My shit Flashcards
It is the policy of this department that officers hold the highest regard for the _______ and ______of all persons and place minimal reliance upon the use of force.
dignity and liberty
The department respects the sanctity of every human life, and the application of deadly force is a measure to be employed in the most extreme circumstances where ______ means of force have failed or could not be reasonably considered.
lesser
The Las Vegas Metropolitan Police Department is committed to protecting ______, their ______, and ______ while providing the best in public safety and service.
people, their property and rights
The proper use of force is essential for ensuring ______ policing and for building trust in the community.
impartial
Officers must remain mindful that they derive their authority from the community and that ______ force degrades the legitimacy of that authority.
unreasonable
______ ______, the appropriate exercise of discretion, and the adherence to department policy will always be the foundation of officer decision-making in the broad range of possible use of force situations
Sound judgment
An officer’s actions to slow down, stabilize, and resolve an incident as safely as possible by reducing danger through the use of verbal persuasion, tactics, resources, and transitioning through force options.
de-escalation
The movement, progression, or reduction from the application of one force type to another.
force transitions
Broad categories of force options in escalating stages of intensity that are identified as low-level force, intermediate force, and deadly force.
levels of control
An impending violent act, harm, or resistance that will likely occur if not instantly confronted or addressed.
imminent threat
An objective standard of force viewed from the perspective of a reasonable officer, without the benefit of 20/20 hindsight, and based on the totality of the circumstances presented at the moment the force is used.
objectively reasonable
The placement of a subject’s body in a manner that does not restrict breathing
or obstruct the airway, i.e., on their side or upright.
recovery position
An injury that creates a substantial risk of death, causes serious permanent disfigurement, or results in a prolonged loss or impairment of the functioning of any body part.
substantial bodily injury
Officers may use force to protect themselves or others, overcome resistance, to effect a lawful detention, a lawful arrest, or to conduct a lawful ______. Officers should, if reasonable, make clear their intent to detain, arrest, or search the subject.
search
The standard that courts use to examine whether a use of force is constitutional was first set forth in Graham v. Connor and expanded by subsequent court cases. The reasonableness of a
particular use of force must be judged from the perspective of a judicious officer on the scene, rather than with 20/20 vision of hindsight. The consideration must account for the fact that officers are often forced to make split-second judgments in circumstances that are ______, ______, and ______ ______.
tense, uncertain, and rapidly evolving.
Officers should start to develop a _____ ______ prior to arriving at the scene and, when applicable, utilize intervention techniques by coordinating approaches to persons who are in crisis, are believed to be mentally ill, or have developmental disabilities
tactical plan
Clearly, not every potential violent confrontation can be de-escalated, but officers do have the ability to impact the direction and the outcome of many situations based on their ______-______ and the ______ they choose to employ.
decision-making and the tactics
Supervisors will acknowledge and respond to incidents in a timely manner when officer use of reportable force is ______.
probable
Supervisors Tactics for Armed Subject Response - STAR: Supervisors will also manage the deployment of resources and equipment. In dynamic and highly charged incidents, supervisors will provide clear direction and communication to officers regarding their ______ and ______.
positioning and roles
At times, de-escalation may mean the timely and appropriate use of a lower force option to mitigate a later need to use greater force. Officers will make efforts to control a confrontation and not allow it to ______.
escalate
Levels of resistance are general categories of behavior or actions exhibited by a subject at the time of a police encounter:
Compliant -
Compliant – a person contacted by an officer who acknowledges direction or lawful orders given
and offers no resistance.
Levels of resistance are general categories of behavior or actions exhibited by a subject at the time of a police encounter:
Assaultive -
Assaultive – the subject demonstrates the intent to harm the officer, others or themselves.
Examples include:
a. A subject taking a fighting stance, punching, kicking, striking, or attacking with weapons
b. Other actions which present an imminent threat of physical harm
c. A subject fleeing while in control of weapon (e.g., firearm in a waistband)
Levels of resistance are general categories of behavior or actions exhibited by a subject at the time of a police encounter:
Obstructive -
Obstructive – the subject is uncooperative, not complying with an officer’s commands, or their physical actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody or under control; the subject’s actions are not directed at harming the officer or others.
Examples include:
a. Standing stationary and not moving upon lawful direction
b. Becoming “dead weight”
c. Holding onto a fixed object (e.g., utility pole or steering wheel) or locking arms with another during a protest
d. Walking or running away
e. Breaking the officer’s grip
Levels of resistance are general categories of behavior or actions exhibited by a subject at the time of a police encounter:
Life-Threatening -
Life-Threatening – the subject’s actions are likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury to
the officer or others.
Examples include:
a. The imminent use of a firearm, blunt, or bladed weapon
b. Extreme physical force
When subjects are at extremes of age (______ ______), physically frail, visibly or known to be pregnant, or disabled, officers will carefully weigh these factors and utilize de-escalation
techniques, crisis intervention, or other alternatives to force when reasonable.
under 13 over 70
Levels of Control are:
Low Level force
Intermediate Force
Deadly force
Officers will not use an ECD or projectile weapon when the subject is in an elevated position where a fall is likely to result in substantial bodily injury or death unless the subject displays ______-______ resistance. This is particularly important when utilizing the ECD.
life-threatening
Levels of control are broad categories of ______ and force in escalating stages of intensity.
influence
To effectively de-escalate situations, officers will use advisements, warnings, and ______ ______.
verbal persuasion
When possible, officers should attempt to develop a ______ and ______ ______ ; however, there are times where an officer will need to announce clear, assertive, and professional commands to control the situation
rapport and convey concern
______ are not permitted. Officers will not use an arm bar across the throat or any technique that encircles the neck, including the Lateral Vascular Neck Restraint®(LVNR®). Any action that is likely to restrict the flow of air into a person’s lungs or blood into a person’s brain is prohibited (see NRS 289.810 and 193 Sections 4 and 5).
Chokeholds
The use of instruments as a tool for the purpose of striking or jabbing (e.g., flashlights or radio)
other than a department-authorized baton, is ______ ______.
strongly discouraged
The ECD will not be used:
1) On a handcuffed person.
2) When the officer knows a subject has come in contact with flammable liquids or substances.
3) On a fleeing subject (without other known factors). Mere flight from an officer cannot be the sole justification for use of the ECD.
4) On persons with known heart conditions.
When deploying an ECD, officers will:
1) Use the standard ECD five second cycle, and then evaluate the need to apply another five second cycle after providing the subject with an opportunity to comply. Each subsequent five second cycle requires additional justification. Once the subject has been exposed to ______ ______, the ECD will be deemed ineffective and another use of force option will be considered unless exigent circumstances exist
three cycles
If feasible, before the use of any approved weapon, the officer will communicate with other officers in the area and issue a warning to the subject. Officers will give the subject a reasonable opportunity to comply. This is particularly important in preventing ______ ______ when utilizing projectile weapons or the ECD.
sympathetic fire
When deploying an ECD, officers will begin ______ ______, including cuffing under power, as soon as reasonably safe to minimize the total duration of ECD exposures.
restraint procedures
An injury that creates a substantial risk of death, causes serious permanent disfigurement, or results in a prolonged loss or impairment of the functioning of any body part
substantial bodily injury
The positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle
where contact between the vehicles is anticipated to be minimal, and the potential for injuries is low. The intent of blocking is to prevent an avenue of escape by the safe placement of a police vehicle.
blocking
A specific manner of intentional contact using a police vehicle against a fleeing vehicle during a pursuit to cause the fleeing vehicle to come to an abrupt stop, rendering it immobile.
Precision Intervention
Technique (PIT)
The utilization of a police vehicle to intentionally hit another vehicle.
Ramming
A preplanned containment tactic restricted for use only by specialized units (not approved for Patrol Division). It employs extremely low-speed and intentional vehicle contact with a subject’s vehicle. The purpose is to prevent a vehicle pursuit and render a vehicle immobile.
stationary vehicle
immobilization
technique (pinching)
What level of force is the use of a Low Lethality Shotgun when fired at a distance of seven yards or greater and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon when fired at a distance of five yards or greater.
Intermediate Force –
What level of force is the use of a Low Lethality Shotgun when fired at a distance less than seven yards and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon when fired at a distance less than five yards.
Deadly Force
Low Lethality Shotgun and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon:
How often will an officer ensure the projectile weapon is only loaded with department-issued low
lethality munitions?
Prior to each shift
Empty chamber, bolt forward, magazine inserted, and the safety on.
cruiser ready condition
SPR officers assigned in an over-watch capacity at special events whose primary function is observation and ______ ______.
intelligence gathering
When multiple officers have deployed rifles, the supervisor will designate one deploying officer to complete the Rifle Deployment Report, listing all officers who deployed a rifle.
The report will detail the following:
1) Details of the incident.
2) Nature of the threat resulting in the decision to deploy a rifle.
3) Number and locations of all rifle-deployed officers in the incident.
The ______ is a multiagency coordination entity that provides support and coordination to the on-scene responders.
Emergency Operations Center (EOC)
ICS - Weaknesses in incident management were often due to one or more of five conditions:
1) Lack of accountability, including unclear chains of command and supervision.
2) Poor communication due to both inefficient uses of available communications systems and conflicting codes and terminology.
3) Lack of an orderly, systematic planning process.
4) No common, flexible, predesigned management structure that enables commanders to delegate responsibilities and manage workloads efficiently.
5) No predefined methods to integrate interagency requirements into the management structure and planning process effectively.
Watch Commander Rotation:
Watch Commander will be staffed by area command lieutenants on all three shifts. CCAC lieutenants will not be primary Watch Commander.
WC Manual - The WC may field questions from:
1) the media
2) Executive Staff
3) other supervisors in need of advice
4) another law enforcement agency
Watch Commander 2 Rotation Days and Swings:
- Watch Commander 2 is staffed by non-patrol lieutenants Monday through Friday.
- Saturday and Sunday WC2 is staffed by area command lieutenants.
Watch Commander 2 Rotation Graves:
- Graveyard WC2 will be by area command lieutenants. CCAC (either Graves or Stars) covers Saturday and Sunday (Friday and Saturday night).
Daily Schedule
The WC and WC2 will be staffed daily by three lieutenants to allow 24-hour coverage.
Day shift: 0700 to 1500
Swing shift: 1500 to 2300
Grave shift: 2300 to 0700
Change of command will occur prior to or at the start time of each shift above.
WC Manual - A controlled redeployment of on-duty field resources using designated in-the box squads at the direction of the Watch Commander intended to mitigate a volatile situation or to gain control of an incident or series of incidents when the need for manpower temporarily exceeds on-duty, available resources in a given area command.
Surge Response
False report(s) of an emergency or threat of violence intended to prompt an immediate tactical law enforcement response.
Swatting call
ICS - You may be deployed to an Emergency Operations Center (EOC) rather than
serve as an
on-scene responder.
ICS - The EOC is a ______ coordination entity that provides support and coordination to the on-scene responders.
multiagency
ICS - An incident is an occurrence, either caused by humans or natural phenomena, that requires response actions to prevent or minimize loss of life or damage to property and/or ______ ________.
the environment
ICS - Partnerships are often required among ______, ______, ______, and ______ ______.
These partners must work together in a smooth, coordinated effort under the same management system.
Local
State
Tribal
Federal agencies.
ICS
is a proven management system based on ______ ______ ______.
successful business practices
ICS - Homeland Security Presidential Directive 5 (HSPD-5) called for a National Incident Management System (NIMS) and identified steps for improved coordination of ______, ______, ______, and ______ ______ response to incidents and described the way these agencies will prepare for such
a response.
Federal, State, local, and private industry
ICS is:
1) A proven management system based on successful business practices.
2) The result of ______ of lessons learned in the organization and
management of emergency incidents.
decades
ICS - It represents organizational “______ ______,” and as a component of NIMS has become the
standard for emergency management across the country.
best practices
ICS - NIMS requires the use of ICS for all domestic responses. NIMS also requires that all levels of government, including Territories and Tribal Organizations, adopt ICS as a condition of receiving ______ ______ ______.
Federal preparedness funding
ICS consists of procedures for controlling ______, ______, ______, and _______. It is a system designed to be used or applied from the time an incident occurs until the requirement for management and operations no longer exists.
personnel
facilities
equipment
communications
ICS is based on proven ______ ______, which contribute to the strength and efficiency of the overall system.
management principles
ICS principles are implemented through a wide range of management features including the use of common terminology and clear text, and a ______ ______ ______.
modular organizational structure
ICS emphasizes effective planning, including ______ by ______ and reliance on an Incident Action Plan.
management by objectives
ICS helps ensure full utilization of all incident resources by:
1) Maintaining a manageable span of control.
2) Establishing predesignated incident locations and facilities.
3) Implementing resource management practices.
4)______ ______ ______.
Ensuring integrated communications
ICS - ______ of ______ means that there is an orderly line of authority within the ranks of the organization, with lower levels subordinate to, and connected to, higher levels.
Chain of Command
ICS - ______ ______ means that every individual is accountable to only one designated supervisor to whom they report at the scene of an incident.
Unity of Command
ICS - The command function may be carried out as a ______ ______ in which responding agencies and/or jurisdictions with responsibility for the incident share incident management.
Unified Command
ICS - Formal ______ of ______ occurs whenever leadership changes.
Transfer of Command
ICS supports responders and decisionmakers by providing the data they need through effective information and ______ ______.
Intelligence management
ICS - The ICS organizational structure develops in a ______, modular fashion that is based on the size and complexity of the incident, as well as the specifics of the hazard environment created by the incident.
top-down
ICS - As the ICS organizational structure expands, the number of ______ ______ also expands to adequately address the requirements of the incident.
management positions
In ICS, considerable emphasis is placed on developing effective ______ ______ ______.
Incident Action Plans
ICS - Incident Action Plans include the measurable strategic operations to be achieved and are prepared around a timeframe called an ______ ______.
Operational Period
ICS - At the simplest level, all Incident Action Plans (oral or written) must have four
elements:
1) What do we want to do?
2) Who is responsible for doing it?
3) How do we communicate with each other?
4)
What is the procedure if someone is injured?
ICS - ______ of ______ pertains to the number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during emergency response incidents or special events.
Span of Control
ICS -______ of ______ is the key to effective and efficient incident management. The type of incident, nature of the task, hazards and safety factors, and distances between personnel and resources all influence span of control considerations.
Span of control
ICS - Effective span of control on incidents may vary from:
three (3) to seven (7), and a ratio of one (1) supervisor to five (5) reporting elements is
recommended.
ICS - If the number of reporting elements falls outside of these ranges, expansion or consolidation of the organization may be necessary. There may be exceptions, usually in ______ assignments or where resources work in close proximity to each other.
lower-risk
ICS - ______ ______ are temporary locations at an incident where personnel and equipment are kept while waiting for tactical assignments.
Staging Areas
ICS - Personnel and major items of equipment that are available or potentially available to the Operations function on assignment to incidents are called ______ ______.
tactical resources
ICS - All other resources required to support the incident. Food, communications equipment, tents, supplies, and fleet vehicles are examples of ______ ______.
support resources
ICS -Tactical resources are always classified as one of the following:
Assigned
Available
Out-of-Service
ICS - Maintaining an accurate and up-to-date picture of ______ ______ is a critical
component of resource management.
resource utilization
ICS -Under a Unified Command, a single, coordinated Incident Action Plan will direct all activities. The Incident Commanders will supervise a single Command and General Staff organization and speak with ______ ______.
one voice
ICS - At any incident or event, the situation must be assessed and response planned. Resources must be organized, assigned and directed to accomplish the incident objectives. As they work, resources must be managed to adjust to ______ ______.
changing conditions
ICS - If you are expected to be a supervisor:
1) You must maintain a daily Unit Log (ICS-214), indicating the names of personnel assigned and a listing of the major activities that occurred during the operational periods to which you were assigned.
2) You are expected to give briefings to your ______, ______ ______,
and ______ ______.
subordinates
adjacent forces
and replacement personnel
ICS - The Incident Commander has overall responsibility for managing the incident by objectives, planning strategies, and ______ ______.
implementing tactics
ICS - In addition to having overall responsibility for managing the entire incident, the Incident Commander is specifically responsible for:
1) ______ ______ ______.
2) Providing information services to internal and external stakeholders.
3) Establishing and maintaining liaison with other agencies participating in the incident.
Ensuring incident safety
ICS - The Incident Commander may establish a General Staff. These are:
Operations Section
Planning Section
Logistics Section
Finance/Administration Section
ICS - The Incident Commander may establish a Command Staff. These are:
Public Information Officer
Safety Officer
Liaison Officer
ICS - General Staff Section’s are led by:
Chief and Deputy Chief
ICS - Command Staff’s are led by:
Officer and Assistant
ICS - Branch’s are led by:
Director and Deputy
ICS - Divisions and Groups are led by:
Supervisor (no 2nd)
ICS - Unit’s are led by:
Leader and Manager
ICS - Strike Teams and Task Force(s) are led by:
Leader and Single Resource Boss
ICS - ______ are used to divide an incident geographically.
Divisions
ICS - ______ are used when the number of Divisions or Groups exceeds the span of control and can be either geographical or functional.
Branches
ICS - ______ are used to describe functional areas of operation. The person in charge of each Group is designated as a Supervisor.
Groups
ICS - The ______ ______ usually develops from the bottom up. The organization will expand to include needed levels of supervision as more and more resources are deployed.
Operations Section
ICS - ______ ______ are a combination of mixed resources with common communications
operating under the direct supervision of a Leader.
Task Forces
ICS - At some point, the Operations Section and the rest of the ICS organization will contract. The decision to contract will be based on the achievement of ______ ______. Demobilization planning begins upon activation of the first personnel and continues until the ICS organization ceases operation.
tactical objectives
Annual Pursuit Report - What is the Department Vision?:
To be the safest community in America
Annual Pursuit Report - What are the Department Values?:
“I CARE”
Integrity
Courage
Accountability
Respect
Excellence
Annual Pursuit Report - What is the Department’s Mission?:
Provide exceptional police services in partnership with the community
Annual Pursuit Report - What are the Department’s Goals?:
“SAFE”
Strategic
Appreciate
Foster
Excel
Annual Pursuit Report - The Department Goals acronym is S.A.F.E. What is the ‘S’?
‘Strategic’ prevention and reduction of crime
Annual Pursuit Report - The Department Goals acronym is S.A.F.E. What is the ‘A’?
‘Appreciate’ our employees and those we serve
Annual Pursuit Report - The Department Goals acronym is S.A.F.E. What is the ‘F’?
‘Foster’ leadership, accountability and reform
Annual Pursuit Report - The Department Goals acronym is S.A.F.E. What is the ‘E’?
‘Excel’ in communication innovation and technology
IOCP - List the three sections of the Internal Oversight and Constitutional Policing (IOCP) Bureau:
Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT)
Force Investigation Team (FIT)
Office of Internal Oversight (OIO)
The mission of the 3 IOCP sections aligns with LVMPD’s mission of providing exceptional police services in partnership with the community by doing:
CIRT-Conducting thorough reviews of use of force and other high-risk incidents.
OIO-Providing essential and timely feedback to identify training needs.
FIT-Providing accurate and unbiased criminal investigations related to a department member’s use of deadly force.
IOCP - The force investigation model used by LVMPD is one of continuous, critical self-analysis that results in adjustments to ______, training, and policy within the department.
tactics
IOCP - The application of deadly force is a measure to be employed in the most
extreme circumstances where ______ ______ of force have failed or could not be reasonably considered.
lesser means
IOCP - Officers must remain mindful that they derive their authority from the community and that ______ force degrades the legitimacy of that authority.
unreasonable
IOCP - The prospect of a favorable outcome is often enhanced when supervisors become involved in the management of the overall response to a potentially violent encounter by coordinating officers’ ______ ______.
tactical actions
IOCP - Supervisors will acknowledge and respond to incidents in a timely manner when an officer’s use of reportable force is probable. Supervisors will also manage the deployment of resources and ______.
equipment
In 2022, subjects were armed with a knife or sharp object in ______% of OIS incidents, which is an increase of 1 percentage point compared to the rate of subjects armed with a knife or sharp object in 2021. On average, over the 5-year period, subjects were armed with a knife or sharp object in 17% of incidents.
21%
IOCP -LVMPD policy defines de-escalation as an officer’s actions to slow down, stabilize and ______ an incident as safely as possible by reducing danger through the use of verbal persuasion, tactics, resources and transitioning through force options.
resolve
IOCP - Officers will modify their level of control in relation to the amount of resistance offered by a subject. The intent is to gain control of a subject and then transition into a custody phase where an officer is able to focus on the subject’s ______.
welfare
OICP - A Use of Force Report is required by each officer who uses reportable force in an incident. Reportable force is any use of force which results in injury or complaint of injury, complaint of continuing pain or any use of force greater than ______.
low-level force
IOCP - As an agency that places the highest value in human life, LVMPD is committed to
providing accountability and ______.
transparency
OICP - In 2022, the average department rate for BWC activation was ______%.
91%
IOCP- It is the policy of this department to provide both LVMPD and the community with a thorough review of incidents wherein deadly force was used by department members. The CIRP includes the participation of citizen board members who reside within LVMPD jurisdiction, who are not personally affiliated with the department, who are not related to any of its members and who have not had prior law enforcement experience. The citizen board members are notified ______ (give a timeframe) a use of deadly force administrative investigation begins.
the same day
OICP - The UFRB may choose from 1 of 4 findings after hearing the presentation of facts from CIRT.
#1 is Administrative Approval. This is:
1) Administrative Approval:
Objectively reasonable force was used under the circumstances based on the information available to the officer at the time. This finding acknowledges that the use of force was justified and within department policy.
IOCP - The UFRB may choose from 1 of 4 findings after hearing the presentation of facts from CIRT. #2 is Tactics/Decision-Making. This is:
2) Tactics/Decision-Making:
This finding considers under the circumstances, objectively reasonable force was used based on the information available to the department member at the time. However, it acknowledges even though the use of deadly force was within policy, the actions of the department member worked to limit alternatives that may have otherwise been available to the department member. A different approach or overall response by a department member may have lessened the need for the department member to employ deadly force and potentially changed the outcome of the incident.
IOCP - The UFRB may choose from 1 of 4 findings after hearing the presentation of facts from CIRT.
#3 is Policy/Training Failure. This is:
3) Policy/Training Failure:
A deadly force outcome was undesirable but did not stem from a violation of policy or failure to follow current training protocols. A department policy and/or specific training protocol is inadequate, ineffective or deficient; the department member followed existing policy and/or training or there is no existing policy and/or training protocol that addresses the action taken or performance demonstrated (e.g., global policy or training deficiencies).
IOCP - The UFRB may choose from 1 of 4 findings after hearing the presentation of facts from CIRT.
#4 is Administrative Disapproval. This is:
4) Administrative Disapproval:
The UFRB has concluded through this finding that the force used was a violation of department policy. This outcome is reserved for the most serious failures in adherence to policy, decision-making and performance (i.e., a violation of the Use of Force policy).
IOCP -The Critical Incident Review Panel (CIRP) is comprised of 2 related boards, the ______ and the ______. The sole purpose of the CIRP is to conduct a comprehensive administrative review of the tactics utilized by all involved department members, as well as decision-making, department policy and procedure compliance, training, supervision and the use of deadly force in these incidents.
Use of Force Review Board
Tactical Review Board
IOCP recommendations from the review of a critical incident are made to identify and address issues and concerns that would improve the individual employee and the department. The recommendations are categorized into 4 overall areas where growth and development can be made:
1) Equipment
2) Technology
3) Policy & Procedure
4) Training
IOCP - Employee-Specific recommendations that can be created throughout an administrative OIO investigation. An employee can be considered for:
1) a commendation
2) be provided additional training
3) receive a Statement of Complaint
4) Supervisory Intervention - Contact Report due to a violation of standardized LVMPD tactics, training or policy.
IOCP - What is MMAC?
Metro’s Multi-Cultural Advisory Council (MMAC). The group meets monthly.
IOCP - Closing-the-Loop:
At the end of each year, Internal Oversight and Constitutional Policing Bureau (IOCP), Organizational Development Bureau (ODB), Internal Affairs Bureau and LVMPD’s General Counsel convene for a “Closing-the-Loop” meeting. The topics discussed include use of force and vehicle pursuit trends identified during IOCP’s administrative investigations and reviews. The information shared assists ______ in the development of training scenarios for the upcoming year.
Organization Development Bureau (ODB)
IOCP - Awareness Reports are disseminated department wide to educate about a critical incident or identify emerging trends. They provide opportunities to maximize officer safety and performance while supporting IOCP’s goals based on 7 fundamentals of Policy, Training, Tactics, Leadership, Investigations, Accountability and ______ ______.
Community Inclusion
Bubble Tactic: A non-code tactic that is utilized when attempting to contain a suspect in a
vehicle. The tactic utilizes available police units to create a ______ ______ or
“bubble.” “Bubbling” officers will monitor via radio the fleeing vehicle, out of view
of the suspect, and move into positions surrounding the suspect while obeying
all traffic laws. “Bubbling” officers will not engage nor re-engage the suspect in a
vehicle pursuit without supervisor approval.
mobile perimeter
If an officer is involved in a motor vehicle collision during an emergency response or a pursuit, the officer will immediately discontinue involvement and take proper action as is required by the NRS Transportation Code and all other departmental orders and directives unless:
- No unit is available to assume the pursuit or respond to the unit involved.
- Damage to the unit is minor, and it can still be operated without danger.
- There are no apparent injuries as a result of the accident.
During a pursuit, the area lieutenant (or watch commander in area lieutenant’s absence) will:
1) Monitor the pursuit and is responsible for ensuring that the pursuit is conducted according to department policies and procedures.
2) Allow the area field supervisor to remain in control of the pursuit, and limit radio traffic that may
cause confusion regarding supervision of the pursuit. The lieutenant should refrain from radio communication unless they are going to countermand the supervisor in control of the pursuit.
3) Order discontinuance of the pursuit when the dangers of the pursuit outweigh the need to
apprehend the suspect.
4) ________
4) Respond to the termination point of the pursuit, and ensure the appropriate notifications are made.
If a vehicle belonging to an uninvolved citizen is damaged by the deployment of a tire deflation device (Stop Sticks) or a PIT, the watch commander will respond to:
a) Offer the citizen alternative transportation, if available and necessary.
b) Offer to tow the damaged vehicle at department expense using the duty service to an LVMPD contract repair facility, or if the citizen insists, to a facility of the citizen’s choice, or repair/replace at the earliest opportunity.
c) Inform the Risk Manager, via Communications, of the damage and location where the vehicle will be towed. The Risk Manager will determine if a response is necessary.
d) …and
d) Instruct the citizen to contact the Risk Manager the next business day to arrange
reimbursement.
Post-Pursuit Requirements, a shift lieutenant will:
1) Review the Pursuit Report, pursuit audio, CAD printout, and any other evidence to determine if pursuit procedures were followed.
2) Attach the ______ ______, CAD printout, and any other applicable evidence to the Blue Team Pursuit Report.
3) Ensure the Blue Team Pursuit Report accurately documents if the pursuit was justified and within policy before submitting to the bureau/area commander.
4) Ensure any necessary corrective actions are initiated and documented in the Blue Team follow-up.
5) Forward the report to the bureau/area commander for review.
pursuit audio
A supervisor will make reasonable efforts to ascertain information, direct responding resources, and take command of the foot pursuit. The supervisor’s physical presence is not required to exercise control over the foot pursuit and the supporting resources. Recognizing that foot pursuits are dynamic and dangerous for both the public and involved officers, supervisors will make every effort to respond and will continuously assess the situation to ensure the foot pursuit is conducted within established department guidelines.
A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when the following occur:
1. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect;
2. _________
3. Any reportable force; or
4. Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.
Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if it is occupied or not;
Upon apprehension of the suspect, the supervisor should promptly ___________________ and direct post-pursuit activity. Supervisors should conduct an after-action review with the officer(s) involved.
respond to the termination point
For purposes of the STAR Protocol policy, “armed” will mean the suspect has a firearm or other dangerous weapon and is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon. “______ ______” will mean an instrument capable of inflicting death or serious bodily injury.
Dangerous weapon
“For police, the role of the first-line supervisor is critically important. The sooner that supervisors arrive at the scene, the more likely they can contain it, ‘slow it down,’ and avoid the temptation to feel that ______ ______ is always required”
immediate action
Any person who has a mental illness and/or whose capacity to exercise self-control, judgement, and discretion in the conduct of a person’s affairs and social relations, or to care for their personal needs is diminished as a result of the mental illness, to the extent that the person presents a substantial likelihood of serious harm to self or others.
This does not include any person in whom that capacity is diminished by epilepsy, intellectual disability, dementia, delirium, brief periods of intoxication caused by alcohol or drugs, or dependence upon or addiction to alcohol or drugs, unless a mental illness that can be diagnosed is also present which contributes to the diminished capacity of the person.
criteria for mental crisis
Autism, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or any other neurological condition diagnosed by a qualified professional that:
1. Is manifested before the person affected attains the age of 22;
2. Is likely to continue indefinitely;
3. Results in substantial functional limitations, as measured by a qualified professional, in three or more of the following major life activities:
a. Taking care of oneself
b. Understanding and use of language
c. Learning
d. Mobility
e. Self-direction
f. Capacity for independent living; and
4. Results in the person affected requiring a combination of individually planned and coordinated services, support, or other assistance that is lifelong or has an extended duration.
developmental disability
A state of extreme excitation usually associated with illicit or prescription drug use and manifested by behavioral and physical changes that may result in sudden and unexplained death. Signs of this condition typically include elevated body temperature, profuse sweating, dilated pupils, uncontrollable shaking, talking incoherently, yelling, paranoia, extreme aggression toward objects, violent resistance/struggling, inappropriate shedding of clothing, or self-inflicted injuries.
excited delirium
The Behavioral Health Unit (BHU) encompasses the Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) coordinators, the ____________ diversion program, and the Homeless Outreach Team (HOT) to include the Homeless Liaison Coordinator.
Law Enforcement Intervention for Mental Health and Addiction (LIMA)
LIMA coordinators facilitate the diversion program within BHU in instances when low-level, non-violent criminal offenses can be diverted from the criminal justice system and the offense was driven by ______ ______. LIMA referrals can be initiated by any law enforcement officer or a community partner.
substance abuse
CIT Patrol Response to Persons in Behavioral Crisis or with Special Needs, The field supervisor will:
1) Acknowledge notification over the radio, monitor the event, and ensure a CIT officer is en route.
2) Respond to the scene and assume command and control of tactics, if:
a. Events involving persons threatening suicide under ______ circumstances
b. Persons who are experiencing symptoms of excited delirium and/or medical emergency.
c. Any event where circumstances indicate the situation may become volatile.
3) Ensure SWAT/Crisis Negotiators are requested when required
4) Approve the completed CIT After Action Report (LVMPD 367) by end of shift and place it in the
station basket to be scanned into OnBase. Do not email or fax it to the CIT Detail.
volatile (ie..individual is holding a weapon or threatening to jump)
When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE.
CIT1 –
Previous legal 2000
When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE.
CIT2 –
Previous violence toward officers and/or others
When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE.
CIT3 –
Weapon impounded from or taken off subject
When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE.
CIT4 –
Self- or doctor-diagnosed mental disorder
MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN - A structured protocol is required to manage the number of responding units, control safe _____________, and ensure supervisory command and control of resources.
ingress and egress routes
In the aftermath of a large-scale event where a joint investigation is conducted with federal partners, LVMPD personnel, as designated by the Undersheriff, will integrate with the appropriate federal agencies, allowing for shared information and ______.
resources
NIMS was developed so responders from different jurisdictions and disciplines can work together to react better to natural disasters and emergencies, including acts of terrorism. Benefits include a ______ ______ to incident management; standard command and management structures; and emphasis on preparedness, mutual aid, and resource management.
unified approach
______ is the standard tool used for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, planned events, or emergencies. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease.
Incident Command
System (ICS)
MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN - A team effort that allows agencies with jurisdictional responsibility, either geographical or functional, to participate in the management of an incident.
Unified Command
____________ is the principal advisor to the department on unusual occurrences, planning for response to “all hazard” situations, and coordinating emergency plans internally and externally. The Emergency Management Section, in conjunction with the Advanced Training Program, is responsible for annual training, including exercise components (e.g., tabletop, drill, or full-scale).
The Emergency Management Section
Determine if command needs to be transferred from the officer in the position of IC to the sergeant. This will be based on the size, type, and ______ of the incident.
complexity
In barricaded subject situations, it is the policy of this department to consider the safety of civilians and officers, and to enhance the prospect of peacefully resolving the incident through ______ tactics.
de-escalation
Barricaded subject/incident: A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or safety of others; refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed; is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment; or is contained in an open area, and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an ______ ______ by the subject.
adverse reaction
A suicidal person who is threatening to take their own life: This may involve a suicidal person, armed with a deadly weapon, capable of causing injury to others, who is a demonstrated threat to others, barricaded in a structure or in an open area; therefore, an incident involving an armed suicidal subject is a ______ ______.
barricade incident
HOSTAGE PLAN - In hostage situations, it is the policy of this department to prioritize life safety through de-escalation tactics or ______ ______ and to make every reasonable effort to affect the safe release of the hostages should communications fail.
alternative approaches
A secured, centralized location where SWAT Team supervisors, Crisis
Negotiation Team, patrol liaison, and an Investigative Services Division (ISD)
representative control tactical operations and coordinate negotiations.
Tactical Operations Center (TOC)
Bomb Threats - All actions and decisions made by LVMPD employees should take into consideration that the intention of the department is to conduct the investigation in a ______ ______.
low-profile manner
Explosive devices: For a post-blast crime scene, a _______ perimeter will be established around any evidence.
300 feet
Civil Protests: A safety zone maintained by officers which creates distance and space between opposing groups.
Buffer zone
Civil Protests: An unanticipated or unannounced public gathering where the department did not receive prior notice or have time to preplan a response to address public safety concerns.
unplanned or spontaneous event
Civil Protests: A verbal announcement given to the crowd to inform them of the law they are violating and the consequences of such violation.
dispersal order
Civil Protests: Three factors will be considered in determining the department’s response to a protest.
Crowd size
Time of day
Location
Civil Protests: When it is necessary to implement crowd management measures or take enforcement action, it should be an organized and well-communicated effort involving multiple officers and ______ ______.
supervisory oversight
Civil Protests: ______ will be implemented in LVMPD’s response to protests.
Incident Command System (ICS)
Office of Internal Oversight (OIO): In 2021, LVMPD introduced the COPS-on-Patrol training module focusing on the COPS acronym:
Communicate
Options [Less Lethal, Distance, Cover/Concealment]
Pre-plan
Slow the Momentum
ICS - The department utilizes the Incident Command Structure (ICS) as a standard tool for command,
control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, ______ ______, or
emergencies.
planned events
Orders to Disperse - When confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly and attempt to provide orders to disperse at least ______ time(s), giving demonstrators ample time to leave the area. Unless there is an immediate risk to public safety or significant property damage is occurring, reasonable time will be allowed for a crowd to comply with commands before enforcement action is taken.
three
Orders to Disperse - If there is an immediate threat of harm to property, then ______ order(s) to disperse must be provided. The determination to give the order to disperse is the responsibility of the IC upon consultation with the on-scene lieutenant.
one
When will a dispersal order be issued?
An order to disperse will only be given if illegal activity is occurring in the protest.
Protest AAR - Skirmish lines, when used appropriately, are an effective crowd control tactic. However,
they may become a point of conflict. In planning for crowd management, the Department will use skirmish lines primarily to protect ______ and ______.
lives and property
MACTAC - An acronym used in response to ongoing dynamic incident(s) involving simultaneous deadly force events or a terrorist attack involving explosives, high-powered weapons, or a hostage siege where subjects have used, or are preparing to use, deadly, physical force.
Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC)
MACTAC - A Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC) response is used when incidents occur simultaneously and exceed conventional law enforcement tactics and resources. This includes incidents involving ______, ______, ______, ______, and other potential threats.
shootings, stabbings, rammings, improvised explosive devices (IEDs)
MACTAC - MACTAC provides officers tactical knowledge, skills, and abilities to respond to incidents that require:
immediate police intervention
MACTAC - STAR de-escalation protocol and the barricaded subject plan emphasize slowed momentum to gather resources, whereas the MACTAC response requires: ______ ______.
immediate intervention
MACTAC - One or more persons who are randomly or systematically involved in the act of using deadly force on others, and the suspects will not stop their aggressive, hostile actions without immediate and direct law enforcement intervention. The overriding object of the assailant(s) appears to be committing mass murder or terrorism rather than other criminal conduct.
active assailant
MACTAC - A location established at the scene of the incident where injured victims will be taken prior to a formal triage, treatment, and transport (TTT) area by medical personnel:
Who directs this?
casualty collection point (CCP)
This is directed by the fire branch of the unified command.
MACTAC - This team aims to isolate, contain, or neutralize the threat and create a warm zone.
assault team
MACTAC - Any area with dedicated law enforcement protecting a defined geographic area(s) that has been cleared and secured. To establish a ______ ______, arriving officers and personnel clear and secure all perimeters. The command post, triage, treatment, and transport area(s) and staging area are examples of areas inside the ______ ______.
cold zone
MACTAC - Assigned to prevent a threat from expanding or retreating from an area of the initial threat or contained area. These teams should be no smaller than a buddy team (two officers).
containment teams
MACTAC - Protective details for the incident command post, staging area(s), fire and medical response teams or for additional protection as dictated by the incident commander (IC).
force protection
MACTAC - A pre-designated patrol squad at each area command that can respond to a major violent incident. These squads are pre-identified and scheduled 24 hours per day, seven days per week.
In-the-Box squad
MACTAC - A geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempting to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.
hot zone
MACTAC - The use of a ______ ______ ______ – one, two, or three officers – to respond to an active-assailant event when the need to interrupt outweighs the time to wait for the fourth or fifth officer to form the traditional active-assailant elements.
limited resource response
MACTAC - A MACTAC incident is confirmed, compelling the affected area command to respond directly.
MACTAC activation
MACTAC - A report of a MACTAC incident occurring or potentially occurring. In-the-Box patrol squads may be placed on alert in preparation or as a reserve to activated units.
MACTAC alert
MACTAC - An extraordinary incident, even by law enforcement standards, and/or an unusual occurrence that exceeds conventional law enforcement tactics and resources.
MACTAC incident
MACTAC - A general notification for area commands that are not affected. Patrol squads do not need to respond to a rally point but should orient themselves if they are placed on alert. In any confirmed MACTAC incident, the Communications Bureau should broadcast a valley-wide ______ ______.
MACTAC notification
MACTAC - A controlled, aggressive employment of law enforcement resources to an in-progress, life-threatening situation where any delay will clearly result in death or serious bodily harm to innocent persons.
MACTAC response
MACTAC - Officers assigned to a ______ ______ ______ should be capable of rapidly responding to a developing situation. These teams should have necessary equipment on hand and be staged away from affected areas but close enough to respond quickly to mitigate the threat.
Quick Reaction Force
MACTAC - Such teams obtain information about the activities and resources of a potential suspect (e.g., moving a two-officer team to a location where they can monitor security cameras or oversee an area of operation or incident command area).
reconnaissance
teams
MACTAC - A Mission assignment that consists of four law enforcement personnel and four fire department/medical personnel who will enter the warm zone of a hostile mass casualty incident to begin medical intervention and sifting/sorting of patients. Southern Nevada Fire Operations Hostile Event Policy states a minimum of two law enforcement officers are required to enter a warm zone.
LVMPD MACTAC encourages a minimum of four officers.
Rescue Task Force (RTF)
This is managed by the fire branch of the unified command.
MACTAC - Officers assigned to these teams can perform officer- or citizen-down rescue techniques per MACTAC protocols (may consider Tactical Emergency Casualty Care if/when appropriate).
rescue team
MACTAC - Compliant with the National Incident Management System (NIMS), a resource team is composed of four to five officers brought together as a tactical response team. The team is given a call sign based on a mission objective.
resource team (formerly strike team)
MACTAC - Non-In-the-Box patrol squads assigned to area command priorities, critical infrastructure protection, and/or multiple incident/attack response incidents.
Stay at Home squad
MACTAC - Surprise attack involving the deliberate use of violence against civilians in the hope of attaining political or religious aims. This can include the use of IEDs, small arms, vehicles, fire, or any means that can cause mass casualties or fear.
terrorist attack
MACTAC - An area designated as a delineation between the clean (unaffected) and dirty (affected) areas of an event. This area should have officers present to sweep everyone for weapons. The injured will be swept and moved to the formal triage, treatment, and transport area(s), while uninjured/witnesses will be swept and moved to a refuge area.
transition area
MACTAC - An area where law enforcement has passed through and swept for immediate hostile threats and where a threat is not expected but cannot be ruled out completely.
warm zone
MACTAC - First arriving units will ensure officer and public safety by utilizing the 4 A’s concept:
Assess
Announce
Assemble
Act
MACTAC - If the first arriving supervisor on-scene, make entry with the initial officer(s), providing direction and overall command and control. Utilize the 4 C’s concept:
Contain
Control
Communicate
Coordinate
MACTAC - Upon additional supervisor response, establish a formal Incident Command Post. Consider utilizing ______ ______ channels for the establishment of unified command.
NCORE TAC
MACTAC - If one of the first arriving officers has taken IC, determine if a transfer of command needs to occur from the officer to the sergeant. This will be based on the ______, ______, ______ of the incident.
size, type, and complexity
MACTAC - Ensure that all requests for regional, state, or federal resources are made through the :
Emergency Management Section
MACTAC - Watch commander or WC2 should designate a ______ ______ ______ for the arrival of off-duty, plainclothes personnel and provide this location to the Communications supervisor for dissemination to on- and off-duty supervisors.
secondary staging area
MACTAC - Off-duty personnel at or near the incident should make every effort to ______ ______.
assist victims
Arrest Procedures - In the absence of the officer’s immediate supervisor, the officer will have the AR Package reviewed by ______ ______.
the shift lieutenant
Arrest Procedures - An arrestee may choose to release their personal property to an on-scene third party before being transported to jail. If so, officers are not permitted to routinely search the released property unless they obtain the arrestee’s consent or there is an articulated and compelling need to do so. Examples of compelling needs include situations when releasing personal property may allow the third party to become armed and dangerous; police are unable to identify the arrestee and the property may contain their identification; or the property contains needed ______.
medication(s)
Arrest Procedures - The officer will request the presence of a supervisor when:
1. The release of currency to a third party is over ______.
2. The release of non-currency items to a third party appears to be valued over ______.
$100
$250
Domestic violence is a crime that adversely affects the lives of all exposed to it. Due to the serious nature, broad scope, and cycle of violence inherent in these crimes, the response of law enforcement must reflect an appropriate ______ ______ ______. It is the policy of this department to thoroughly investigate acts constituting domestic violence to prevent further violence.
sense of urgency
Orders for Protection - This order is granted to victims requesting relief regardless of the nature of their relationship with the suspect. The victim must file a crime report demonstrating a series of events. These orders are issued by Justice Court. Applications must be completed by the victim, in person, at the Regional Justice Center, 200 South Lewis Avenue. There is a fee associated with this order. Initially, a temporary order will be issued for up to thirty days. The violation of a Temporary
Stalking/Harassment Order is a gross misdemeanor. Once the order has been extended for up to one year, the charge for any violation is a felony. The adverse party must be served with this order for the order to be enforceable.
Stalking/Harassment Order (SHO)
Orders for Protection - If the weapon(s) and/or ammunition is not in plain view and the subject refuses to surrender their firearm(s) the officer will ______ ______ ______ ______ advising of the refusal and forward the report to the appropriate area command’s Patrol Investigations Detail. The Patrol Investigations Detail will conduct follow up based on the officer’s report.
dictate a priority officer’s report
Driving - Officer(s) dispatched to an emergency call, or specifically authorized to respond to an emergency call by the Communications Bureau or a supervisor.
primary response units
Driving - Department members, citizens, and arrestees occupying department vehicles will wear seat belts while the vehicle is in motion. The only exemption to this is when the vehicle is traveling less than ______ miles per hour and the driver or passenger(s) is expecting to exit the vehicle to take immediate police action once the vehicle has stopped.
15 mph
Driving - Members using cellphones while operating a department vehicle must use good judgment and discretion, keeping in mind officer and ______ ______ at all times.
public safety
Driving - A collision is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of ______.
$750 or more
Driving - A finding that a collision a department member was involved in may have been preventable, but that the collision was unavoidable or excusable, considering all the circumstances.
excusable
Driving - A separate category from a collision, is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building not resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of less than $750.
an incident
Driving - A finding that a collision a department member was involved in was performed in accordance with department policies, procedures, training standards, and traffic laws.
non-preventable
Driving - A finding that a collision a department member was involved in violated department policies, procedures, training standards, or traffic laws.
preventable
Driving - All department members involved in a vehicle collision who are equipped with a body worn camera (BWC) will, unless incapacitated, immediately activate the BWC (see LVMPD 7.136, Body Worn Cameras). All commissioned members responding to investigate a vehicle collision involving another member will also activate the BWC until completion of the investigation. Once the investigation is complete, all members with BWC video will manually label and categorize the video as “______ ______.” This category designation will retain the video footage for five years.
Pending Review
Driving - Request a crime scene analyst (CSA) for photographs of collisions resulting in serious injury
or ______ ______ ______.
major property damage
