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NASM CPT Ed. 6 > NASM CPT Study Guide Deck > Flashcards

NASM CPT Study Guide Deck Flashcards

1
Q

Nervous System

A

The body’s communication network

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2
Q

What is this?

A

Nervous System

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3
Q

Define Central Nervous System

A

brain and spinal cord; coordinates activity of the body.

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4
Q

What is this?

A

Central Nervous System

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5
Q

Define Peripheral Nervous System

A

nerves connecting the CNS to the rest of the body and environment.

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6
Q

What is the nervous system made up of?

A

Central Nervous System

Peripheral Nervous System

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7
Q

What does this image represent?

A

The peripheral nervous system

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8
Q

What is the Peripheral Nervous System subdivided into?

A

Autonomic Nervous System

Somatic Nervous System

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9
Q

What are the functions of the nervous system?

A

Sensory (changes in the environment)

Integrative (analyze and interpret)

Motor (neuromuscular response)

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10
Q

Define Somatic Nervous System

A

Part of the peripheral nervous system

Serves outer areas of the body and skeletal muscle

Voluntary control

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11
Q

What is the Autonomic Nervous System?

A

Involuntary systems (heart, digestion, etc.)

Part of the peripheral nervous system

Divided into Parasympathetic & Sympathetic

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12
Q

What does this image represent?

A

The autonomic nervous system

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13
Q

What does the Parasympathetic Nervous System do?

A

Decreases activation during rest and recovery

“rest and digest”

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14
Q

What does the Sympathetic Nervous System do?

A

Increases activation to prepare for an activity.

“fight or flight”

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15
Q

What is a neuron?

A

functional unit of the nervous system

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16
Q

What do motor (efferent) neurons do?

A

Transmit nerve impulses from CNS to effector sites.

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17
Q

What do sensory (afferent) neurons do?

A

Respond to stimuli; transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to CNS

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18
Q

What do mechanoreceptors do?

A

sense distortion in body tissues

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19
Q

What do joint receptors do?

A

respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joints.

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20
Q

What are golgi tendon organs?

A

Sense changes in muscle tension.

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21
Q

What are muscle spindles?

A

Sense changes in muscle length (stretch)

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22
Q

What is a tendon?

A

connect muscle to bone; provide anchor for muscles to produce force.

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23
Q

What is fascia?

A

outer layer of connective tissue surrounding a muscle

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24
Q

What are fascicles?

A

bundle of individual muscle fibers

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25
Q

Describe a muscle fiber

A

cellular components and myofibrils encased in a plasma membrane

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26
Q

Describe a sarcomere

A

produces muscular contraction; repeating sections of actin and myosin.

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27
Q

Describe the sliding filament theory.

A

thick and thin filaments slide past one another, shortening the entire sarcomere.

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28
Q

Describe Type I (slow twitch) muscle tissue

A

smaller size

fatigue slowly

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29
Q

Describe Type II (fast twitch) muscle tissue

A

larger size

quick to produce maximal tension

fatigue quickly

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30
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

one motor neuron and the muscle fibers it connects with

(one motor unit innervates many muscle fibers)

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31
Q

What is neural activation?

A

contraction of a muscle generated by neural stimulation

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32
Q

What muscles does the local stabilization system consist of, and where do they attach?

A

attach directly to vertebrae

Consists of: transverse abdominis, internal oblique, multifidus, pelvic floor, diaphragm.

TAIO MPD

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33
Q

What muscles does the global stabilization system consist of, and where do they attach?

A

attach from pelvis to spine

Consists of: quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external oblique, rectus abdominis, gluteus medius, adductor complex, portions of internal oblique.

QL Ps EO RA GM AC IO

QLP EORAGMACIO

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34
Q

What muscles does the movement system consist of, and where do they attach?

A

attach spine and/or pelvis to extremities

Consists of: latissimus dorsi, hip flexors, hamstring complex, quadriceps

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35
Q

What does the axial skeleton consist of?

A

skull, rib cage, and vertebral column

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36
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton consist of?

A

upper and lower extremities, shoulder and pelvic girdles.

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37
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A

supports body

protects organs

allows bodily movement

produces blood

stores minerals

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38
Q

What are skeletal depressions?

A

aka “fossa”

flattened or indented portions of a bone; can be muscle attachment sites.

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39
Q

What is a bone process?

A

projection protruding from a bone

muscles, tendons, and ligaments can attach.

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40
Q

What are ligaments?

A

connects bone to bone

little blood supply

slow to heal.

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41
Q

Define Non-synovial joints

A

no joint cavity, connective tissue, or cartilage

little to no movement (e.g., sutures of the skull)

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42
Q

Define synovial joints.

A

held together by joint capsule and ligaments

associated with movement

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43
Q

What are the major types of motion of joints?

A

roll

slide

spin

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44
Q

Name the hinge joints, and in what plane of motion they work?

A

elbows, ankles

sagittal plane movement

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45
Q

Name the ball and socket joints and their planes of motion.

A

shoulders, hips

most mobile, all three planes of motion

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46
Q

What is the endocrine system?

A

system of glands

secretes hormones to regulate bodily function

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47
Q

What does estrogen influence?

A

influences fat deposition on hips, buttocks, and thighs

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48
Q

What is growth hormone?

A

anabolic hormone

responsible for bodily growth up until puberty

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49
Q

What does insulin do?

A

regulates energy and glucose metabolism in the body

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50
Q

What does the cardiovascular system consist of?

A

heart, blood, and blood vessels

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51
Q

Describe the cardiac muscle.

A

shorter, more tightly connected than skeletal muscle; involuntary

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52
Q

What are the atria?

A

smaller, superior chambers of the heart; receive blood from veins.

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53
Q

What does the right atrium do?

A

gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart

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54
Q

What does the left atrium do?

A

gathers oxygenated blood from the lungs

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55
Q

What is the Sinoatrial (SA) node and what does it do?

A

located in right atrium

initiates impulse for heart rate

“pacemaker for the heart”

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56
Q

What are ventricles and what do they do?

A

larger, inferior (lower) chambers of the heart

pump blood out.

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57
Q

What does the right ventricle do?

A

pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs

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58
Q

What does the left ventricle do?

A

pumps oxygenated blood to the body

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59
Q

What do arteries do?

A

Carry blood away from the heart

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60
Q

What do veins do?

A

Carry blood back to the heart.

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61
Q

What are arterioles?

A

small branches of arteries; end in capillaries.

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62
Q

What are capillaries?

A

smallest blood vessels

site of gas, chemical, and water exchange

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63
Q

What are venules?

A

very small veins

connect capillaries to veins

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64
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

amount of blood pumped with each contraction.

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65
Q

What is heart rate?

A

the rate at which the heart pumps

average untrained adult = 70-80 bpm.

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66
Q

Define cardiac output

A

volume of blood pumped per minute

heart rate × stroke volume

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67
Q

What does the respiratory system do?

A

brings in oxygen, removes CO2

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68
Q

What are the primary inspiratory muscles?

A

—diaphragm, external intercostals.

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69
Q

What are the secondary inspiratory muscles?

A

scalenes, pectoralis minor, sternocleidomastoid

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70
Q

Describe expiration.

A

relaxing inspiratory muscles (passive), contracting expiratory muscles (active) to move air out.

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71
Q

What are the expiratory muscles?

A

internal intercostals, abdominals

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72
Q

What is the Resting oxygen consumption (VO2) formula?

A

3.5 ml × kg-1 × min-1 = 1 metabolic equivalent (MET)

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73
Q

What is Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2max)?

A

highest rate of oxygen transport & use at max exertion.

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74
Q

What are bioenergetics?

A

study of energy in the human body.

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75
Q

What is the anaerobic threshold?

A

where the body can no longer produce enough energy with normal oxygen intake.

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76
Q

What is Excess post oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

A

elevation of metabolism after exercise.

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77
Q

Describe the body’s energy systems.

A
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78
Q

Describe biomechanics.

A

science concerned with internal and external forces acting on the body

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79
Q

Describe force

A

influence applied by one object to another

accelerates or decelerates the second object

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80
Q

Describe torque

A

a force that produces rotation

The closer the load to the point of rotation, the less torque it creates (i.e., bent arm is easier than straight arm)

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81
Q

What is a lever, and what are the three classes?

A

rigid “bar” that rotates around a stationary fulcrum

1st class—fulcrum in middle (nodding head)

2nd class—resistance in the middle (calf raise)

3rd class—effort in the middle (biceps curl); most common in human limbs.

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82
Q

What is a 1st class lever?

A

fulcrum in middle (nodding head)

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83
Q

What is a 2nd class lever?

A

resistance in the middle (calf raise)

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84
Q

What is a 3rd class lever?

A

effort in the middle (biceps curl); most common in human limbs

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85
Q

Describe the superior anatomic location.

A

above a POR

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86
Q

Describe the inferior anatomic location.

A

below a POR

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87
Q

Describe the proximal anatomic location.

A

nearest to a POR

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88
Q

Describe the distal anatomic location.

A

farthest from a POR

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89
Q

Describe the contralateral anatomic location.

A

on the opposite side of the body

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90
Q

Describe the ispilateral anatomic location.

A

same side of the body

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91
Q

name the 3 planes of motion

A

frontal

sagittal

transverse

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92
Q

What are the motions in the frontal plane?

A

Adduction/abduction

Lateral flexion

Eversion/inversion

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93
Q

Give examples of frontal plane exercises

A

side lunge, lateral raise,

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94
Q

What are the motions in the sagittal plane?

A

flexion & extension

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95
Q

Give examples of sagittal plane movements.

A

bicep curl, back squat, deadlift

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96
Q

What are the motions of the transverse plane?

A

Rotation

Horizontal adduction/abduction

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97
Q

Give examples of transverse plane motion

A

Throwing, golfing, swinging a bat, trunk rotation

(rotational exercises)

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98
Q

What is flexion?

A

bending movement

decreases relative angle between segments

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99
Q

What is extension?

A

straightening movement

increases relative angle between segments.

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100
Q

What are plantarflexion & dorsiflexion?

A

plantarflexion = extension at the ankle

dorsiflexion = flexion at the ankle

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101
Q

What is horizontal abduction?

A

transverse plane arm movement from anterior to lateral (e.g. chest flies)

(move away from midline)

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102
Q

Describe horizontal adduction.

A

transverse plane arm movement from lateral to anterior.

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103
Q

describe internal rotation

A

rotation toward the middle of the body

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104
Q

describe external rotation

A

rotation away from midline of body

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105
Q

What is the length-tension relationship?

A

resting length of a muscle and the tension it can produce at that length

*Visualize a fighter trying to throw a punch into a heavy bag, but they are too close or too far away to land it with optimal force.

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106
Q

Describe force couple

A

muscles working together to produce movement

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107
Q

Describe the force-velocity curve

A

as the velocity of a contraction increases, concentric force decreases and eccentric force increases.

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108
Q

What is Neuromuscular efficiency?

A

ability to produce and reduce force, and stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion

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109
Q

What is Structural efficiency?

A

alignment of musculoskeletal system that allows center of gravity to be maintained over a base of support

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110
Q

What is Davis’s law?

A

soft tissue models along the lines of stress

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111
Q

Describe autogenic inhibition

A

neural impulses that sense tension are greater than impulses that cause muscles contraction

muscle spindles inhibition

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112
Q

Describe reciprocal inhibition

A

contracting one muscle & relaxing its antagonist to allow movement

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113
Q

Describe Relative flexibility

A

tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance.

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114
Q

Describe pattern overload

A

consistently repeating the same motion

places abnormal stresses on the body

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115
Q

Postural distortion patterns

A

predictable patterns of muscle imbalances

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116
Q

Describe altered reciprocal inhibition

A

inhibition caused by a tight agonist, which in turn decreases neural drive to its functional antagonist.

(aka, altered length-tension)

e.g., hip flexor overactive leads to decreased strength/neural drive to glute max. this leads to synergistic dominance of hamstrings (they take over)

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117
Q

Describe Synergistic dominance

A

inappropriate (synergistic) muscle takes over the function of a weak/inhibited prime mover

(aka, altered force-couple)

e.g., Inhibition of gluteus maximus may lead to synergistic dominance of the biceps femoris (hamstring) during hip extension.

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118
Q

Describe muscle imbalance

A

alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint

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119
Q

Describe the cumulative injury cycle

A

Tissue trauma –> inflammation –> muscle spasm –> adhesions –> alterered neuromuscular control –> muscle imbalance –> cycle continues

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120
Q

Describe stabilization

A

ability to maintain postural equilibrium and support joints during movement

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121
Q

Describe strength

A

ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external force.

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122
Q

Describe strength endurance

A

ability to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods

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123
Q

Describe maximal strength

A

max force production in a single effort

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124
Q

Describe muscular hypertrophy

A

enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers from resistance training.

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125
Q

Describe Power

A

ability to produce the greatest force in the shortest time

(max force in shortest amount of time)

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126
Q

What are the 5 phases of the OPT Model?

A
  1. Stabilization
  2. Strength endurance
  3. Maximal Strength
  4. Muscular Hypertrophy
  5. Power
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127
Q

What is motor control?

A

how the CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences

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128
Q

What is motor learning?

A

integration of motor control process through practice

leads to relatively permanent change to produce skilled movement

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129
Q

What is motor development?

A

the change in motor skill development over a lifespan

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130
Q

Describe sensorimotor integration

A

nerves & muscles work together to gather & interpret information to produce movement

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131
Q

What are muscle synergies?

A

groups of muscles recruited by the CNS to produce movement

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132
Q

What is proprioception?

A

cumulative sensory input from all the mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movement

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133
Q

What is internal feedback?

A

the body uses sensory information to monitor movement and react to the environment

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134
Q

What is external feedback?

A

information from an external source to supplement internal environment (e.g., mirror, PT, etc.)

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135
Q

What is soluble fiber?

A

Dissolves in water

helps moderate blood glucose; lowers cholesterol

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136
Q

What is insoluble fiber?

A

doesn’t dissolve in water

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137
Q

What is glucose?

A

simple sugar

made endogenously (in the body) from carb, fat, protein

main fuel source

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138
Q

What is glycogen?

A

complex carb used to store energy in the liver & muscles

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139
Q

What’s the difference between glucose and glycogen?

A

glucose = energy source made in body

glycogen = storage form of glucose

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140
Q

What is the glycemic index?

A

rate at which certain carb sources raise blood sugar & effect on insulin release

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141
Q

What is considered high GI range?

A

>70

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142
Q

What is considered low GI range?

A

<55

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143
Q

Give examples of monounsaturated fat

A

olive oil

avocado

peanuts

144
Q

Give examples of polyunsaturated fats

A

sunflower oil

soy oil

omega 3s

145
Q

Give examples of saturated fat

A

dairy

meat

coconut oil

146
Q

What are the functions of lipids? (think of 8)

A
  1. cellular membrance structure & function
  2. hormone precursor
  3. cellular signaling
  4. nutrient regulation
  5. organ protection
  6. body insulation (temp regulation)
  7. prolongs digestion
  8. aids in satiety
147
Q

What does saturated fat do in the body?

A

raises LDL cholesterol

148
Q

What does trans fat do in the body?

A

Raises LDL, lowers HDL

149
Q

What does unsaturated fat do in the body?

A

Raises HDL cholesterol

150
Q

Protein = amino acids linked by _________

A

peptide bonds

151
Q

What are essential amino acids?

A

amino acids that must be obtained from food (cannot be manufactured by the body)

152
Q

Name the essential amino acids

A

PVT TIM HALL

Phenylalanine

Valine

Threonine

Tryptophan

Isoleucine

Methionine

Histidine

Arginine

Leucine

Lysine

153
Q

Describe nonessential amino acids

A

can be manufactured by the body

154
Q

What is an incomplete protein?

A

Contains less than all 8 essential amino acids in appropriate ratios

155
Q

What % of the body is made up of water?

A

60%

156
Q

How much water is it recommended that men and women drink per day?

A

3L for men

2.2L for women

157
Q

What does dehydration cause?

A

Affects circulatory function

Decreases performance

158
Q

Define calorie.

A

Amount of heat energy required to raise temperature of 1g of water by 1 degree Celsius

159
Q

What are the protein recommendations for sedentary adults?

A

0.8g/kg per day

160
Q

What are the protein intake recommendations for strength athletes?

A

1.2 - 1.7g/kg per day

161
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for endurance athletes?

A

1.2 - 1.4g/kg per day

162
Q

What is the recommended carb intake?

A

6-10g/kg per day

163
Q

What is an ergogenic aid?

A

Something that aids athletic performance

164
Q

What does creatine do?

A

made in the body (endogenous)

increases muscle mass, strength, & anaerobic performance

165
Q

What are the caffeine recommendations for performance?

A

3 - 6mg/kg 1 hour before exercise

166
Q

What is the PAR-Q?

A

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire

determines safety/risk of exercise

identifies those that need medical evaluation

any YES’s = refer to doctor

167
Q

What can extended periods of sitting lead to?

A

tight hip flexors

rounded shoulders

forward protruding head

168
Q

What can repetitive movement patterns lead to?

A

pattern overload

169
Q

What can wearing dress shoes lead to?

A

constant plantarflexion leads to:

tight gastrocnemius, soleus, & Achilles tendon

decreases dorsiflexion & over-pronation

170
Q

Ankle sprains decrease neural control to…?

A

gluteus maximus

gluteus medius

171
Q

Knee injuries decrease neural control to…?

A

muscles that stabilize kneecap

172
Q

Non-contact knee injuries are often the result of…?

A

ankle or hip dysfunction

173
Q

Low back pain can cause decreased neural control to which group of muscles?

A

core stabilization muscles

174
Q

Shoulder injury alters neural control of the…

A

rotator cuff

175
Q

How do beta-blockers affect the body?

A

decrease BP & HR

176
Q

What are submaximal tests?

A

assessments to estimate VO2max

help determine cardiorespiratory training starting point

177
Q

What are the two methods for estimating max heart rate?

A

HRmax = 220 - age (less accurate)

HRmax = 208 - (0.7 x age) (more accurate)

178
Q

Describe the YMCA 3 minute step test

A

96 steps per minute on 12 inch step up (box) for 3 minutes

take recovery pulse within 5 seconds of stopping

179
Q

Describe the Rockport walk test

A

Walk 1 mile AFAP

Immediately record HR

Calculate VO2 score

180
Q

What is radial pulse?

A

measuring pulse with 2 fingers along right side of arm, in line with the thumb

181
Q

What is the average HR for men & women?

A

70-80 bpm

182
Q

What is systolic BP?

A

pressure in arteries after heart contracts

183
Q

What’s a healthy systolic BP?

A

<120 mm HG

184
Q

What is diastolic BP?

A

pressure in arteries when heart rests and filling with blood

185
Q

What is a healthy diastolic BP?

A

less than 80 mm Hg

186
Q

What is pronation distortion syndrome?

A

foot pronation

knee internal rotation & adduction

(combo of upper & lower crossed syndrome)

187
Q

What should you look for in pronation distortion syndrome?

A

do feet flatten and turn out?

do the knees adduct and internally rotate?

188
Q

Which muscles are overactive/tight/shortened in pronation distortion syndrome? (7)

A
  1. peroneals
  2. gastrocnemius
  3. soleus
  4. IT band
  5. hamstring (biceps femoris short head)
  6. adductors
  7. TFL (hip flexor complex)

PIG SHAT

189
Q

Which muscles are underactive/weak/lengthened in pronation distortion syndrome?

A

tibia (anterior/posterior tibialis)

vastus medialis (VMO)

Glutes (medius/maximus)

hip external rotators (abductors)

190
Q

describe lower crossed syndrome

A

anterior pelvic tilt (arched lower back)

191
Q

What distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?

A

decreased oxygen delivery

192
Q

The body’s ability to differentiate between walking on concrete and walking on sand is an example of which function of the nervous system?

A

Sensory

193
Q

What is true of type I, or slow-twitch, muscle fibers?

A

They contain more capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin than type II muscle fibers.

194
Q

What muscles are overactive/tight in lower crossed syndrome?

A

hip flexor complex (psoas, rectus femoris, tensor fascia latae)

adductor complex

latissimus dorsi

erector spinae

gastrocnemius

soleus

195
Q

What muscles are underactive/weak in lower crossed syndrome?

A

gluteus maximus

gluteus medius

transversus abdominus

internal oblique

anterior tibialis

posterior tibialis

PIG TAG - lower crossed syndrome

196
Q

What is the rep range for the strength endurance phase?

A

12 to 20 reps at

197
Q

What is the rep range for the hypertrophy phase?

A

6-12 reps at 75-85% 1RM

198
Q

What is the rep range and % 1RM for maximal strength?

A

1 - 5 reps at 85 - 100% 1RM

199
Q

What is the rep range and % 1RM for the power phase?

A

1 to 10 reps at 30-45% 1RM

200
Q

What is the rep range and intensity for the stabilization phase?

A

12-20 reps at 50-70% 1RM.

201
Q

What is the rest time in the muscular endurance and stabilization phase?

A

0 to 90 seconds

202
Q

What is the rest time in the hypertrophy phase?

A

0 to 60 seconds

203
Q

What is the rest time in the max strength phase?

A

3 to 5 minutes

204
Q

What is the rest time in the power phase?

A

3 to 5 minutes

205
Q

20 to 30 seconds allows approx __% recovery of ATP and PC

A

50%

206
Q

40 secs allows __% recovery of ATP and PC

A

75%

207
Q

60 seconds allows approx __ to __% recovery of ATP and PC

A

85 to 90%

208
Q

3 minutes allows __% recovery of ATP and PC

A

100%

209
Q

Arterioles branch out into vessels know as what?

A

capillaries

210
Q

What may be the best measure of cardiorespiratory fitness?

A

Max O2 consumption

211
Q

What is the vessel that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart?

A

Veins

212
Q

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which vessels?

A

pulmonary arteries

213
Q

As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force increases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?

A

Eccentric

214
Q

Scapular elevation refers to what motions of the scapula?

A

superior

215
Q

Scapular protraction refers to which movement of the scapula?

A

abduction

216
Q

What muscles are overactive/tight in upper crossed syndrome?

A

upper traps

levator scapulae

sternocleidomastoid

scalenes

lats

teres major

subscapularis

pec major/minor

217
Q

What muscles are underactive/weak in upper crossed syndrome?

A

deep cervical flexors

serratus anterior

rhomboids

midde and lower traps

teres minor

infraspinatus

218
Q

Describe Bioelectrical impedance

A

conducts electrical current through the body to estimate fat content.

219
Q

What does the Davies test assess?

A

assesses upper extremity stability and agility.

220
Q

What does the shark skill test assess?

A

assesses lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control

221
Q

What does the bench press test assess?

A

estimates 1-rep maximum on overall upper body strength of pressing musculature

222
Q

What does the squat test assess?

A

estimates 1-rep squat maximum and overall lower body strength.

223
Q

What does the push up test assess?

A

measures muscular endurance of the upper body; primarily pushing muscles.

224
Q

What does the LEFT test assess?

A

assesses agility, acceleration, deceleration, and neuromuscular control.

225
Q

What is corrective flexibility?

A

increases joint range of motion, improves muscle imbalances, and corrects altered joint motion

autogenic inhibition

use for Phase 1 training.

226
Q

What is active flexibility?

A

improves extensibility of soft tissue and increases neuromuscular efficiency;

reciprocal inhibition;

use for Phases 2, 3, and 4 training

227
Q

What is functional flexibility?

A

maintains integrated, multiplanar soft tissue extensibility and optimal neuromuscular control;

full ROM; dynamic stretching

use for Phase 5 training.

228
Q

Describe self-myofascial release

A

gentle pressure breaks up knots within muscle and helps release unwanted tension

autogenic inhibition

229
Q

Describe static stretching

A

passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds

autogenic inhibition.

230
Q

Describe active-isolated stretching

A

uses agonists and synergists to dynamically move joints into a range of motion

reciprocal inhibition

231
Q

Describe dynamic stretching

A

uses force production and momentum to move joints through full ranges of motion

reciprocal inhibition.

232
Q

What is a drop set?

A

Perform a set to failure, remove small percentage of load, then continue with set.

233
Q

Describe Peripheral heart action training

A

variation of circuit training; alternates upper- and lower-body exercises to improve circulation

234
Q

Describe vertical loading

A

performing exercises on the OPT template one after the other, in a vertical manner down the template

235
Q

Describe horizontal loading

A

performing all sets for an exercise or body part before moving on to the next

236
Q

Describe Stabilization (Phase 1) - tempo, style, etc.

A

4/2/1 tempo, lower weight, and higher reps in an unstable, but controlled, environment

237
Q

Describe the Strength phase (Phase 2,3,4) - tempo, intensity, reps, etc.

A

2/0/2 tempo, moderate to heavy weight, low to moderate reps with full range of motion

238
Q

Describe the Power phase (phase 5)

A

Explosive tempo, light weight, moderate reps with full range of motion

239
Q

What is stage training?

A

progressive cardio training that ensures continual adaptation and minimizes the risk of overtraining and injury.

240
Q

Describe Stage I in stage training.

A

used to improve cardio for apparently healthy sedentary individuals.

  • Uses HR zone 1.
  • Start slowly, work up to 30-60 minutes of exercise.
241
Q

Describe Stage II in stage training

A

for individuals with low-to-moderate cardio fitness who are ready to train at higher intensities.

  • Uses HR zone 2 intervals, with zone 1 for recovery.
  • 1 minute in zone 2, 3 minutes in zone 1 (1:3 work/rest ratio).
  • Progress using 1:2 and eventually 1:1 work-to-rest ratios.
242
Q

Describe Stage III in stage training

A

for advanced exercisers with moderately high cardio fitness levels

increases capacity of energy systems needed at the Power Level.

  • Uses HR zones 1, 2, and 3.
  • Once per week is adequate, with Stage II and Stage I days needed to avoid overtraining.
243
Q

Describe core exercises in the Stabilization Phase I

A

Little motion through the spine and pelvis; improves neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability.

e.g., marching, floor bridge, floor prone cobra, plank

244
Q

Describe core exercises in the Strength Phase

A

Dynamic eccentric & concentric movements with full range of motion

improves dynamic stabilization, concentric & eccentric strength,& neuromuscular efficiency

e.g., ball crunch, back extension, reverse crunch, cable rotation

245
Q

Describe core exercises in the Power phase

A

Full range of motion at functionally applicable speeds; improves rate of force production

e.g., rotation chest pass, med ball pullover throw, oblique throw,

246
Q

Describe the difference between drawing-in maneuver and bracing.

A

Drawing-in maneuver—recruit core stabilizers by drawing the navel toward the spine (local stabilization system).

Bracing—contracting abdominals, lower back, and glutes together to stabilize the trunk (global movement system).

247
Q

What is plyometric (reactive) training?

A

quick, powerful movements

explosive concentric muscle contraction

248
Q

What is Amortization (transition) phase?

A

transition between eccentric (loading) and concentric (unloading) muscle actions during plyometric movements; the faster the switch, the more powerful the concentric action

249
Q

What’s the difference between speed, agility, and quickness?

A

Speed = moving in one direction as fast as possible

Agility = ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change direction quickly while maintaining posture

Quickness = ability to react and change position with max rate of force production

250
Q

What is General adaptation syndrome?

A

how the body responds and adapts to stress

3 stages:

Alarm reaction

Resistance development

Exhaustion

251
Q

What is the alarm reaction stage?

A

initial reaction to a stressor, activates protective processes in the body.

252
Q

What is resistance development?

A

increased functional ability to adapt to a stressor

more stress is needed to produce a new response

253
Q

Describe the principle of specificity or specific adaptation to imposed demands (SAID) principle

A

the body will specifically adapt to the type of demand placed on it

254
Q

What is mechanical specificity?

A

the weight and movements placed on the body

255
Q

What is neuromuscular specificity?

A

the speed of contractions and exercise selection

256
Q

What is metabolic specificity?

A

the energy demand placed on the body.

257
Q

Describe the FITTE principle

A
  • Frequency - the number of training sessions in a given timeframe
  • Intensity - the level of demand that a given activity places on the body
  • Time - the length of time an individual is engaged in a given activity
  • Type - the type of physical activity being performed •Enjoyment - the amount of pleasure derived from the training session
258
Q

Describe SMART goals

A

Specific

Measurable

Attainable

Realistic

Timely

259
Q

If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscles would be considered underactive?

A

medial gastroc

medial hamstring

gracilis

sartorius

popliteus

Mm Mm Good, So Perfect

260
Q

Which assessment measures muscular endurance of the upper body?

A

push up assessment

261
Q

What is caused by a tight agonist muscle decreasing the neural drive to its functional antagonist?

A

altered reciprocal inhibition

262
Q

Which form of stretching should be used to inhibit muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?

A

Static stretching

263
Q

In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client’s back leg should be in which of the following positions?

A

externally rotated

264
Q

What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?

A

static stretching

265
Q

If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client’s warm-up?

A

GASH

gastrocnemius

abdominal complex

soleus

hip flexor complex

266
Q

What metrics have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?

A

Heart rate and oxygen uptake

267
Q

What requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exercise at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response?

A

Peak VO2 method

268
Q

According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?

A

150 minutes

269
Q

What formula determines a client’s target heart rate during exercise?

A

Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

(aka Karvonen method)

270
Q

What is the intensity range that best describes someone just moving into a zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?

A

86-95%

271
Q

Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?

A

core power

272
Q

A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?

A

balance power

273
Q

When selecting a balance exercise, what is the most appropriate progression?

A

Floor

balance beam

half foam roll

foam pad

balance disc

274
Q

What is another name for plyometric training?

A

reactive

275
Q

What types of SAQ drills are most appropriate for Phase 1 training?

A

those with limited horizontal inertia

276
Q

When performed at an appropriate tempo, what exercise would offer the best improvement of the power of a client’s pectoralis major?

A

med ball rotation chest pass

277
Q

When starting with a brand new client who has never exercised, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?

A

single sets

278
Q

A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptions occuring to the woman’s aerobic energy system?

A

metabolic specificity

279
Q

When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?

A

30 reps

280
Q

What is the recommended set range for a resistance training exercise when working in the Power Phase?

A

3-5 sets

281
Q

For resistance training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise are recommended?

A

2-4

282
Q

Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?

Select one:

a. Spot at the elbows.
b. Place hands at both ends of the barbell.
c. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance.
d. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.

A

D

283
Q

Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?

Select one:

a. Standing cable crunch
b. Standing cable row
c. Standing triceps extension
d. Standing cable chest press

A

D

284
Q

What is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?

A

hands close to wrists

285
Q

What is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?

A

Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.

286
Q

What factor is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?

A

postural control

287
Q

Within how many minutes should a client consume 1.5 g/kg of carbohydrates to maximize glycogen replenishment after exercise?

A

30 minutes

288
Q

Which micronutrient should be at low levels or absent in a multivitamin?

A

calcium

289
Q

Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for what?

A

lung cancer in smokers

290
Q

What is a behavioral reactant?

A

when family members pressure or make loved ones feel guilty about exercise, that person may actually respond by exercising less.

291
Q

What is a nondirective question?

A

an open-ended question

292
Q

What are profit centers?

A

Services that add to the base revenue generator

293
Q

What cognitive-behavior approach involves throughts influencing behavior?

A

Association and dissociation

Association occurs when the focus is on internal body feedback (e.g., how their muscles feel).

Dissociation occurs when the focus is on the external environment (e.g., noticing how pretty the scenery is / listening to music while exercising).

294
Q

Which is the best approach for avoiding activation of the adductors during a floor bridge?

A

The feet should be hip-width apart and straight ahead

295
Q

Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?

A

LEFT test

296
Q

Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits arms falling forward?

A

lat pulldown

297
Q

If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which cardio activity should be avoided?

A

treadmill

298
Q

4/2/1 tempo, lower weight, and higher reps in an unstable, but controlled, environment

A

Describe Stabilization (Phase 1) - tempo, style, etc.

298
Q

2/0/2 tempo, moderate to heavy weight, low to moderate reps with full range of motion

A

Describe the Strength phase (Phase 2,3,4) - tempo, intensity, reps, etc.

298
Q

Explosive tempo, light weight, moderate reps with full range of motion

A

Describe the Power phase (phase 5)

298
Q

Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?

A

20 seconds

299
Q

For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?

Select one:

a. Age predicted maximum heart rate
b. Karvonen formula
c. Heart rate response
d. Heart rate reserve

A

C. Heart rate response

300
Q

Which of the following is part of the marketing mix?

Select one:

a. Prominence
b. Public
c. Place
d. Professionalism

A

C

301
Q

The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because:

Select one:

a. it increases muscle spindle activity.
b. it results in reciprocal inhibition.
c. it allows muscle fibers to contract.
d. it allows lengthening of the muscle.

A

D. it allows lengthening of the muscle

302
Q

In the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with what type of intensity?

A

Low intensity

303
Q

During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client’s feet turn out. What stretch should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?

A

standing calf stretch

304
Q

According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, a Certified Personal Trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of:

A

4 years

305
Q

To maintain certification with NASM, the Certified Personal Trainer must earn ___ CEUs within ___ years

A

2 CEUs within 2 years

306
Q

What’s the difference between autogenic and reciprocal inhibition?

A

autogenic inhibition = relaxation in the same muscle that is experiencing tension (e.g., contracting quads while foam rolling)

reciprocal inhibition = relaxation in the opposing muscle that is experiencing tension (e.g., contracting glutes while stretching hip flexor)

307
Q

What is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for Phase 5 resistance training?

A

3-5 minutes

308
Q

Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise?

Select one:

a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Single-leg balance and reach
d. Single-leg hop with stabilization

A

A.

309
Q

How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?

A

16-24oz

310
Q

The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is known as…?

A

quickness

311
Q

What is the FIRST step a fitness professional should take when coming across an emergency situation that will require CPR?

Select one:

a. Activate the EMS system.
b. Check the scene for hazards.
c. Open the airway.
d. Check for circulation.

A

B. check the scene for hazards

312
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?

Select one:

a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate
b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate

A

C. 60-70% max heart rate

313
Q

Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?

Select one:

a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.

A

C. failing after 3-5 reps.

314
Q

Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise?

Select one:

a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg internal and external rotation
d. Single-leg squat touchdown

A

A. SL box hop up with stabilization

315
Q

What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training?

A

76-85%

316
Q

During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?

A

Stomach

317
Q

Which of the following macronutrients should be consumed in the highest percentage for a healthy diet?

A

Carbs

318
Q

When assessing your clients resting heart rate, what location provides the most accurate measurement?

A

radial artery

319
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?

Select one:

a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes.
b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time.
c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client’s ability will build more confidence when accomplished.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.

A

d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.

320
Q

What is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?

A

2-4

321
Q

A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?

Select one:

a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad
b. Two-leg squat on floor
c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc

A

c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc

322
Q

Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?

Select one:

a. 9 to 11
b. 12 to 13
c. 14 to 16
d. 17 to 19

A

b. 12 to 13

323
Q

Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?

Select one:

a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.

A

c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.

324
Q

Within how many minutes should a client consume 1.5 g/kg of carbohydrates to maximize glycogen replenishment after exercise?

A

30 minutes

325
Q

What is triple flexion?

A

multi-joint exercise that involves flexion at hips, knees, and ankles

326
Q

What is triple extension?

A

multi-joint exercise that involves extension at the hip, knee, and ankle

327
Q

Scapular elevation refers to which of the following motions of the scapula?

Select one:

a. Axial
b. Vertical
c. Transverse
d. Superior

A

D. superior

328
Q

What are the muscles of the global stabilization system primarily responsible for?

A

Transferring loads between the upper and lower extremities

329
Q

Which movements are the latissimus dorsi responsible for concentrically accelerating?

Select one:

a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
b. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
c. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation

A

Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

330
Q

In which of the following scenarios would energy be mostly derived from anaerobic metabolism?

Select one:

a. When an athlete is in a steady state or at rest
b. When an athlete reduces the duration of an activity
c. When an athlete begins an activity
d. When an athlete experiences temporary fatigue

A

c. When an athlete begins an activity

331
Q

What is the phenomenon called when prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles?

A

autogenic inhibition

332
Q

Which body composition assessment is most appropriate for an obese client?

A

circumference measurement

333
Q

A waist-to-hip ratio over ___ puts a female client at risk for a number of diseases?

A

0.80

334
Q

Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?

A

pro shuttle test

335
Q

During a single-leg squat assessment your client’s knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive?

Select one:

a. Medial hamstrings
b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
c. TFL
d. Gluteus medius

A

TFL

336
Q

Which assessment measures muscular endurance of the upper body?

A

push up assessment

337
Q

What phase is this?

A

Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance

338
Q

What phase is this?

A

Phase 2 Strength Endurance

339
Q

What phase is this?

A

Phase 3 Hypertrophy

340
Q

What phase is this?

A

Phase 4 Max Strength

341
Q

What phase is this?

A

Phase 5 Power

342
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate at the Power Level (Phase 5) of the OPT model or before athletic competition?

Select one:

a. Relative flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Active flexibility
d. Functional flexibility

A

functional flexibility

343
Q

When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?

Select one:

a. Anteriorly rotated pelvis
b. 90° horizontally abducted humerus
c. 90° internally rotated humerus
d. Posteriorly rotated pelvis

A

posteriorly rotated pelvis

344
Q

Which of the following is about having an attitude of genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?

Select one:

a. Asking questions
b. Active listening
c. Summarizing
d. Reflecting

A

active listening

345
Q

What are the two types of fitness goals?

A

process & product

346
Q

Which movements are the latissimus dorsi responsible for concentrically accelerating?

Select one:

a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
d. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation

A

a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

347
Q

The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?

Select one:

a. Heart rate reserve (HRR)
b. Metabolic equivalent (MET)
c. VO2 reserve
d. Estimated oxygen consumption

A

D. estimated oxygen consumption

348
Q

When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which muscle?

A

psoas

349
Q

How many muscles make up the global stabilization system?

A

7

350
Q

Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?

Select one:

a. Shark skill test, anterior view
b. Overhead squat assessment, anterior view
c. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view
d. Pushing assessment, lateral view

A

d. pushing assessment, lateral view

351
Q

Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch?

Select one:

a. Active latissimus dorsi ball stretch
b. Single-leg squat touchdown
c. Step-up to balance
d. Static 90/90 hamstring stretch

A

B. single leg squat touchdown

352
Q

When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?

Select one:

a. Bench press
b. Shark skill test
c. Davies test
d. Single-leg squat

A

D. single leg squat

353
Q

What type of support is given when someone supports their child in starting an exercise program?

A

Parental

354
Q

Creating a list of motivating key words (e.g., fast, go, focus) to replace negative thoughts is an example of what?

Select one:

a. Positive self-talk
b. Affirmations
c. Remodeling
d. Reflecting

A

A. positive self talk

NASM CPT Ed. 6 (2 decks)

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