NASM CPT Study Guide Deck Flashcards
1
Q
Nervous System
A
The body’s communication network
2
Q
What is this?
A
Nervous System
3
Q
Define Central Nervous System
A
brain and spinal cord; coordinates activity of the body.
4
Q
What is this?
A
Central Nervous System
5
Q
Define Peripheral Nervous System
A
nerves connecting the CNS to the rest of the body and environment.
6
Q
What is the nervous system made up of?
A
Central Nervous System
Peripheral Nervous System
7
Q
What does this image represent?
A
The peripheral nervous system
8
Q
What is the Peripheral Nervous System subdivided into?
A
Autonomic Nervous System
Somatic Nervous System
9
Q
What are the functions of the nervous system?
A
Sensory (changes in the environment)
Integrative (analyze and interpret)
Motor (neuromuscular response)
10
Q
Define Somatic Nervous System
A
Part of the peripheral nervous system
Serves outer areas of the body and skeletal muscle
Voluntary control
11
Q
What is the Autonomic Nervous System?
A
Involuntary systems (heart, digestion, etc.)
Part of the peripheral nervous system
Divided into Parasympathetic & Sympathetic
12
Q
What does this image represent?
A
The autonomic nervous system
13
Q
What does the Parasympathetic Nervous System do?
A
Decreases activation during rest and recovery
“rest and digest”
14
Q
What does the Sympathetic Nervous System do?
A
Increases activation to prepare for an activity.
“fight or flight”
15
Q
What is a neuron?
A
functional unit of the nervous system
16
Q
What do motor (efferent) neurons do?
A
Transmit nerve impulses from CNS to effector sites.
17
Q
What do sensory (afferent) neurons do?
A
Respond to stimuli; transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to CNS
18
Q
What do mechanoreceptors do?
A
sense distortion in body tissues
19
Q
What do joint receptors do?
A
respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joints.
20
Q
What are golgi tendon organs?
A
Sense changes in muscle tension.
21
Q
What are muscle spindles?
A
Sense changes in muscle length (stretch)
22
Q
What is a tendon?
A
connect muscle to bone; provide anchor for muscles to produce force.
23
Q
What is fascia?
A
outer layer of connective tissue surrounding a muscle
24
Q
What are fascicles?
A
bundle of individual muscle fibers
25
Describe a muscle fiber
cellular components and myofibrils encased in a plasma membrane
26
Describe a sarcomere
produces muscular contraction; repeating sections of actin and myosin.
27
Describe the **sliding filament theory.**
thick and thin filaments slide past one another, shortening the entire sarcomere.
28
Describe Type I (slow twitch) muscle tissue
smaller size
fatigue slowly
29
Describe Type II (fast twitch) muscle tissue
larger size
quick to produce maximal tension
fatigue quickly
30
What is a **motor unit**?
one motor neuron and the muscle fibers it connects with
(one motor unit innervates many muscle fibers)
31
What is **neural activation**?
contraction of a muscle generated by neural stimulation
32
What muscles does the **local stabilization system** consist of, and where do they attach?
attach directly to vertebrae
Consists of: transverse abdominis, internal oblique, multifidus, pelvic floor, diaphragm.
TAIO MPD
33
What muscles does the **global stabilization system** consist of, and where do they attach?
attach from pelvis to spine
Consists of: quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external oblique, rectus abdominis, gluteus medius, adductor complex, portions of internal oblique.
QL Ps EO RA GM AC IO
QLP EORAGMACIO
34
What muscles does the **movement system** consist of, and where do they attach?
attach spine and/or pelvis to extremities
Consists of: latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps
35
What does the **axial skeleton** consist of?
skull, rib cage, and vertebral column
36
What does the **appendicular skeleton** consist of?
upper and lower extremities, shoulder and pelvic girdles.
37
What are the functions of the skeletal system?
supports body
protects organs
allows bodily movement
produces blood
stores minerals
38
What are skeletal **depressions**?
aka "fossa"
flattened or indented portions of a bone; can be muscle attachment sites.
39
What is a bone process?
projection protruding from a bone
muscles, tendons, and ligaments can attach.
40
What are **ligaments**?
connects bone to bone
little blood supply
slow to heal.
41
Define **Non-synovial joints**
no joint cavity, connective tissue, or cartilage
little to no movement (e.g., sutures of the skull)
42
Define **synovial joints**.
held together by joint capsule and ligaments
associated with movement
43
What are the major types of motion of joints?
roll
slide
spin
44
Name the **hinge** joints, and in what plane of motion they work?
elbows, ankles
sagittal plane movement
45
Name the **ball and socket joints** and their planes of motion.
shoulders, hips
most mobile, all three planes of motion
46
What is the **endocrine system**?
system of glands
secretes hormones to regulate bodily function
47
What does estrogen influence?
influences fat deposition on hips, buttocks, and thighs
48
What is growth hormone?
anabolic hormone
responsible for bodily growth up until puberty
49
What does insulin do?
regulates energy and glucose metabolism in the body
50
What does the cardiovascular system consist of?
heart, blood, and blood vessels
51
Describe the **cardiac muscle.**
shorter, more tightly connected than skeletal muscle; involuntary
52
What are the atria?
smaller, superior chambers of the heart; receive blood from veins.
53
What does the **right atrium** do?
gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart
54
What does the **left atrium** do?
gathers oxygenated blood from the lungs
55
What is the **Sinoatrial (SA) node** and what does it do?
located in right atrium
initiates impulse for heart rate
“pacemaker for the heart”
56
What are **ventricles** and what do they do?
larger, inferior (lower) chambers of the heart
pump blood out.
57
What does the **right ventricle** do?
pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs
58
What does the **left ventricle** do?
pumps oxygenated blood to the body
59
What do **arteries** do?
Carry blood **away** from the heart
60
What do **veins** do?
Carry blood **back to** the heart.
61
What are **arterioles**?
small branches of arteries; end in capillaries.
62
What are **capillaries**?
smallest blood vessels
site of gas, chemical, and water exchange
63
What are **venules**?
very small veins
connect capillaries to veins
64
What is stroke volume?
amount of blood pumped with each contraction.
65
What is heart rate?
the rate at which the heart pumps
average untrained adult = 70-80 bpm.
66
Define cardiac output
volume of blood pumped per minute
heart rate × stroke volume
67
What does the **respiratory system** do?
brings in oxygen, removes CO2
68
What are the **primary inspiratory** muscles?
—diaphragm, external intercostals.
69
What are the **secondary inspiratory** muscles?
scalenes, pectoralis minor, sternocleidomastoid
70
Describe expiration.
relaxing inspiratory muscles (passive), contracting expiratory muscles (active) to move air out.
71
What are the **expiratory muscles**?
internal intercostals, abdominals
72
What is the **Resting oxygen consumption (VO2)** formula?
3.5 ml × kg-1 × min-1 = 1 metabolic equivalent (MET)
73
What is Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max)?
highest rate of oxygen transport & use at max exertion.
74
What are **bioenergetics**?
study of energy in the human body.
75
What is the **anaerobic threshold**?
where the body can no longer produce enough energy with normal oxygen intake.
76
What is Excess post oxygen consumption (EPOC)?
elevation of metabolism after exercise.
77
Describe the body's energy systems.
78
Describe **biomechanics**.
science concerned with internal and external forces acting on the body
79
Describe **force**
influence applied by one object to another
accelerates or decelerates the second object
80
Describe **torque**
a force that produces rotation
## Footnote
*The closer the load to the point of rotation, the less torque it creates (i.e., bent arm is easier than straight arm)*
81
What is a **lever**, and what are the three classes?
rigid “bar” that rotates around a stationary fulcrum
1st class—fulcrum in middle (nodding head)
2nd class—resistance in the middle (calf raise)
3rd class—effort in the middle (biceps curl); most common in human limbs.
82
What is a 1st class lever?
fulcrum in middle (nodding head)
83
What is a 2nd class lever?
resistance in the middle (calf raise)
84
What is a 3rd class lever?
effort in the middle (biceps curl); most common in human limbs
85
Describe the **superior** anatomic location.
**above** a POR
86
Describe the **inferior** anatomic location.
**below** a POR
87
Describe the **proximal** anatomic location.
nearest to a POR
88
Describe the **distal** anatomic location.
farthest from a POR
89
Describe the contralateral anatomic location.
on the opposite side of the body
90
Describe the ispilateral anatomic location.
same side of the body
91
name the 3 planes of motion
frontal
sagittal
transverse
92
What are the motions in the **frontal** plane?
Adduction/abduction
Lateral flexion
Eversion/inversion
93
Give examples of frontal plane exercises
side lunge, lateral raise,
94
What are the motions in the **sagittal** plane?
flexion & extension
95
Give examples of sagittal plane movements.
bicep curl, back squat, deadlift
96
What are the motions of the **transverse** plane?
Rotation
Horizontal adduction/abduction
97
Give examples of transverse plane motion
Throwing, golfing, swinging a bat, trunk rotation
(rotational exercises)
98
What is **flexion**?
bending movement
decreases relative angle between segments
99
What is **extension**?
straightening movement
increases relative angle between segments.
100
What are plantarflexion & dorsiflexion?
plantarflexion = extension at the ankle
dorsiflexion = flexion at the ankle
101
What is horizontal abduction?
transverse plane arm movement from anterior to lateral (e.g. chest flies)
(move away from midline)
102
Describe horizontal adduction.
transverse plane arm movement from lateral to anterior.
103
describe internal rotation
rotation toward the middle of the body
104
describe external rotation
rotation away from midline of body
105
What is the length-tension relationship?
resting length of a muscle and the tension it can produce at that length
## Footnote
*\*Visualize a fighter trying to throw a punch into a heavy bag, but they are too close or too far away to land it with optimal force.*
106
Describe **force couple**
muscles working together to produce movement
107
Describe the force-velocity curve
as the velocity of a contraction increases, concentric force decreases and eccentric force increases.
108
What is Neuromuscular efficiency?
ability to produce and reduce force, and stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion
109
What is Structural efficiency?
**alignment** of musculoskeletal system that allows **center of gravity** to be **maintained** over a base of support
110
What is Davis’s law?
soft tissue models along the lines of stress
111
Describe autogenic inhibition
neural impulses that sense tension are greater than impulses that cause muscles contraction
muscle spindles inhibition
112
Describe reciprocal inhibition
contracting one muscle & relaxing its antagonist to allow movement
113
Describe Relative flexibility
tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance.
114
Describe pattern overload
consistently repeating the same motion
places abnormal stresses on the body
115
Postural distortion patterns
predictable patterns of muscle imbalances
116
Describe altered reciprocal inhibition
inhibition caused by a tight agonist, which in turn decreases neural drive to its functional antagonist.
(aka, altered length-tension)
e.g., hip flexor overactive leads to decreased strength/neural drive to glute max. this leads to synergistic dominance of hamstrings (they take over)
117
Describe Synergistic dominance
inappropriate (synergistic) muscle takes over the function of a weak/inhibited prime mover
(aka, altered force-couple)
e.g., Inhibition of gluteus maximus may lead to synergistic dominance of the biceps femoris (hamstring) during hip extension.
118
Describe muscle imbalance
alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint
119
Describe the cumulative injury cycle
Tissue trauma --\> inflammation --\> muscle spasm --\> adhesions --\> alterered neuromuscular control --\> muscle imbalance --\> cycle continues
120
Describe stabilization
ability to maintain postural equilibrium and support joints during movement
121
Describe strength
ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external force.
122
Describe strength endurance
ability to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods
123
Describe maximal strength
max force production in a single effort
124
Describe muscular hypertrophy
enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers from resistance training.
125
Describe Power
ability to produce the greatest force in the shortest time
(max force in shortest amount of time)
126
What are the 5 phases of the OPT Model?
1. Stabilization
2. Strength endurance
3. Maximal Strength
4. Muscular Hypertrophy
5. Power
127
What is motor control?
how the CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences
128
What is motor learning?
integration of motor control process through practice
leads to relatively permanent change to produce skilled movement
129
What is motor development?
the change in motor skill development over a lifespan
130
Describe sensorimotor integration
nerves & muscles work together to gather & interpret information to produce movement
131
What are muscle synergies?
groups of muscles recruited by the CNS to produce movement
132
What is **proprioception**?
cumulative sensory input from all the mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movement
133
What is internal feedback?
the body uses sensory information to monitor movement and react to the environment
134
What is external feedback?
information from an external source to supplement internal environment (e.g., mirror, PT, etc.)
135
What is soluble fiber?
Dissolves in water
helps moderate blood glucose; lowers cholesterol
136
What is insoluble fiber?
doesn't dissolve in water
137
What is glucose?
simple sugar
made endogenously (in the body) from carb, fat, protein
main fuel source
138
What is glycogen?
complex carb used to store energy in the liver & muscles
139
What's the difference between glucose and glycogen?
glucose = energy source made in body
glycogen = storage form of glucose
140
What is the glycemic index?
rate at which certain carb sources raise blood sugar & effect on insulin release
141
What is considered high GI range?
\>70
142
What is considered low GI range?
\<55
143
Give examples of monounsaturated fat
olive oil
avocado
peanuts
144
Give examples of polyunsaturated fats
sunflower oil
soy oil
omega 3s
145
Give examples of saturated fat
dairy
meat
coconut oil
146
What are the functions of lipids? (think of 8)
1. cellular membrance structure & function
2. hormone precursor
3. cellular signaling
4. nutrient regulation
5. organ protection
6. body insulation (temp regulation)
7. prolongs digestion
8. aids in satiety
147
What does saturated fat do in the body?
raises LDL cholesterol
148
What does trans fat do in the body?
Raises LDL, lowers HDL
149
What does unsaturated fat do in the body?
Raises HDL cholesterol
150
Protein = amino acids linked by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
peptide bonds
151
What are essential amino acids?
amino acids that must be obtained from food (cannot be manufactured by the body)
152
Name the essential amino acids
PVT TIM HALL
Phenylalanine
Valine
Threonine
Tryptophan
Isoleucine
Methionine
Histidine
Arginine
Leucine
Lysine
153
Describe nonessential amino acids
can be manufactured by the body
154
What is an incomplete protein?
Contains less than all 8 essential amino acids in appropriate ratios
155
What % of the body is made up of water?
60%
156
How much water is it recommended that men and women drink per day?
3L for men
2.2L for women
157
What does dehydration cause?
Affects circulatory function
Decreases performance
158
Define **calorie**.
Amount of heat energy required to raise temperature of 1g of water by 1 degree Celsius
159
What are the protein recommendations for sedentary adults?
0.8g/kg per day
160
What are the protein intake recommendations for strength athletes?
1.2 - 1.7g/kg per day
161
What is the recommended protein intake for endurance athletes?
1.2 - 1.4g/kg per day
162
What is the recommended carb intake?
6-10g/kg per day
163
What is an ergogenic aid?
Something that aids athletic performance
164
What does creatine do?
made in the body (endogenous)
increases muscle mass, strength, & anaerobic performance
165
What are the caffeine recommendations for performance?
3 - 6mg/kg 1 hour before exercise
166
What is the PAR-Q?
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
determines safety/risk of exercise
identifies those that need medical evaluation
any YES's = refer to doctor
167
What can extended periods of sitting lead to?
tight hip flexors
rounded shoulders
forward protruding head
168
What can repetitive movement patterns lead to?
pattern overload
169
What can wearing dress shoes lead to?
constant plantarflexion leads to:
tight gastrocnemius, soleus, & Achilles tendon
decreases dorsiflexion & over-pronation
170
Ankle sprains decrease neural control to...?
gluteus maximus
gluteus medius
171
Knee injuries decrease neural control to...?
muscles that stabilize kneecap
172
Non-contact knee injuries are often the result of...?
ankle or hip dysfunction
173
Low back pain can cause decreased neural control to which group of muscles?
core stabilization muscles
174
Shoulder injury alters neural control of the...
rotator cuff
175
How do beta-blockers affect the body?
decrease BP & HR
176
What are submaximal tests?
assessments to estimate VO2max
help determine cardiorespiratory training starting point
177
What are the two methods for estimating max heart rate?
HRmax = 220 - age (less accurate)
HRmax = 208 - (0.7 x age) (more accurate)
178
Describe the YMCA 3 minute step test
96 steps per minute on 12 inch step up (box) for 3 minutes
take recovery pulse within 5 seconds of stopping
179
Describe the Rockport walk test
Walk 1 mile AFAP
Immediately record HR
Calculate VO2 score
180
What is radial pulse?
measuring pulse with 2 fingers along right side of arm, in line with the thumb
181
What is the average HR for men & women?
70-80 bpm
182
What is systolic BP?
pressure in arteries after heart contracts
183
What's a healthy systolic BP?
\<120 mm HG
184
What is diastolic BP?
pressure in arteries when heart rests and filling with blood
185
What is a healthy diastolic BP?
less than 80 mm Hg
186
What is **pronation distortion syndrome?**
foot pronation
knee internal rotation & adduction
(combo of upper & lower crossed syndrome)
187
What should you look for in pronation distortion syndrome?
do feet flatten and turn out?
do the knees adduct and internally rotate?
188
Which muscles are overactive/tight/shortened in pronation distortion syndrome? (7)
1. peroneals
2. gastrocnemius
3. soleus
4. IT band
5. hamstring (biceps femoris short head)
6. adductors
7. TFL (hip flexor complex)
PIG SHAT
189
Which muscles are underactive/weak/lengthened in pronation distortion syndrome?
tibia (anterior/posterior tibialis)
vastus medialis (VMO)
Glutes (medius/maximus)
hip external rotators (abductors)
190
describe **lower crossed syndrome**
anterior pelvic tilt (arched lower back)
191
What distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?
decreased oxygen delivery
192
The body's ability to differentiate between walking on concrete and walking on sand is an example of which function of the nervous system?
Sensory
193
What is true of type I, or slow-twitch, muscle fibers?
They contain more capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than type II muscle fibers.
194
What muscles are overactive/tight in lower crossed syndrome?
hip flexor complex (psoas, rectus femoris, tensor fascia latae)
adductor complex
latissimus dorsi
erector spinae
gastrocnemius
soleus
195
What muscles are underactive/weak in lower crossed syndrome?
gluteus maximus
gluteus medius
transversus abdominus
internal oblique
anterior tibialis
posterior tibialis
PIG TAG - lower crossed syndrome
196
What is the rep range for the strength endurance phase?
12 to 20 reps at
197
What is the rep range for the hypertrophy phase?
6-12 reps at 75-85% 1RM
198
What is the rep range and % 1RM for maximal strength?
1 - 5 reps at 85 - 100% 1RM
199
What is the rep range and % 1RM for the power phase?
1 to 10 reps at 30-45% 1RM
200
What is the rep range and intensity for the stabilization phase?
12-20 reps at 50-70% 1RM.
201
What is the rest time in the muscular endurance and stabilization phase?
0 to 90 seconds
202
What is the rest time in the hypertrophy phase?
0 to 60 seconds
203
What is the rest time in the max strength phase?
3 to 5 minutes
204
What is the rest time in the power phase?
3 to 5 minutes
205
20 to 30 seconds allows approx \_\_% recovery of ATP and PC
50%
206
40 secs allows \_\_% recovery of ATP and PC
75%
207
60 seconds allows approx __ to \_\_% recovery of ATP and PC
85 to 90%
208
3 minutes allows \_\_% recovery of ATP and PC
100%
209
Arterioles branch out into vessels know as what?
capillaries
210
What may be the best measure of cardiorespiratory fitness?
Max O2 consumption
211
What is the vessel that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart?
Veins
212
Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which vessels?
pulmonary arteries
213
As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force increases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?
Eccentric
214
Scapular elevation refers to what motions of the scapula?
superior
215
Scapular protraction refers to which movement of the scapula?
abduction
216
What muscles are overactive/tight in upper crossed syndrome?
upper traps
levator scapulae
sternocleidomastoid
scalenes
lats
teres major
subscapularis
pec major/minor
217
What muscles are underactive/weak in upper crossed syndrome?
deep cervical flexors
serratus anterior
rhomboids
midde and lower traps
teres minor
infraspinatus
218
Describe Bioelectrical impedance
conducts electrical current through the body to estimate fat content.
219
What does the Davies test assess?
assesses upper extremity stability and agility.
220
What does the shark skill test assess?
assesses lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control
221
What does the bench press test assess?
estimates 1-rep maximum on overall upper body strength of pressing musculature
222
What does the squat test assess?
estimates 1-rep squat maximum and overall lower body strength.
223
What does the push up test assess?
measures muscular endurance of the upper body; primarily pushing muscles.
224
What does the LEFT test assess?
assesses agility, acceleration, deceleration, and neuromuscular control.
225
What is corrective flexibility?
increases joint range of motion, improves muscle imbalances, and corrects altered joint motion
autogenic inhibition
use for Phase 1 training.
226
What is active flexibility?
improves extensibility of soft tissue and increases neuromuscular efficiency;
reciprocal inhibition;
use for Phases 2, 3, and 4 training
227
What is functional flexibility?
maintains integrated, multiplanar soft tissue extensibility and optimal neuromuscular control;
full ROM; dynamic stretching
use for Phase 5 training.
228
Describe self-myofascial release
gentle pressure breaks up knots within muscle and helps release unwanted tension
autogenic inhibition
229
Describe static stretching
passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds
autogenic inhibition.
230
Describe active-isolated stretching
uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move joints into a range of motion
reciprocal inhibition
231
Describe dynamic stretching
uses force production and momentum to move joints through full ranges of motion
reciprocal inhibition.
232
What is a drop set?
Perform a set to failure, remove small percentage of load, then continue with set.
233
Describe Peripheral heart action training
variation of circuit training; alternates upper- and lower-body exercises to improve circulation
234
Describe vertical loading
performing exercises on the OPT template one after the other, in a vertical manner down the template
235
Describe horizontal loading
performing all sets for an exercise or body part before moving on to the next
236
Describe Stabilization (Phase 1) - tempo, style, etc.
4/2/1 tempo, lower weight, and higher reps in an unstable, but controlled, environment
237
Describe the Strength phase (Phase 2,3,4) - tempo, intensity, reps, etc.
2/0/2 tempo, moderate to heavy weight, low to moderate reps with full range of motion
238
Describe the Power phase (phase 5)
Explosive tempo, light weight, moderate reps with full range of motion
239
What is stage training?
progressive cardio training that ensures continual adaptation and minimizes the risk of overtraining and injury.
240
Describe Stage I in stage training.
used to improve cardio for apparently healthy sedentary individuals.
* Uses HR zone 1.
* Start slowly, work up to 30-60 minutes of exercise.
241
Describe Stage II in stage training
for individuals with low-to-moderate cardio fitness who are ready to train at higher intensities.
* Uses HR zone 2 intervals, with zone 1 for recovery.
* 1 minute in zone 2, 3 minutes in zone 1 (1:3 work/rest ratio).
* Progress using 1:2 and eventually 1:1 work-to-rest ratios.
242
Describe Stage III in stage training
for advanced exercisers with moderately high cardio fitness levels
increases capacity of energy systems needed at the Power Level.
* Uses HR zones 1, 2, and 3.
* Once per week is adequate, with Stage II and Stage I days needed to avoid overtraining.
243
Describe core exercises in the Stabilization Phase I
Little motion through the spine and pelvis; improves neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability.
e.g., marching, floor bridge, floor prone cobra, plank
244
Describe core exercises in the Strength Phase
Dynamic eccentric & concentric movements with full range of motion
improves dynamic stabilization, concentric & eccentric strength,& neuromuscular efficiency
e.g., ball crunch, back extension, reverse crunch, cable rotation
245
Describe core exercises in the Power phase
Full range of motion at functionally applicable speeds; improves rate of force production
e.g., rotation chest pass, med ball pullover throw, oblique throw,
246
Describe the difference between **drawing-in maneuver** and **bracing**.
Drawing-in maneuver—recruit core stabilizers by drawing the navel toward the spine **(local stabilization system**).
Bracing—contracting abdominals, lower back, and glutes together to stabilize the trunk **(global movement system).**
247
What is plyometric (reactive) training?
quick, powerful movements
explosive concentric muscle contraction
248
What is Amortization (transition) phase?
transition between eccentric (loading) and concentric (unloading) muscle actions during plyometric movements; the faster the switch, the more powerful the concentric action
249
What's the difference between speed, agility, and quickness?
Speed = moving in one direction as fast as possible
Agility = ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly while maintaining posture
Quickness = ability to react and change position with max rate of force production
250
What is General adaptation syndrome?
how the body responds and adapts to stress
3 stages:
Alarm reaction
Resistance development
Exhaustion
251
What is the alarm reaction stage?
initial reaction to a stressor, activates protective processes in the body.
252
What is resistance development?
increased functional ability to adapt to a stressor
more stress is needed to produce a new response
253
Describe the **principle of specificity** or **specific adaptation to imposed demands (SAID) principle**
the body will specifically adapt to the type of demand placed on it
254
What is mechanical specificity?
the weight and movements placed on the body
255
What is neuromuscular specificity?
the speed of contractions and exercise selection
256
What is metabolic specificity?
the energy demand placed on the body.
257
Describe the **FITTE** principle
* Frequency - the number of training sessions in a given timeframe
* Intensity - the level of demand that a given activity places on the body
* Time - the length of time an individual is engaged in a given activity
* Type - the type of physical activity being performed •Enjoyment - the amount of pleasure derived from the training session
258
Describe SMART goals
Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Realistic
Timely
259
If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscles would be considered underactive?
medial gastroc
medial hamstring
gracilis
sartorius
popliteus
Mm Mm Good, So Perfect
260
Which assessment measures muscular endurance of the upper body?
push up assessment
261
What is caused by a tight agonist muscle decreasing the neural drive to its functional antagonist?
altered reciprocal inhibition
262
Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?
Static stretching
263
In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client's back leg should be in which of the following positions?
externally rotated
264
What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?
static stretching
265
If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up?
GASH
gastrocnemius
abdominal complex
soleus
hip flexor complex
266
What metrics have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?
Heart rate and oxygen uptake
267
What requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exercise at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response?
Peak VO2 method
268
According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?
150 minutes
269
What formula determines a client's target heart rate during exercise?
Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
(aka Karvonen method)
270
What is the intensity range that best describes someone just moving into a zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?
86-95%
271
Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?
core power
272
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
balance power
273
When selecting a balance exercise, what is the most appropriate progression?
Floor
balance beam
half foam roll
foam pad
balance disc
274
What is another name for plyometric training?
reactive
275
What types of SAQ drills are most appropriate for Phase 1 training?
those with limited horizontal inertia
276
When performed at an appropriate tempo, what exercise would offer the best improvement of the power of a client's pectoralis major?
med ball rotation chest pass
277
When starting with a brand new client who has never exercised, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?
single sets
278
A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occuring to the woman's aerobic energy system?
metabolic specificity
279
When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
30 reps
280
What is the recommended set range for a resistance training exercise when working in the Power Phase?
3-5 sets
281
For resistance training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise are recommended?
2-4
282
Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?
Select one:
a. Spot at the elbows.
b. Place hands at both ends of the barbell.
c. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance.
d. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
D
283
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
Select one:
a. Standing cable crunch
b. Standing cable row
c. Standing triceps extension
d. Standing cable chest press
D
284
What is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?
hands close to wrists
285
What is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?
Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
286
What factor is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?
postural control
287
Within how many minutes should a client consume 1.5 g/kg of carbohydrates to maximize glycogen replenishment after exercise?
30 minutes
288
Which micronutrient should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin?
calcium
289
Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for what?
lung cancer in smokers
290
What is a behavioral reactant?
when family members pressure or make loved ones feel guilty about exercise, that person may actually respond by exercising less.
291
What is a nondirective question?
an open-ended question
292
What are profit centers?
Services that add to the base revenue generator
293
What cognitive-behavior approach involves throughts influencing behavior?
Association and dissociation
Association occurs when the focus is on internal body feedback (e.g., how their muscles feel).
Dissociation occurs when the focus is on the external environment (e.g., noticing how pretty the scenery is / listening to music while exercising).
294
Which is the best approach for avoiding activation of the adductors during a floor bridge?
The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead
295
Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?
LEFT test
296
Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits arms falling forward?
lat pulldown
297
If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which cardio activity should be avoided?
treadmill
298
4/2/1 tempo, lower weight, and higher reps in an unstable, but controlled, environment
Describe Stabilization (Phase 1) - tempo, style, etc.
298
2/0/2 tempo, moderate to heavy weight, low to moderate reps with full range of motion
Describe the Strength phase (Phase 2,3,4) - tempo, intensity, reps, etc.
298
Explosive tempo, light weight, moderate reps with full range of motion
Describe the Power phase (phase 5)
298
Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?
20 seconds
299
For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?
## Footnote
Select one:
a. Age predicted maximum heart rate
b. Karvonen formula
c. Heart rate response
d. Heart rate reserve
C. Heart rate response
300
Which of the following is part of the marketing mix?
Select one:
a. Prominence
b. Public
c. Place
d. Professionalism
C
301
The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because:
Select one:
a. it increases muscle spindle activity.
b. it results in reciprocal inhibition.
c. it allows muscle fibers to contract.
d. it allows lengthening of the muscle.
D. it allows lengthening of the muscle
302
In the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with what type of intensity?
Low intensity
303
During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client's feet turn out. What stretch should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?
standing calf stretch
304
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, a Certified Personal Trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of:
4 years
305
To maintain certification with NASM, the Certified Personal Trainer must earn ___ CEUs within ___ years
2 CEUs within 2 years
306
What's the difference between autogenic and reciprocal inhibition?
autogenic inhibition = relaxation in the same muscle that is experiencing tension (e.g., contracting quads while foam rolling)
reciprocal inhibition = relaxation in the opposing muscle that is experiencing tension (e.g., contracting glutes while stretching hip flexor)
307
What is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for Phase 5 resistance training?
3-5 minutes
308
Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Single-leg balance and reach
d. Single-leg hop with stabilization
A.
309
How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?
16-24oz
310
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is known as...?
quickness
311
What is the FIRST step a fitness professional should take when coming across an emergency situation that will require CPR?
Select one:
a. Activate the EMS system.
b. Check the scene for hazards.
c. Open the airway.
d. Check for circulation.
B. check the scene for hazards
312
Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?
Select one:
a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate
b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate
C. 60-70% max heart rate
313
Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Select one:
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.
C. failing after 3-5 reps.
314
Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg internal and external rotation
d. Single-leg squat touchdown
A. SL box hop up with stabilization
315
What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training?
76-85%
316
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?
Stomach
317
Which of the following macronutrients should be consumed in the highest percentage for a healthy diet?
Carbs
318
When assessing your clients resting heart rate, what location provides the most accurate measurement?
radial artery
319
Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?
Select one:
a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes.
b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time.
c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client’s ability will build more confidence when accomplished.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.
320
What is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
2-4
321
A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?
Select one:
a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad
b. Two-leg squat on floor
c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc
c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
322
Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?
Select one:
a. 9 to 11
b. 12 to 13
c. 14 to 16
d. 17 to 19
b. 12 to 13
323
Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
Select one:
a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
324
Within how many minutes should a client consume 1.5 g/kg of carbohydrates to maximize glycogen replenishment after exercise?
30 minutes
325
What is triple flexion?
multi-joint exercise that involves flexion at hips, knees, and ankles
326
What is triple extension?
multi-joint exercise that involves extension at the hip, knee, and ankle
327
Scapular elevation refers to which of the following motions of the scapula?
Select one:
a. Axial
b. Vertical
c. Transverse
d. Superior
D. superior
328
What are the muscles of the global stabilization system primarily responsible for?
Transferring loads between the upper and lower extremities
329
Which movements are the latissimus dorsi responsible for concentrically accelerating?
Select one:
a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
b. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
c. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation
Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
330
In which of the following scenarios would energy be mostly derived from anaerobic metabolism?
Select one:
a. When an athlete is in a steady state or at rest
b. When an athlete reduces the duration of an activity
c. When an athlete begins an activity
d. When an athlete experiences temporary fatigue
c. When an athlete begins an activity
331
What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles?
autogenic inhibition
332
Which body composition assessment is most appropriate for an obese client?
circumference measurement
333
A waist-to-hip ratio over ___ puts a female client at risk for a number of diseases?
0.80
334
Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?
pro shuttle test
335
During a single-leg squat assessment your client's knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive?
Select one:
a. Medial hamstrings
b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
c. TFL
d. Gluteus medius
TFL
336
Which assessment measures muscular endurance of the upper body?
push up assessment
337
What phase is this?
Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance
338
What phase is this?
Phase 2 Strength Endurance
339
What phase is this?
Phase 3 Hypertrophy
340
What phase is this?
Phase 4 Max Strength
341
What phase is this?
Phase 5 Power
342
Which of the following would be appropriate at the Power Level (Phase 5) of the OPT model or before athletic competition?
Select one:
a. Relative flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Active flexibility
d. Functional flexibility
functional flexibility
343
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?
Select one:
a. Anteriorly rotated pelvis
b. 90° horizontally abducted humerus
c. 90° internally rotated humerus
d. Posteriorly rotated pelvis
posteriorly rotated pelvis
344
Which of the following is about having an attitude of genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?
Select one:
a. Asking questions
b. Active listening
c. Summarizing
d. Reflecting
active listening
345
What are the two types of fitness goals?
process & product
346
Which movements are the latissimus dorsi responsible for concentrically accelerating?
Select one:
a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
d. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
347
The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?
Select one:
a. Heart rate reserve (HRR)
b. Metabolic equivalent (MET)
c. VO2 reserve
d. Estimated oxygen consumption
D. estimated oxygen consumption
348
When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which muscle?
psoas
349
How many muscles make up the global stabilization system?
7
350
Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test, anterior view
b. Overhead squat assessment, anterior view
c. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view
d. Pushing assessment, lateral view
d. pushing assessment, lateral view
351
Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch?
Select one:
a. Active latissimus dorsi ball stretch
b. Single-leg squat touchdown
c. Step-up to balance
d. Static 90/90 hamstring stretch
B. single leg squat touchdown
352
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Bench press
b. Shark skill test
c. Davies test
d. Single-leg squat
D. single leg squat
353
What type of support is given when someone supports their child in starting an exercise program?
Parental
354
Creating a list of motivating key words (e.g., fast, go, focus) to replace negative thoughts is an example of what?
Select one:
a. Positive self-talk
b. Affirmations
c. Remodeling
d. Reflecting
A. positive self talk
