid

A

Arachnoid and pia

519
Q

The subdural space is between which layers of the meninges?Dura and arachnoidPia and duraArachnoid and pia

A

Dura and arachnoid

520
Q

The superior sagittal sinus continues as what venous pathway in the brain?Inferior sagittal sinusTransverse sinusStraight sinusSigmoid sinus

A

Transverse sinus

521
Q

The trigone is a feature of which CSF reservoir?Lateral ventriclesFourth ventricleThird ventricleSuperior Sagittal Sinus

A

Lateral ventricles

522
Q

Through which aspect of the brainstem does the cerebral aqueduct transverse?Mid brainPonsNone of the aboveMedulla oblongata

A

Mid brain

523
Q

What fissure separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe?Lateral FissureRolandic FissureLongitudinal FissureCentral Fissure

A

Lateral Fissure

524
Q

What fissure separates the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain?Central FissureLongitudinal FissureLateral FissureInterhemispheric Fissure

A

Central Fissure

525
Q

Which aspect of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord?Mid brainNone of the abovePonsMedulla oblongata

A

Medulla oblongata

526
Q

Which aspect of the diencephalon is considered the master endocrine gland?ThalamusEpithalamusPituitary glandHypothalamus

A

Pituitary gland

527
Q

Which aspect of the diencephalon helps to form the lateral walls of the third ventricles?Pituitary glandThalamusEpithalamusHypothalamus

A

Thalamus

528
Q

Which aspect of the ventricular system is positioned between the lobes of the thalamus?Fourth ventricleLateral ventriclesSuperior Sagittal SinusThird ventricle

A

Third ventricle

529
Q

Which aspect of the ventricular system is shaped like a diamond?Fourth ventricleLateral ventriclesSuperior Sagittal SinusThird ventricle

A

Fourth ventricle

530
Q

Which CSF passage allows for communication between the lateral and third ventricles?Cerebral aqueductForamen of LuschkaInterventricular foramenForamen of Magendie

A

Interventricular foramen

531
Q

Which fold of the dura mater divides the two lobes of the cerebellum?Falx cerebrumFalx cerebelliTentoriumDiaphragma sellae

A

Falx cerebelli

532
Q

Which fold of the dura mater divides the right and left halves of the cerebrum?Diaphragma sellaeTentoriumFalx cerebrumFalx cerebelli

A

Falx cerebrum

533
Q

Which fold of the dura mater covers the pituitary gland?Falx cerebrumDiaphragma sellaeFalx cerebelliTentorium

A

Diaphragma sellae

534
Q

Which fold of the dura mater separates the cerebrum and cerebellum?TentoriumFalx cerebelliFalx cerebrumDiaphragma sellae

A

Tentorium

535
Q

Which of the following is the largest aspect of the brain?CerebrumDiencephalonBrainstemCerebellum

A

Cerebrum

536
Q

Which of the following vessels circulate blood from the Circle of Willis into the brain?Cerebral arteriesBasilar arteryInternal carotidsCommunicating arteries

A

Cerebral arteries

537
Q

Which of the following arteries circulate blood around the major vessels of the Circle of Willis?Internal carotidsCerebral arteriesCommunicating arteriesBasilar artery

A

Communicating arteries

538
Q

Which of the following veins does not directly connect to the Confluence of Sinuses?Straight sinusSigmoid sinusInferior sagittal sinusTransverse sinus

A

Sigmoid sinus

539
Q

Which of the following is not an aspect of the cerebrum?InsulaCerebral CortexCorpus CallosumVermis

A

Vermis

540
Q

Which of the following is not composed of white brain matter?Myelinated AxonsCerebral cortexNone of the aboveCorpus Callosum

A

Cerebral cortex

541
Q

Which of the following is the most inferior aspect of the brainstem?None of the aboveMid brainPonsMedulla oblongata

A

Medulla oblongata

542
Q

Which of the following houses most of the thalamus?Mid brainPonsMedulla oblongataNone of the above

A

None of the above

543
Q

Which of the following allows for CSF communication between the third and fourth ventricles?Foramen of LuschkaCerebral aqueductForamen of MagendieInterventricular foramen

A

Cerebral aqueduct

544
Q

Which of the following connects the ventricular system to the subarachnoid space?Cerebral aqueductInterventricular foramenForamen of MagendieForamen of Luschka

A

Foramen of Luschka

545
Q

Which of the following is the largest aperture connection the 4th ventricle to the basal cisterns and central canal of the spinal cord?Interventricular foramenForamen of LuschkaCerebral aqueductForamen of Magendie

A

Foramen of Magendie

546
Q

Which of the following structure is responsible for producing CSF?VentriclesBasal cisternsChoroid plexusMeninges

A

Choroid plexus

547
Q

Which of the meninges attaches directly to the surface of the brain?ArachnoidAll of the abovePia materDura mater

A

Pia mater

548
Q

Which portion of the brainstem is identifiable as a prominent bulge near the center of the brain?None of the aboveMedulla oblongataPonsMid brain

A

Pons

549
Q

Widened areas of the subarachnoid space are referred to as:MeningesBasal cisternsChoroid plexusVentricles

A

Basal cisterns

550
Q

T/F: All vertebrae of the cervical spine share the same characteristic features.

A

False

551
Q

An abnormal forward curvature of the thoracic spine is termed:KyphosisHypnosisPrognosisLordosis

A

Kyphosis

552
Q

An exaggerated curve of the lumbar spine is termed:ScoliosisHunchbackKyphosisLordosis

A

Lordosis

553
Q

Costo-vertebral joints are a feature unique to which aspect of the vertebral column?CervicalLumbarSacralThoracic

A

Thoracic

554
Q

How many vertebra of the spine are movable?24302333

A

24

555
Q

Spinal nerves exit the vertebral column via what feature of the spine?Transverse foraminaSpinal canalVertebral canalIntervertebral foramina

A

Intervertebral foramina

556
Q

T/F: The 2nd cervical vertebra has both an anterior arch and a posterior arch.

A

False

557
Q

The anterior projections of the gray matter within the spinal cord continue outside of the cord as which of the following?Dorsal nerve rootsWhite matterVentral nerve rootsGanglia

A

Ventral nerve roots

558
Q

The dens is a feature of which cervical vertebra?C7C1C2C6

A

C2

559
Q

T/F: The external borders of the spinal cord are composes of white matter.

A

True

560
Q

T/F: The fluid-filled outer ring of the intervertebral discs is termed the nucleus pulpous.

A

False

561
Q

T/F: The lateral masses of C1 bear the weight of the head.

A

True

562
Q

The nerve bundles extending from the distal end of the spinal cord are termed the:Cauda equinaConus medullarisSella TurcicaMedulla oblongata

A

Cauda equina

563
Q

The semispinalis muscles belong to which of the following muscle groups?Splenius musclesTransversospinal musclesPsoas musclesErector spinae muscles

A

Splenius muscles

564
Q

The spinal cord continues from what other feature of the CNS?Sella TurcicaConus medullarisCauda equinaMedulla oblongata

A

Medulla oblongata

565
Q

The spinal cord ends at the level of which vertebra?C1S1T1L1

A

L1

566
Q

The terminal end of the spinal cord is described by which of the following?Sella TurcicaConus medullarisCauda equinaMedulla oblongata

A

Conus medullaris

567
Q

The transverse foramina are a pathway for which of the following?Jugular veinsVertebral arteriesSpinal cordSpinal nerves

A

Vertebral arteries

568
Q

The vertebral column is composed of how many vertebrae?24332330

A

33

569
Q

Which of the following aspects of the spine have a normal kyphotic curve? (choose all correct)LumbarSacrumThoracicCervical

A

SacrumThoracic

570
Q

Which of the following lacks a typical vertebral body?C1C7C2C6

A

C1

571
Q

Which of the following lacks a bifid spinous process? (Choose all correct answers)C7C1C6C2

A

C7C1

572
Q

Which of the following is used a as landmark dividing the abdominal and pelvic cavities?Sacral hiatusLateral massesSacral ForaminaSacral promontory

A

Sacral promontory

573
Q

Which of the following is also known as the ala?Lateral massesSacral hiatusSacral ForaminaSacral promontory

A

Lateral masses

574
Q

Which of the following describes the large opening on the inferior aspect of the sacrum?Sacral ForaminaLateral massesSacral hiatusSacral promontory

A

Sacral hiatus

575
Q

Which of the following is formed within the transverse processes of the sacral vertebrae?Sacral hiatusSacral promontoryLateral massesSI Joint

A

Lateral masses

576
Q

Which of the following cavities is not filled by CSF?None of the aboveSubdural spaceSubarachnoid spaceCentral canal

A

Subdural space

577
Q

Which of the following is a direct extension of the ventricular system of the brain?None of the aboveCentral canalSubdural spaceEpidural space

A

Central canal

578
Q

Which of the following is accessed and injected with contrast for a myelogram?Central canalNone of the aboveSubarachnoid spaceSubdural space

A

Subarachnoid space

579
Q

Which of the following is accessed during an epidural to inject anesthetic agents?Central canalSubarachnoid spaceSubdural spaceNone of the above

A

None of the above

580
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the lateral aspects of the vertebral arch to which the vertebral body attaches?Articular FacetsPedicleTransverse processLamina

A

Pedicle

581
Q

Which of the following muscle groups are the chief extends of the entire spine?Psoas musclesSplenius musclesTransversospinal musclesErector spinae muscles

A

Erector spinae muscles

582
Q

Which of the following muscle groups extend from the cervical vertebrae through the upper thoracic spine?Erector spinae musclesSplenius musclesPsoas musclesTransversospinal muscles

A

Splenius muscles

583
Q

Which of the following muscle groups attach between the spinous processes and transverse processes of different vertebrae?Erector spinae musclesSplenius musclesPsoas musclesTransversospinal muscles

A

Transversospinal muscles

584
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the most lateral appendages of a typical vertebra?Transverse processPedicleArticular FacetsLamina

A

Transverse process

585
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the most posterior aspect of the neural arch?Articular FacetsTransverse processLaminaPedicle

A

Lamina

586
Q

Which of the following is an insertion site for the transversospinal muscles of the vertebral column?PedicleArticular FacetsTransverse processLamina

A

Transverse process

587
Q

Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only cervical vertebrae?Large vertebral bodiesFused transverse processesTransverse foraminaFacets and demi-facets

A

Transverse foramina

588
Q

Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only thoracic vertebrae?Facets and demi-facetsFused transverse processesTransverse foraminaLarge vertebral bodies

A

Facets and demi-facets

589
Q

Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only lumbar vertebrae?Large vertebral bodiesTransverse foraminaFacets and demi-facetsFused transverse processes

A

Large vertebral bodies

590
Q

Which of the following is a feature characteristic of only sacral vertebrae?Facets and demi-facetsLarge vertebral bodiesFused transverse processesTransverse foramina

A

Fused transverse processes

591
Q

Which vertebral ligament runs along the ventral surface of the vertebral column?Posterior longitudinal ligamentLigamentum flavumAnterior longitudinal ligamentInterspinous ligament

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament

592
Q

Which vertebral ligament attaches between the lamina of adjoining vertebrae?Interspinous ligamentPosterior longitudinal ligamentLigamentum flavumAnterior longitudinal ligament

A

Ligamentum flavum

593
Q

Which vertebral ligament covers the dorsal surface of the vertebral bodies of the spine?Posterior longitudinal ligamentAnterior longitudinal ligamentLigamentum flavumInterspinous ligament

A

Posterior longitudinal ligament

594
Q

Which vertebral ligament can be seen on sagittal imaging extending between the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae?Posterior longitudinal ligamentAnterior longitudinal ligamentInterspinous ligamentLigamentum flavum

A

Interspinous ligament

595
Q

A thoracic vertebra may be identified as it has which of the following?Costal facetsLarge vertebral bodyAll of the aboveTransverse foramina

A

Costal facets

596
Q

The first _______ ribs are considered true ribs.EightSixSevenFive

A

Seven

597
Q

Which of the following statements describes the 8th, 9th, and 10th ribs?They are fused together by costal cartilageThey do not attach to the sternumThey are considered floating ribsAll of the above

A

They are fused together by costal cartilage

598
Q

Which aspect of the sternum is visualized on an axial image displaying the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum?ManubriumXiphoid processAny of the aboveBody

A

Manubrium

599
Q

The large projection on the posterior surface of the scapula dividing it into upper and lower fossae is termed the:Coracoid processScapular spineGlenoid fossaAcromion process

A

Scapular spine

600
Q

Which aspect of the scapula articulates which the clavicle?Scapular spineGlenoid fossaAcromion processCoracoid process

A

Acromion process

601