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N301 Q#1 Pharmacology Foundation Principles Flashcards

(32 cards)

1
Q

____: any fxnl macromolecule in or on a cell to which a drug binds to produce it’s effects.

A

Receptor

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2
Q

Pharmacodynamics begins where?

A

at binding site or site of action

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3
Q

Binding of a drug to its receptor is usually ____. The receptor must be ___ to influence cellular fxn.
Receptor activity is regulated by ____ compounds.

A
  1. reversible
  2. on
  3. endogenous
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4
Q

Endogenous compounds are?

A

neurotransmitters, hormones and other regulatory mlcls.

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5
Q

Drugs either ___ or block the action of the body’s own regulatory molecules. Drugs produce therapeutic effects by helping the body use it’s pre-existing ___.

A

Mimic

capacities

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6
Q

What are the 4 types of receptor families?

A
  1. cell membrane-embedded enzymes
  2. ligand-gated ion channels
  3. G Protein-coupled receptor systems
  4. transcription factors
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7
Q

____: receptors located on the cells surface, binding of an ___ activates the enzyme resulting in rapid ___. Provide an example.

A

Cell membrane embedded enzymes
agonist
response
Insulin

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8
Q

_____: receptors that span the cell membrane and regulate the flow in and out of cells. Each one is for a specific ___. Several neurotransmitters including ___ and ____ act thru this type of receptor.

A

ligand-gated ion channels
ion
ACH and GABA

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9
Q

G-protein coupled receptor systems bind an agonist drug that activates the ____ which activates ___ which then activates its effector. rapid response results. Which ligands act through these receptors?

A

receptor
G-protein
NE, serotonin, histamine

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10
Q

_____: are receptors that are found within the cell (not on the surface). They have ____ response. An agonist drug activates the receptor by stimulating ___ which spurs protein synthesis. What hormone acts through this receptor type?

A

Transcription factors
delayed
mRNA
Thyroid hormone

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11
Q

True or False: the more selective a drug the greater the side effects.
Selectivity does not guarantee ____.

A

False. less side effects

safety

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12
Q

simple occupancy theory is a drug-receptor ____. The ___ of the response to the drug is proportional to the number of receptors occupied by that drug. A maximal response will occur when all available receptors have been ____.

A

interaction
intensity
occupied

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13
Q

____ occupancy theory explains why simple occupancy doesn’t work. Because of ___ and Intrinsic activity

A

Modified

affinity

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14
Q

___: the strength of the attraction b/w a drug and its receptor. High affinity drugs have a ___ attraction for receptor sites, they are also very ___. Drugs with low affinity have to be present in high ____ to elicit a response and are therefore ___ potent.

A
Affinity
strong
potent
concentrations
less
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15
Q

____: the ability of a drug to activate a receptor on binding. High IA have high maximal ___ and produce an ___ response b/c they cause intense receptor ____.

A

Intrinsic Activity
efficacy
intense
activation

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16
Q

Intrinsic activity of a drug is reflected by its maximal _____. IA only applies to ____.

A

efficacy

agonists

17
Q

True or False: affinity applies to both agonists and antagonists while intrinsic affinity only applies to agonists.

18
Q

The intensity of response is still related to the number of ___ but the intensity is also related to the ability of the drug to ___ receptors once binding has occurred.

A

receptors

activate

19
Q

antagonists have ___ for a receptor but have no intrinsic activity. Affinity permits receptor binding and lack of IA prevents receptor ___.

A

affinity

activation

20
Q

Define Noncompetitive antagonists

A

bind irreversibly to receptors reducing the total number of receptors available to an agonist.

21
Q

noncompetitive antagonists bind irreversibly, will this last indefinitely?

A

No, it will only last for the life of the receptor which is usually only a few days.

22
Q

Competitive antagonist bind ____. If an agonist and antagonist have equal ___ for a receptor, then the receptor will be occupied by whichever agent is present in highest ____.

A

reversibly
affinity
concentration

23
Q

A partial agonist has moderate ____. Therefore maximal effect is lower than a full agonist. Partial agonists can act as agonists if no full agonist is present OR as an _____ if a full agonist is present.

A

intrinsic activity

antagonist

24
Q

If you introduce a full agonist while a partial agonist is on board, will you get a response? Example: if you prescribe pentazocine (partial agonist) and don’t d/c the pentazocine before starting morphine, the patient will or will not get the full affect of the morphine?

A

NO, the partial agonist will act as an antagonist

Will not, the pentazocine is occupying the opioid receptors.

25
_____ results from continuous exposure of cell receptors to an agonist. ____ results from continuous exposure of a cell receptors to an antagonist.
Desensitization | Hypersensitivity
26
What do antacids, antiseptics, saline laxatives and chelating agents have in common?
They do not act via receptors.
27
ED50?
The average effective dose for 50% of the population. The remaining 50% will be under or over treated with the initial dose.
28
Define the following pregnancy categories: | A, B, C, D and X
A: 100% safe B: remote risk C: wild card, wasn't tested D and X: BAD proven risk
29
Based on research for teratogenic effects on the fetus, up to 60 days after ____ adverse effects will result in gross malformations. Exposure later in pregnancy results in _____ impairment or cognitive defects. Within week 1 or 2 fetus will either die from exposure or will survive. all or nothing.
implantation | functional
30
Pediatrics are more sensitive to drug therapy due to organ system ____ while elderly are sensitive due to organ system ____.
immaturity | degeneration
31
Peds have differences in ____ and distribution. They have a higher ___ content, immature ____ and limited ____ capacity.
absorption water blood-brain barrier protein binding
32
Peds also have lower drug ____ capacity because the ____ is immature. Adult ____ levels are acheived by age one.
metabolism liver excretion