Numbers

Question 1

3.540 MULTI-ASSAULT COUNTER TERRORISM ACTION CAPABILITIES (MACTAC) RESPONSE POLICY - Containment Teams: Assigned to prevent a threat from expanding or retreating from an area of the
initial threat or contained area. These teams should be no smaller than a buddy team (___ officers).

Answer 1

2

Question 2

3.540 MULTI-ASSAULT COUNTER TERRORISM ACTION CAPABILITIES (MACTAC) RESPONSE POLICY - Limited Resource Response, The use of limited resources – __________ officers – to respond to an active-assailant event when the need to interrupt outweighs the time to wait for the _______ officer to form the traditional active-assailant elements.

Answer 2

one, two, or three,
fourth or fifth

Question 3

3.540 MULTI-ASSAULT COUNTER TERRORISM ACTION CAPABILITIES (MACTAC) RESPONSE POLICY - Rescue Task Force (RTF), Mission assignment that consists of _____ law enforcement personnel and four fire department/medical personnel who will enter the warm zone of a hostile mass casualty incident to begin medical intervention and sifting/sorting of patients. Southern Nevada Fire Operations Hostile Event Policy states a minimum of ______ law enforcement officers are required to enter a warm zone. LVMPD MACTAC encourages a minimum of ______ officers. This is managed by
the fire branch of the unified command.

Answer 3

4
2
4

Question 4

MACTAC Incident, First arriving units will ensure officer and public safety by utilizing the 4 A’s concept:

Answer 4

assess, announce, assemble, and act.

Question 5

MACTAC Incident, Sergeants will: if the first arriving supervisor on-scene, make entry with the initial officer(s), providing direction and overall command and control. Utilize the 4 C’s concept:

Answer 5

contain, control, communicate, coordinate.

Question 6

MACTAC Incident, Area lieutenant will: Complete the ICS After Action Report (LVMPD 422) for ICs within ______ calendar days of the conclusion of the event if the lieutenant held the position of incident commander.

Answer 6

10

Question 7

3.110 USE OF FORCE POLICY - De-Escalation, When subjects are at extremes of age (______ ______), physically frail, visibly or known to be pregnant, or disabled, officers will carefully weigh these factors and utilize de-escalation techniques, crisis intervention, or other alternatives to force when reasonable (see NRS 171.1455).

Answer 7

under 13 over 70

Question 8

3.110 USE OF FORCE POLICY - Duty to Intervene, Reporting officer will document in writing no later than ______ days after the occurrence:
1. Date, time, and location of the incident
2. Identity, if known, and description of the participants
3. Description of the actions taken as a result of the observation

Answer 8

10

Question 9

Intermediate Force – a level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain. 40mm specialty impact weapon (fired at a distance of ______ yards or greater)

Answer 9

5

Question 10

Intermediate Force – a level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has
the potential to cause injury or substantial pain. Low lethality shotgun (fired at a distance of ______ yards or greater)

Answer 10

7

Question 11

Intermediate Force – a level of control that balances against a subject who is assaultive and has the potential to cause injury or substantial pain. PIT (speeds ______ mph or below)

Answer 11

40

Question 12

Deadly Force – a degree of force which balances against a subject whose actions are life-threatening and likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury, Low lethality shotgun (fired at a distance less than _______ yards)

Answer 12

7

Question 13

Deadly Force – a degree of force which balances against a subject whose actions are life-threatening and likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury, 40mm specialty impact weapon (fired at a distance less than ______ yards)

Answer 13

5

Question 14

Deadly Force – a degree of force which balances against a subject whose actions are life-threatening and likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury, PIT (speeds more than ______ mph)

Answer 14

40

Question 15

Low Lethality Shotgun – orange-colored, department-issued Remington 870. The ammunition is a ______-gauge, drag stabilized, less-lethal round.

Answer 15

12

Question 16

Reportable Force Incidents: A Use of Force Report is required by each officer who uses reportable force in an incident. A civilian employee who also uses force (empty hand, OC spray, or firearm) is required to complete a Use of Force Report. Use of Force Reports will be completed by end of shift and reviewed through the chain of command within ______ days.

Answer 16

30 days

Question 17

Investigative Responsibilities – Use of Deadly Force or Force Resulting in Death or Substantial Bodily Injury - FIT will conduct a voluntary interview with the officer whose use of force resulted in death or substantial bodily injury, a minimum of ______ hours after the incident (unless waived by the subject officer). The subject officer has the right to decline to be interviewed.

Answer 17

48 hours

Question 18

3.210.9 Post-Pursuit Requirements -
A supervisor will:
5. Respond to the termination point and assume responsibility for the scene.
6. Ensure all appropriate notifications are made at the scene.
a. Ensure ________ have been notified when the use of force with vehicle results in death or critical bodily injury (PIT under or over 40 mph and ramming).
b. Notify ________ when the pursuit involves multi-jurisdiction, multiple bureaus/area commands,
and/or the pursuit involves more than ______ officers. ______ will assess the totality of the circumstances to determine whether a response is necessary.
c. Notify ______ when there is significant damage.

Answer 18

CIRT/FIT
CIRT/FIT
5 officers
CIRT/FIT
CIRT/FIT

Question 19

3.210.9 Post-Pursuit Requirements - A supervisor will: Check the area surrounding the termination point for any video surveillance, and obtain a copy (______format, if possible).

Answer 19

mp4

Question 20

3.210.9 Post-Pursuit Requirements - The Communications Bureau research assistant will forward an event number listing of all pursuits to the Risk Management Section at the end of each month and will send a copy of the pursuit recording and event printout to the last primary officer’s bureau/area command, the Office of Internal Oversight supervisor, and the Risk Management Section. The research assistant will retain pursuit recordings for ______ in the event copies are lost, or there are other requests for a recording.

Answer 20

one (1) year

Question 21

The Pursuit Review Committee, chaired by IOCP, will review the Vehicle Pursuit Reports _______ and
prepare an annual analysis report and, when appropriate, make recommendations for policy changes or modifications in the training curriculum. The Internal Affairs Bureau is the repository for the original forms and CAD event recall and tapes.

Answer 21

quarterly

Question 22

3.300 SUPERVISORS TACTIC FOR ARMED SUBJECT RESPONSE (STAR) DE-ESCALATION PROTOCOL - Communications Bureau will:
1. Update the event with “STAR” or “STAR de-escalation protocol” in leading comments. At
completion of the call, update event using STAR code P5 (P5-STAR De-escalation).
2. Advise the area dispatcher and Communications supervisor of STAR de-escalation protocol event.
3. Activate a tone alert and announce a “STAR de-escalation” by voice.
4. Dispatch a minimum of ______ officers to the call.
5. Advise and assign the area supervisor to the event. If an area supervisor is unavailable to respond,
request a sergeant/lieutenant from another area command to respond.

Answer 22

3

Question 23

3.300 SUPERVISORS TACTIC FOR ARMED SUBJECT RESPONSE (STAR) DE-ESCALATION PROTOCOL - Resident Sections: When a sergeant and/or officers (______) are not available to respond to an incident, officers assigned to Resident Sections are exempt from the STAR protocol response.

Answer 23

3

Question 24

3.400.6 Emergency Admissions of Persons with Mental Illness (Legal 2000) - When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE.
a. ______ – Previous legal 2000

Answer 24

CIT1

Question 25

3.400.6 Emergency Admissions of Persons with Mental Illness (Legal 2000) - When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE.
______ – Previous violence toward officers and/or others

Answer 25

CIT2

Question 26

3.400.6 Emergency Admissions of Persons with Mental Illness (Legal 2000) - When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE.
______ – Weapon impounded from or taken off subject

Answer 26

CIT3-
1) Knife
2) Firearm
3) Other

Question 27

3.400.6 Emergency Admissions of Persons with Mental Illness (Legal 2000) - When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE.
______ – Self- or doctor-diagnosed mental disorder

Answer 27

CIT4-
1) Psychosis
2) Bipolar
3) Schizophrenia
4) Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
5) Depression

Question 28

Bomb Threat Stand-Off:
Suicide Bomber, 20lbs
Mandatory Evacuation Distance______
Preferred Evacuation Distance______
Shelter-in-Place Zone______

Answer 28

110’
1700’
111-1699

Question 29

Bomb Threat Stand-Off:
Briefcase/Suitcase, 50lbs
Mandatory Evacuation Distance______
Preferred Evacuation Distance______
Shelter-in-Place Zone______

Answer 29

150’
1850’
151-1849

Question 30

Bomb Threat Stand-Off:
Car, 500lbs
Mandatory Evacuation Distance______
Preferred Evacuation Distance______
Shelter-in-Place Zone______

Answer 30

320’
1900’
321-1899

Question 31

Bomb Threat Stand-Off:
SUV/Van, 1,000lbs
Mandatory Evacuation Distance______
Preferred Evacuation Distance______
Shelter-in-Place Zone______

Answer 31

400’
2400’
401-2399

Question 32

Bomb Threat Stand-Off:
Small Delivery Truck, 4,000lbs
Mandatory Evacuation Distance______
Preferred Evacuation Distance______
Shelter-in-Place Zone______

Answer 32

640’
3800’
641-3799

Question 33

Bomb Threat Stand-Off:
Container/Water Truck, 10,000lbs
Mandatory Evacuation Distance______
Preferred Evacuation Distance______
Shelter-in-Place Zone______

Answer 33

860’
5100’
861-5099

Question 34

Bomb Threat Stand-Off:
Semi-Trailer, 60,000lbs
Mandatory Evacuation Distance______
Preferred Evacuation Distance______
Shelter-in-Place Zone______

Answer 34

1570’
9300’
1571-9299

Question 35

Bomb Threat Stand-Off:
Pipe Bomb, 5lbs
Mandatory Evacuation Distance______
Preferred Evacuation Distance______
Shelter-in-Place Zone______

Answer 35

70’
1200’
71-1199

Question 36

3.520.2 Bomb Threats/Extortions - Done to protect first responders from any possible devices that may be placed to injure, maim, and kill them upon arrival. These searches should be conducted from low-to-high in a 360-degree manner around the “safe area.” This is defined as ______-foot and ______-foot searches.

Answer 36

25-foot and 100-foot searches

Question 37

3.520.7 Handling by Trained Personnel - Field supervisor will: When the ranking field supervisor requests ARMOR, a responsible person from the establishment will be advised, by the field supervisor, of the potential for explosion, and an evacuation of the premises will be initiated. At least ______ floor(s) above and below the device should be evacuated in a high-rise building.

Answer 37

2

Question 38

3.520.10 Reports of Detonation, Scene of Detonation - Patrol officer will:
4. Respond to the scene and provide any emergency assistance as required.
5. Conduct preliminary investigation.
6. Establish, at a minimum, ______foot perimeter from any item that they can visually identify as
evidence.
7. Conduct 25-foot and 100-foot searches around the perimeter for secondary devices.
8. Search CP for secondary devices.
9. Gather and control witnesses and complete voluntary statements.
10. Complete Incident Report.

Answer 38

300 foot

Question 39

4.100.3 NCF (No Charges Filed) Procedures - If the arrest does not meet all the necessary requirements, the charge(s) can be released by filing for NCF. Arrests will not be routinely NCF’d from the Las Vegas City Detention Center. NCF must be done within ________ of the time of arrest in the field (prior to the submission of the arrest information to the DA) otherwise the release must be coordinated directly with the DA (Screening Office 702-455-4721), as the authority to release is out of the control of LVMPD.

Answer 39

48 hours

Question 40

4.102.6 Battery Between Siblings, Cousins, or Current Roommates (Not Constituting Domestic Violence) - NRS states that the officer has discretion to arrest, cite, or give an advisement when there is probable cause to believe a battery was committed within the preceding ________ upon:
1. A person with whom the suspect is residing;
2. A sibling by blood or marriage (if the person is not the custodian or guardian of the sibling);
3. A cousin (if the person is not the custodian or guardian of the cousin).

Answer 40

24 hours

Question 41

4.102.8 Releasing Property of an Arrestee to a Third Party - When property is released to a third party, officers will document the release on LVMPD form 67A – Property Report. The property report must be completed and signed by the third party as directed. The officer will request the presence of a supervisor when:
1. The release of currency to a third party is over $______.
2. The release of non-currency items to a third party appears to be valued over $______.
The supervisor will:
1. Sign LVMPD form 67A – Property Report before the arrestee is transported to the appropriate
detention facility (7/22, 12/22)

Answer 41

Currency over $100
Non-currency over $250

Question 42

4.116 DRIVING/VEHICLE PROCEDURES - Seat Belts - Department members, citizens, and arrestees occupying department vehicles will wear seat belts while the vehicle is in motion (see NRS 484D.495). The only exemption to this is when the vehicle is traveling less than ______ miles per hour and the driver or passenger(s) is expecting to exit the vehicle to take immediate police action once the vehicle has stopped. The use of seatbelt extenders is prohibited. Seat belts will be used when transporting children of any age and a Department of Transportation (DOT)-approved child safety seat will be utilized (see NRS 484B.157 and 4.345, Transporting Children in Child Safety Seats).

Answer 42

15

Question 43

4.116.3 Department Vehicle Collisions and the Vehicle Collision Board (VCB) - A collision is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily
injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of $______ or more.

Answer 43

$750 or more.

Question 44

4.116.3 Department Vehicle Collisions and the Vehicle Collision Board (VCB) - An incident is a separate category from a collision, is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building not
resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of less than $______.

Answer 44

Less than $750

Question 45

Review of Agency Collisions – Vehicle Collision Board (VCB) - Corrective actions; As part of the discipline process, the board will take the following action:
a. The first preventable collision will result in a Contact Report or discipline up to and including
termination, and a minimum of eight hours of remedial driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion.
b. A second preventable collision finding where a member previously received a Contact Report no more than ______ ______ prior, may result in a written reprimand or other discipline up to and
including termination, and a minimum of _______ hours of remedial driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion.
c. A third preventable collision finding where a member previously received two Contact Reports, or received a written reprimand, may result in a written reprimand or other progressive discipline up to and including termination, and a minimum of eight hours of remedial driver’s
training at the VCB’s discretion.
d. A fourth, and any subsequent preventable collision finding will result in a major suspension or
other discipline up to and including termination and a minimum of eight hours of remedial driver’s training at the VCB’s discretion.

Answer 45

12 months
8 hours

Question 46

Department Take-Home Vehicles - The following requirements must be met for authorization of a 24-hour vehicle assignment:
1) Members assigned a take-home vehicle must reside within the urban jurisdiction of LVMPD. The urban area is considered a ______ radius of Clark County beginning at Sahara and Valley View. This includes motorcycles; Resident Section officers are exempt.

Answer 46

25-mile

Question 47

4.196 COMMUNITY RESPONDER OUTREACH - A faith-based/community response initiated by the department when a preliminary investigation of a violent event indicates the strong probability of
retaliation, a violent event that involves youth crews, gangs, or racial tension; an event so egregious that it affects the safety and security of the affected community, despite the fact that there is little or no likelihood of retaliation; or circumstances prior to and/or after civil unrest incident(s) (will not be activated until the scene is stable and deemed safe, which can be up to 48 hours after initial incident).
A CCRO responder’s initial outreach and connection with family of decedent or critically injured person as the result of a crash.

Answer 47

primary activation
(Phase 1)

Question 48

4.196 COMMUNITY RESPONDER OUTREACH - A follow-up event, within 72 hours, to a primary activation held on behalf of, and in, the affected community, conducted in collaboration with community and faith-based partners to promote peace in the aftermath of the violent event. The purpose of such events is to send the message of non-violence; to convey to the community that violent crime in not an acceptable social norm; to create a bridge between citizens and law enforcement; to increase the opportunity for citizens to report criminal activity and increase the department’s ability to solve violent crime; and whenever possible to introduce resources to communities in need by canvassing residents and identifying service gaps. Follow-up outreach by CCRO within 12-24 hours of a fatal or critical-injury crash that assists with the support and needs of the family.

Answer 48

secondary activation
(Phase 2)

Question 49

4.196 COMMUNITY RESPONDER OUTREACH - On a case-by-case basis, at the discretion of RECAP board and bureau commanders, the RECAP message of non-violence is presented at a funeral, prayer vigil, or memorial services of a victim of homicide. Clergy officiating these services may allow law enforcement officials to attend and build further rapport with the community.

Answer 49

funeral and prayer civil call-outs
(Phase 3)

Question 50

5.100 SEARCH AND SEIZURE - A Search Warrant Return is an inventory of items seized pursuant to the execution of a search warrant and returned to the court within ______ calendar days of the court’s authorization.

Answer 50

10 calendar days

Question 51

5.100 SEARCH AND SEIZURE - The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers and effects against unreasonable searches and seizures shall not be violated and no Warrants shall issue but upon probable cause supported by Oath or affirmation and particularly describing the place to be searched and the persons or things to be seized.

Answer 51

The 4th Amendment to the United States Constitution

Question 52

5.100 SEARCH AND SEIZURE - A Search Warrant Return of Service for DNA is an inventory of a biological specimen containing DNA seized from a person pursuant to the execution of a search warrant. Must be returned to the court within ________ of the court’s authorization.

Answer 52

six months

Question 53

5.100.7 Types of Seizures - LVMPD officers may seize persons, residences/structures, vehicles, and property as part of their routine duties. Officers can seize persons with the following legal justifications:
a. Investigative detention ( _______ Rule)
b. Vehicle stops (driver and passengers)
c. Arrest
d. Legal 2000

Answer 53

60-Minute

Question 54

Preparation and Service of a Low-Risk/Non-SWAT Search Warrant (SWAT is not serving the warrant) - The immediate supervisor will, when feasible, establish surveillance (minimum of ______) prior to search warrant service to gain timely intelligence and maximize officer safety.

Answer 54

30 minutes

Question 55

Unserved Search Warrants - Any search warrant that has not been served within ________ will be marked as “not served” in bold letters on the top of the search warrant and will be scanned into OnBase.

Answer 55

10 days

Question 56

Return of service for GPS trackers is a two-part process:
1) The Initial Return, along with the application and affidavit for search warrant, and the GPS Search Warrant Order, must be completed and filed with the court within ________ of
authorization of the warrant.
2) The Final Return must be completed and filed with the court within ________ of concluding GPS tracking and removal of the device.

Answer 56

10 days
10 days

Question 57

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - Patrol Investigations will be notified on all crimes involving Residential/commercial burglaries over $_________

Answer 57

$50,000

Question 58

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - Patrol Investigations will be notified on all crimes involving Grand larceny over ________

Answer 58

$75,000

Question 59

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - The TCB Organized Retail Crime (ORC) Section will be notified, and will take primary investigative responsibility for crimes when the theft is over $________ in value of a retail product(s).

Answer 59

$250,000

Question 60

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - Abuse/Neglect Detail will be notified on all:
1. Children or elders with substantial injuries caused by abuse or neglect
2. All child deaths, including suicides
3. Deaths of elders (______ years of age or older) caused by abuse or neglect

Answer 60

60

Question 61

K9, Traffic, and resident officers responding to calls for service will activate their BWC when they are within ______ ______ of arrival (or at all times when driving Code 3).

Answer 61

two miles

Question 62

7.136.5 BWC Labeling and Retention Periods - Auto-labeling (retention assignment) will only occur if the officer is assigned to an event and clears with the following dispositions:
The retention period begins from the date of recording. Recordings that are not labeled or are not associated with an enforcement action, criminal or internal investigation, or specifically held by the recording officer will automatically be deleted at ______ days.

Answer 62

90 days

Question 63

7.136.5 BWC Labeling and Retention Periods -
Automatic Assignments (disposition based):
A/D 10 Years
B/E 5 Years
K 2 Years
C/L/P/Q/T/Z 1 Year
F/G/H/I/J/M/O/R/S 1 Year
Arrest ______Years

Answer 63

10 years

Question 64

7.136.6 Compliance Reporting, Mandatory Compliance Audits - The BWC Activation Performance Rate (APR) Summary Report is a tool to verify compliance with this policy. The department also utilizes additional reporting measures to assist supervisors in addressing monthly deficiencies in compliance rates. The bureau commander will ensure the BWC APR Summary Report is reviewed by first and second-line supervisors and that the appropriate corrective action is taken. LVMPD has established a minimum activation compliance rate. A percent of assigned time recorded compliance rate threshold will be established each month based on the top ______% rates of users listed on the BWC APR report for each month.

Answer 64

90%

Question 65

BWC Manual Hold Assignments:
Long-Term (OIS, S/A, etc.)
20 years
Mid-Term (Risk Management, Legal 401s)
7 Years
Short-Term (non-BWC evidence)
4 Years
Indefinite (Homicide, pending, NPRA Training) None-Indefinite
Academy Training 6 months
Administrative Functions (Testing Process) ______ Months

Answer 65

18 months

Question 66

7.136.6 Compliance Reporting, Mandatory Compliance Audits - Supervisors will complete the compliance audit by reviewing compliance reports, videos, and CAD reports for the period where a matching video was not auto or manually labeled. The supervisor will document video discrepancies and whether the user complied with or violated policy. Supervisors will address performance issues in adhering to the established minimum compliance rate. When an officer falls below a specified compliance percentage, the sergeant will follow the procedure below. For each event reviewed during the audit process, if justification is found for the compliance issue, the audit will cease for that event:
1. Review officer’s Detailed APR Report for any unmatched videos.
2. Review CAD for officer dispatched and officer cleared times that align with any identified unmatched videos.
3. Review Evidence.com for video evidence without an ID# within the specified CAD timeframes.
4. Review upload times for any uploads that occurred ______ hours after recorded times.
5. Correct any unmatched evidence in Evidence.com by updating ID# with corresponding CAD event.
6. View all unmatched evidence that corresponds with the officer’s CAD times.
7. If clear BWC compliance policy violations are discovered during the audit, document the issue in a
Contact Report. If the problem continues after being documented in a Contact Report, consider
opening a Statement of Complaint.

Answer 66

36 hours

Question 67

7.260 NOTIFICATION MATRIX FOR WATCH COMMANDERS/AREA LIEUTENANTS - 406: When the amount is in excess of $_______.

Answer 67

$100,000

Question 68

7.430 EARLY IDENTIFICATION AND INTERVENTION PROGRAM (EIIP) - EIIP-established thresholds have a period of a rolling calendar year (exception: firearm discharges and SERs, which are established over a rolling ______ ______ period respectively).

Answer 68

30- and 60-month

Question 69

7.430.3 EIIP Alert Process - First-line supervisor will: If a behavioral pattern is identified and there is concern after meeting with the member:
a. Consult with the second-line supervisor to determine the appropriate course of action.
b. Complete the EIIP alert in Blue Team indicating what remedial action was taken and forward to second-line supervisor within ______ ______days of the EIIP alert notification.

Answer 69

14 calendar

Question 70

7.430.3 EIIP Alert Process - Bureau commander will:
1. Review members’ Blue Team dashboards at any time.
2. Receive completed EIIP alert via Blue Team from second-line supervisor.
a. If the alert is approved, forward it to EIIP within ______ ______ days of the EIIP alert notification.
b. If the alert is not approved, send it back to the second-line supervisor with instruction on what
action is to be taken.

Answer 70

45 calendar

Question 71

7.540 NEWS MEDIA AND PUBLIC INFORMATION - Between 1700-0800 hours, media personnel are directed to contact the watch commander regarding crimes in progress. Media personnel are instructed to wait at least ______ minutes for a response before contacting the on-call PIO representative. In the absence of a directed call-out, response will be at the discretion of either the PIO director or sergeant. This is based on the necessity for continuing media updates, safety concerns for citizens and officers, and the shortage of on-scene personnel to manage the media due to the magnitude of an incident.

Answer 71

15 minutes

Question 72

7.540.4 Information Not Released - The determination whether material will be released is based on the test set forth in Donrey v. Bradshaw. Information will not be disclosed if it is either: 1) privileged by law, or 2) the interest in public disclosure is outweighed by privacy or law enforcement interests. Records listed below are generally considered privileged:
1. Names, addresses, and exact location of victims of sexual assault.
2. Personnel information, other than employee name, age, title, place and dates of employment.
3. Records of internal investigations.
4. Names, addresses, and photos of arrestees under age ______, not being tried as adults.
5. The existence or contents of any confession, admission, or statement given by the accused, or
refusal or failure to make any statement.
6. Examination or test results of the accused, or the refusal or failure to submit to an examination or test.
7. The identity, testimony, or credibility of prospective witnesses.
8. Opinions as to an accused person’s guilt or innocence or merits of a case.
9. Information received from other law enforcement agencies (without their approval).

Answer 72

18

Question 73

7.540.8 Response to Officer-Involved Deadly Force Incidents - After a use of deadly force incident, investigators will prepare an internal brief for the Sheriff/Undersheriff. This briefing will occur ______ after the incident; however, the time frame may be extended depending upon the complexity of the case. After the internal briefing, an Assistant Sheriff will conduct a media brief to provide the public with information concerning the event.

Answer 73

72 hours

Question 74

8.166.5 DRUG TESTING METHODOLOGY - In the event of a positive test, the employee may elect to have the split sample tested by an independent testing laboratory. Following the initial notification of a positive result, the employee has _____ hours to inform the MRO of a request to have the split sample tested by an independent testing laboratory specified by the department. (This request will not delay any termination or non-confirmation proceedings.) The Director of Risk Management will advise the initial testing laboratory of the request in written form. To maintain the appropriate chain of custody, split samples will not be released to the employee. The initial testing laboratory will release the sample to a representative of another independent testing laboratory. Results obtained by the other independent testing laboratory will be provided to the LVMPD Forensic Laboratory. The LVMPD Forensic Laboratory will forward the results to the Director of Risk Management.

Answer 74

72 hours

Question 75

8.325.8 Internal Complaint Process - Complainant will:
1. Contact any supervisor, EDS, or IAB to seek assistance in filing a complaint of harassment (sexual or otherwise), discrimination, and/or retaliation.
2. In coordination with EDS, submit a complaint (email, memorandum, Statement of Complaint, verbal interview, etc.) to the EDS director, including all pertinent information relative to the alleged harassment, discrimination, and/or retaliation within ______ days of the last incident. Complaints
submitted after the ______ days will be evaluated on a case-by-case basis, except for the Uniform Service Employment Re-Employment Rights Act of 1994 (USERRA), which has no statute of limitation.

Answer 75

300 days

Question 76

Bureau Command Formal Investigations - Forward a copy of form LVMPD 90, Employee Notification of Internal Investigation, to the appropriate association office.
5. Determine the following with the subject employee:
a. The most expeditious way to send the Employee Notification of Internal Investigation (e.g., email or fax).
b. The most convenient date, time, and place for the interview, which will be scheduled at least ______ hours after this notification, excluding non-working days. If the employee decides to speak with the supervisor immediately after notice is given and waives their rights with reasonable notice, the interview will only proceed if either an association representative or the employee’s attorney is available to attend. There will be specific documentation that the employee has waived their rights and the waiver will be acknowledged and recorded either in writing or on tape by the employee or their representative.

Answer 76

48 hours

Question 77

8.330 Formal Discipline - All authority to apply formal discipline is derived from the Office of the Sheriff. The process outlined below does not apply to discipline arising from the Vehicle Collision Board or the Use of Force Review Board/Tactical Review Board. When formal discipline is the method chosen: If the complaint is not already resolved with a supervisory intervention, OLR will:
1. Immediately review the IAB case, the Disciplinary Decision Guide, and any applicable comparable discipline (historical discipline for the same/similar policy violation within the past ______ ______).
2. Discuss adjudication options with the chain of command and ensure that the discipline is in
compliance with the Disciplinary Decision Guide. Deviations from the guide must be approved by the involved employee’s division commander in concurrence with the Assistant Sheriff of the Law Enforcement Administration and Detention Group.

Answer 77

five years

Question 78

8.330 Formal Discipline - All authority to apply formal discipline is derived from the Office of the Sheriff. The process outlined below does not apply to discipline arising from the Vehicle Collision Board or the Use of Force Review Board/Tactical Review Board. When formal discipline is the method chosen: If the complaint is not already resolved with a supervisory intervention, OLR will:
3. Within ______ days of receipt of the disposition (or ______ days if a pre-discipline meeting is conducted), make a recommendation of adjudication.

Answer 78

30 calendar days
45 days

Question 79

8.330 Formal Discipline - All authority to apply formal discipline is derived from the Office of the Sheriff. The process outlined below does not apply to discipline arising from the Vehicle Collision Board or the Use of Force Review Board/Tactical Review Board. When formal discipline is the method chosen: If the complaint is not already resolved with a supervisory intervention, OLR will:
Work with bureau commander to draft AOC. Ensure AOCs are completed within ______days of an
official determination of discipline (i.e., after notice of intent process, pre-discipline meeting, Discipline Board, etc.).

Answer 79

21 days

Question 80

8.330 Formal Discipline - If subject employee is a PMSA bargaining member, bureau commander at the time of incident will:
1. Immediately review the IAB case, the Disciplinary Decision Guide, and any applicable comparable discipline.
2. Work with the IAB lieutenant on any case discrepancies.
3. Work with OLR to complete the AOC to ensure the consistent application of disciplinary measures.
4. Within 30 calendar days of receipt of the disposition (or 45 days if a pre-discipline meeting is conducted), determine recommendation for adjudication.
5. If a Written Reprimand is recommended, coordinate with OLR to send a notice of intent to issue discipline to the employee and representative. The employee has ______ business days to respond
to the notice of intent. At the expiration of the ______ days, if a determination has been made to issue the Written Reprimand, work with OLR to complete the AOC.

Answer 80

10 business days

Question 81

Protest and Civil Disorder AAR: A total of 77 protest events took place between May 29 and July 31, 2020. The size of these events varied greatly with numbers between ______ and ______ protesters. Most took place on the Las Vegas Strip in the Convention Center Area Command (CCAC) or in Downtown Las Vegas within the Downtown Area Command (DTAC).

Answer 81

6 and 5,000

Question 82

Protest and Civil Disorder AAR: This after‐action report includes a chronology of the early days of the protests, followed by an analysis in order to shed light on the acute public safety challenges brought about by a unique set of socio‐political and environmental factors, while also presenting lessons learned. The purpose is to better inform LVMPD, community stakeholders, elected officials, and the public about what occurred, and help identify potential improvements in six assessment areas.
The six assessment areas are:

Answer 82

1. Event Preplanning
   (Policy, Incident Action Plans [IAPs], information gathering, and training)
2. Staffing
   (Command and control, overtime, and sustainability over an extended period)
3. Communication
   (Internal; external; interaction with professional members of the media and legal observers; and dispersal
   orders)
4. Tactics
   (Skirmish lines, vehicles, staging areas, pre‐deployment of officers, National Guard, and violent extremists)
5. Use of Force
   (Use of aerosol irritants)
6. Arrest Procedures
   (Event number, documentation, and coordination; internal oversight and citizen complaints)

Question 83

Protest and Civil Disorder AAR: LVMPD has a workforce of more than 4,100 commissioned police and corrections officers and 1,700 civilian personnel. In partnership with other public and private organizations, the Department is responsible for safeguarding nearly 2.2 million residents and more than 42 million annual visitors over an area of ______ square miles.

Answer 83

7,560

Question 84

WC Manual - Each WC will provide a Watch Commander Log at the end of their shift. Remember the 5-C’s of good reporting.

Answer 84

• Clear–Avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations. Use plain language.
• Concise–Don’t make the input wordy or try to fill space.
• Complete–Content must paint an accurate picture of what has taken place.
• Current–Information will cover the current reporting period.
• Critical–The input must relay critical events and activities.

Question 85

USE OF FORCE AND VEHICLE PURSUIT ANNUAL 5-YEAR STATISTICAL REPORT: In 2022, LVMPD jurisdictional population was 1,676,087 and 1,480,183 events were generated. An LVMPD officer-involved shooting (OIS) occurred in 0.0009% (14) of these events. Over 5 years, OIS incidents ranged from a low of 10 to a high of 22 and subjects were armed in ______% of the incidents. There has been an increase in on-scene supervision during OISs and most officers involved had 1-5 years of tenure, were classified as a Police Officer II (PO-II) and assigned to patrol.

Answer 85

96%

Question 86

USE OF FORCE AND VEHICLE PURSUIT ANNUAL 5-YEAR STATISTICAL REPORT: 2022 saw 14 Officer Involved Shootings. 13 of these subjects were armed. ______ had a firearm, a 25% increase over 2021.

Answer 86

10

Question 87

USE OF FORCE AND VEHICLE PURSUIT ANNUAL 5-YEAR STATISTICAL REPORT: 2022 saw 14 Officer Involved Shootings. 13 of these subjects were armed. 10 OIS’s had a supervisor on scene. A _____% increase over 2021.

Answer 87

43%

Question 88

USE OF FORCE AND VEHICLE PURSUIT ANNUAL 5-YEAR STATISTICAL REPORT: 2022 saw 8 fatal Officer Involved Shootings. A _____% increase over 2021. In 2022, 57% of OISs had fatal outcomes. When compared to the percentage of OISs with fatal outcomes in 2021, this is a decrease of 3 percentage points.

Answer 88

33%

Question 89

USE OF FORCE AND VEHICLE PURSUIT ANNUAL 5-YEAR STATISTICAL REPORT: during the 5-year statistical period, most OIS’s occurred in August, on Fridays, during ______-______hours. Most OIS’s occur 6 or more minutes after being dispatched.

Answer 89

2000-2359 hours

Question 90

USE OF FORCE AND VEHICLE PURSUIT ANNUAL 5-YEAR STATISTICAL REPORT: In 2022 there were ______ total vehicle pursuits.

Answer 90

82

Question 91

Protest Safety, Certain items are considered to be weapons and are prohibited, including:
Wood/lumber larger than?

Answer 91

½” thick and 2” wide

Question 92

Protest Safety, Certain items are considered to be weapons and are prohibited, including:
Metal or plastic pipe unless less than ______ thick and hollow used to support a banner or flag

Answer 92

½”

Question 93

Protest Safety, Certain items are considered to be weapons and are prohibited, including:
Aerosol spray, mace, or pepper spray unless ____________ or less

Answer 93

0.5 ounce

Question 94

Protest Safety: When will a dispersal order be issued?
An order to disperse will only be given if illegal activity is occurring in the protest.
* Weapons, traffic violations, and other activity described above are all considerations before declaring an assembly as unlawful.
* Only a uniformed officer may give a dispersal order.
* The order will be read in both English and Spanish at _______ intervals when possible.
* The dispersal order may be repeated depending on the acts being committed, and action may be taken after the first warning.

Answer 94

10-minute

Question 95

The standard ECD cartridge can be deployed from ______ feet.

Answer 95

4-14 feet

Question 96

The ECD “standoff” cartridge can be deployed from ______ feet.

Answer 96

12-22 feet