Nauru Airlines SOP's (VOL6A) Flashcards
(282 cards)
1
Q
With regards to Vol6A, whats the difference between: �SHALL, WILL, MUST, MAY and SHOULD’?
A
- �shall�/�will�/�must is MANDATORY.
- ;May’ is OPTIONAL
- ‘Should’ is RECOMENDED.
(0.6 TERMINOLOGY)
2
Q
How much carry on baggage is allowed with Nauru Airlines and is this included in passenger standard weights?
A
7kg,
Yes for all passengers over the age of 12 (2.3.3 Passenger Weights)
3
Q
Are passengers permitted to occupy a pilot operating seat or Cabin Crew seat?
A
No. (2.3.13 Carriage of Passengers in Crew Seats)
4
Q
Are weapons and/or ammunition allowed on Nauru services?
A
Yes, however firearms and ammunition MUST NOT be carried in the passenger cabin or flight deck. Firearms may be carried in the cargo compartmentsbut ONLY if prior acceptance procedures are followed.
(2.3.11 Carriage of Firearms and Ammunition)
5
Q
Is ammunition permissble on Nauru Airlines? Where must it be carried? (Check in or carry on)
A
Yes, if in accordance with IATA regulations. Small quantities of sporting ammunition intended for personal use by passengers may be carried as CECKED baggage to ensure it is not accessible during flight.
NOTE: In addition:
1. It is to be securely boxed in quantities not exceeding 5 kg Gross weight per passenger
2. It must not have explosive or incendiary projectiles
3. Allowances for more than one passenger must not be combined with similar allowances for other passengers. Ammunition of any quantity or type is not permitted as �carry on� baggage. Quantities or types of
ammunition, other than those described above, must be treated as Dangerous Goods.
6
Q
Are kitchen knives, Army or souvenir knives and swords considered potential weapons?
A
Yes, and must not be carried in the aircraft cabin. (2.3.11 Carriage of Firearms and Ammunition)
7
Q
Who needs to approve medical transportation flights on Nauru Airline services?
A
The CEO in consultation with the HOFGO and Safety Department. (2.3.14.1 Medical Transport Operations)
Note: See CASR 121.245 and CASR PART 121 MOS Chapter 13 Division 1 13.2 for more information.
8
Q
What communication requirements are to be ensured by the flight crew prior to conducting a medical transportation on Nauru Airlines?
A
1.) All aircraft intercom systems must be serviceable.
2.) The aircrafts SAT Phone system must be serviceable.
(2.3.14.2 Policy and Procedures for Carriage)
9
Q
Are seat packs allowed on emergency exit rows ?
A
No (2.4.4.2 Limitations)
10
Q
Is it permissible to place containers next to the emergency exits on a freighter flight?
A
Yes, however, the signage must be taped to obscure viewing. (2.4.5 Freighter Flights)
Note: Freighter Flights are defined as having no persons travelling in the cabin.
11
Q
What is the Maximum POB for AEI converted aircraft?
A
EDTO: Four
Non EDTO: Six
(2.4.5 Freighter Flights)
12
Q
What category does Nauru Airlines operate their B737s?
A
Cat C, however, is permissible to increase the category above C in accordance with the relevant procedures. (3.1.1.2 Performance Category/Operating Minima)
13
Q
Are Nauru Airlines allowed to operate RPT services under VFR?
A
No. (3.1.1 Flight Authorisation and Category)
14
Q
What is the minimum amount of cabin attendants required on revenue RPT services?
A
Three, however up to six may be rostered. (Unless company aircraft only has four Cabin Crew stations, in which case the max cabin attendants will be four)
(3.1.9 Crew Complement)
15
Q
Are crew allowed to set their desired seat position after the aircraft commences taxi?
A
No,
NOTE: seat position is to be checked before the aircraft commences to taxi. (Seat positions shall be adjusted in such a manner as to provide both pilots complete and full control of the aircraft.)
(3.1.10.2 Pilot�s Seat Position)
16
Q
Is it permissible to leave the flight deck door unlocked after the engine has started with no passengers on board?
A
No, unless it is a freighter flightand there is only one pilot in the cockpit. For freighter flights or ferry flights, the Flight Deck door is to remain unlocked and open when one pilot remains on the Flight Deck.
Note: flight deck door shall be kept locked in other times from engine start to engine shutdown
(3.1.11 Flight Deck Access & APPENDIX 8 � VOLUME 6A POLICY ANNEX: A8.1.2.2 - Headset Use:)
17
Q
Is it permissible to open the flight deck door with passengers in the galley?
A
No, it must be ensured there are no passengers in the forward galley area or standing waiting for the restroom when door is open. (3.1.11 Flight Deck Access)
18
Q
When MUST the flight deck door be closed and locked?
A
From engine start to engine shutdown.
(3.1.11 Flight Deck Access)
19
Q
What is the approved procedure to access the flight deck?
A
Entry to the flight deck will only be granted via contact through the interphone with the agreed access code word. (3.1.11 Flight Deck Access)
20
Q
What is the minimum amount of crew members required in the flight deck on the cruise sector? What is the policy?
A
Two crew members of which one MUST be a pilot. If one pilot is absent from the flight deck, a substitute crew member must be in the flight deck with the door locked until the pilot returns. Cabin Crew must not occupy a control seat. When one pilot is absent from the flight deck the remaining pilot is to wear the seat belt and shoulder harness until he returns. (3.1.11 Flight Deck Access)
21
Q
When is the only permissible time the Capt or F/O may disable Cockpit Voice Recorder or the Flight Data Recorder in flight?
A
Never. Disabling the Cockpit Voice Recorder or Flight Data Recorder shall ONLY be conducted by maintenance personnel in order to preserve the data when required.
(3.1.13 Flight Deck Recorder)
22
Q
Who is responsible for recording clearances ? What actions are required after?
A
Both:
SID’s: Captain on the flight plan and FO on TOLD card.
STAR: PF on the flight plan and PM on the
TOLD card.
Level changes en route are to be recorded on the flight plan, together with the time of receipt (UTC).
After both pilots have recorded the clearance, the PF is to repeat the clearance in its entirety to the PM for
confirmation before proceeding.
Note: Should any doubt exist to the clearance/instruction being received, then the clearance/instruction is to be clarified with the issuer and confirmed by both pilots.
(3.1.23 Recording and Checking Clearances)
23
Q
Is it permissible to fly at night or in IMC without the Flight Director and Auto Pilot unserviceable?
A
Yes, Vol6A requires the Flight Director and the Autopilot must be coupled for all en route and approach phases of the flight at night and in Instrument meteorological condition (IMC) conditions, however the DDG covers all Vol6A requirements and overrights Vol6A limitations.
Note: Only applies to Enroute and approach phase. DDG 22-01 & 34-12
(3.1.28 Flight Management Computer (FMC) and Automatic Flight Policy and Procedures)
24
Q
BEFORE V1: How is an engine failure confirmed?
A
Two or more engine instruments. (3.3.6 Engine Failure or Fire Procedures)
25
What is Nauru Airlines IFR take off minimums? Who makes the assessment?
Atleast the Minima specified in the applicable Jeppesen chart or 550m RVR whichever is the higher. The captain.
(3.1.76 IFR Take-Off MINIMA)
26
When is an aircraft considered to be dispatched? (In reference to DDG or QRH)
The moment at which the aircraft begins to taxi under its own power. (DDG 2.2 dispatch policy)
27
When should crew refer to the DDG for defects and when should the crew refer the AFM for system defects?
On the ground, crew should first consult DDG, once dispatched, refer to AFM. Eg QRH. (DDG 2.4 Management of defects)
28
What is the acceleration altitude when doing a missed approach?
1000ft above the MDA/DA unless specified otherwise in Missed App procedure. (3.1.114 Missed Approach Acceleration Altitude)
29
When must the F/O instruct the cabin crew to disarm the doors and crosscheck?
During taxi-in when making final turn to the aerobridge/parking bay. (3.1.116 Door Disarming Procedure)
30
What is the response call if the PM calls: "FLAPS UP, NO LIGHTS"
PITCH MODE: VNAV/LVL CHNG
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
31
What is the response call if the PM calls “FAF HEIGHT CHECKED”
___ (TDZE) set
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
32
What standard weight does Nauru Airlines use for an adult male and female?
Male = 89kg, Female=74kg.
(2.3.3 Passenger Weights)
33
Is it permissible to reduce the performance category of the B737, if approach weights will allow a slower speed? What is the allocated performance category?
No, Cat C. Flight crew may elect to increase the performance category with the relevant procedures.
(3.1.1.2 Flight Authorisation and Category & 3.1.109.1 Circling Approaches)
34
How are FMC entries made in flight?
FMC entries should be cross checked by both pilot with no discontinuities PRIOR to execution and must be checked again after execution. (3.1.29 FMC Entries)
Note: on ground during departure preparations it is sufficient for the crew member making the entries conducts the checks.
35
Above what altitude may the PF make FMC entries? What is required?
FL100: Autopilot must be engaged. (3.1.29 FMC Entries)
36
Whend do the 'No contact' periods start and end? (Cabin crew prohibited from contacting crew with non emergency related information)
The No Contact periods are:
� Take-Off � from the start of the Take-off roll until Landing Gear Up
� Landing � from Landing Gear Down until the end of the Landing Roll
(3.1.30 Sterile Flight Deck and No Contact policy
37
When does the STERILE FLIGHT DECK procedure commence and cease? What does the PM do to indicate this?
DEP: Engine start to passing 5000ft.
ARR: Passing 5000ft until commencing taxi.
Note: PM MUST double chime passing 5000ft.
(3.1.30 Sterile Flight Deck and No Contact policy)
Note: The No contact period relates to landing and taking off. This ensures pilots are not distracted until airborne and until after landing. The sterile cockpit relates to distractions during critical phases. Engine startin g requires full attention hence why it starts there and ends after passing 5000ft.
38
What is the required policy on Altitude setting after an airways clearence is received?
The assigned altitude included in an airways clearance must be set on the MCP or, if limiting, any altitude restriction assigned by ATC.
(3.1.25 Altitude Setting)
39
When departing an aerodrome OCA, what altitude must be set on the MCP?
The highest IFR cruising level beneath the lower limit of that airspace should be set in the MCP.
Once the airways clearance has been received the cleared flight level should then be set in the MCP and confirmed in the FMC.
(3.1.26 Departure Outside Controlled Airspace)
40
When should company calls and PA's be performed?
During low workload areas of flight. With the autopilot engaged.
(3.1.27 Flight Deck Workload)
41
When should flight plan and trip record's be filled out? Is there a requirement?
Above FL100 or on the ground after shutdown. The autopilot MUST be engaged.
(3.1.27 Flight Deck Workload)
42
When is the PM required to provide advisory callouts?
When the aircraft is flown outside exceedance parameters . Generally for sustained periods or trending away from correction.
(3.1.32.1 Exceedance Callouts)
43
Who must call out the change on the FMA display?
The pilot making the MCP selection must call out the FMA change. Automatic mode changes are called out by the PF with autopilot engaged and PM during manual flight.
(3.1.32.2 Standard FMA Callouts)
44
What should the PF say when a PM makes a callout and there is no specified response callout?
CHECKED (Except for V1 and VR calls)
(3.1.32.3 Response to Callouts)
45
What are the hand over/take over calls?
When the PF wishes to hand over control, he will call "YOU HAVE CONTROL" and retain control until the PM responds and say "I HAVE CONTROL". After the PM makes this call, the PF will relinquish control.
(3.1.33 Hand Over and Take Over Procedure)
46
What are the four steps in the SAFE escalation procedure?
S- State the exceedance.
A- Announce a solution.
F- Fix the exceedance by calling "CAPTAIN YOU MUST LISTEN"
E- Emergency statement and take control.
(3.1.34 Safe Escalation Framework)
47
What mandatory report does the captain need from the cabin prior to taking off?
CABIN SECURE
(3.1.35 Flight Deck and Cabin Communication)
48
How long must crew wait prior to resetting a circuit breaker and how many reset's are perissible?
One reset is permissible after a 2 minute cooling period.
(3.1.36 Resetting Circuit Breakers)
49
Can FUEL PUMP CB's be reset by crew?
No, Fuel pump circuit breakers are NOT reset under any circumstances without first ensuring an appropriate maintenance investigation has been completed.
(3.1.36 Resetting Circuit Breakers & DDG ATA 28 Fuel)
50
What is the company policy with fire detected warnings?
They MUST be treated as genuine with the appropriate procedure executed.
(3.1.38 Fire Detector Warnings)
51
What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure required to dispatch when already outside of Australia?
The minimum dispatch pressures are set out in Volume 3 � Flight Planning and Performance Manual � Flight Planning is MANDATORY requirement (3.1.39 Crew Oxygen))
52
What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure required to dispatch out of Australia?
1250 psi, prior to each sector regardless of crew change.
(3.1.39 Crew Oxygen)
53
When must the oxygen communication system be tested?
Prior to each flight sector regardless of a crew change.
(3.1.39 Crew Oxygen & CASR Part 91 section 10.02 of the MOS)
54
If one pilot leaves the cockpit in cruise, what two emergencies must the PF at this time be prepared for?
Emergency descent and engine failure or fire in the cruise.
55
What is the company policy on TCAS warnings?
All TCAS warnings MUST be treated as genuine with the QRH manoeuvres executed.
During a TCAS RA, the PM must announce "TCAS RA" to ATC and "CLEAR OF CONFLICT, RETURNING TO ____" once clear of conflict.
(3.1.40 Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System & Jeppesen Pacific 7.3 Emergency communication)
56
When can GPWS warnings be ignored?
In DAY VMC, only when no obstacle or terrain hazard can visually be verified. (3.1.41 Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System)
57
Are all EGPWS or TCAS warnings a IRM?
Yes (Jeppesen Pacific 3.2.1 RRM - REPORTING � ALL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS)
58
When MUST inboard landing lights be turned on and off during departure?
*ON* when entering a runway, and *OFF* when passing FL100. The captain may elect to turn all landing lights on and off any time for enhanced safety purposes.
Note: Extended operation of inboard landing lights may cause lamp failure due to excessive heat particularly when high ambient temperatures existCaptain may direct otherwise for safety of operation.
(3.1.44 Use Of Exterior Lights)
59
When MUST inboard landing lights be turned *ON* and off during arrival and approach?
Passing FL150 on descent. All landing lights are to be turned off once the runway has been vacated.
(3.1.44 Use Of Exterior Lights)
60
When should the RUNWAY TURN OFF lights be turned on and off during departure?
*ON* when entering a runway, and *OFF* when passing FL100.
(3.1.44 Use Of Exterior Lights)
61
When should the STROBE lights be turned on and off during departure?
*ON* when entering a runway, and *OFF* when vacating runway. Strobes remain ON for the entire flight.
(3.1.44 Use Of Exterior Lights)
62
When must the taxi light be turned used?
The taxi light should be selected ON during all taxi operations day and night.
(3.1.44 Use Of Exterior Lights)
63
When must the logo lights be used?
Night operations only.
*ON* when entering a runway, and *OFF* when passing FL100.
During descent selected *ON* passing FL150.
(3.1.44 Use Of Exterior Lights)
64
When are logo lights used?
At all times during night operation. Logo lights are switched off during departure after passing FL100 and turned back ON during arrival the FL150.
65
What is NA max crosswind policy for the B737 CL & NG
45M> 34 kts (Dry) & 25kts (Wet)
Narrow RWY: 30kts (Dry) & 20kts (Wet)
Standing water/slush/snow/ice : 15 kts
(3.1.45 Crosswind Limitations)
66
When calculating the LDR on a dry runway before flight, what factor should be used to determine if the LDA will be adequate? Is this factored into OPT calculations?
67% Increase in LDR. Yes, but only for departure calculations. Enroute landing calculations require a 15% addition to LDR only.
(3.1.53.1 Landing � Dispatch (Pre-Flight Landing Requirements & Part 121 9.10 Pre-flight landing requirements�dry runway)
67
When calculating the LDR on a wet runway, what factor should be used to determine if the LDA will be adequate? Is this factored into OPT calculations?
92% increase in LDR. Yes, however 15% should be added to LDR when using ENROUTE landing function.
(3.1.53.1 Landing � Dispatch (Pre-Flight Landing Requirements))
68
When when calculating LDR, what factor must be considered by satisfy regulatory requirements ?
Is this factored into the OPT calculations?
Is there a different requirement for non normal operations?
15% increase in LDR. No this must be manually added on. Non normal operations does not require any additional factoring.
(3.1.54 Landing � En route (In-Flight Landing Requirements)
69
If there is a difference between the flight plan track and FMC track, which one should be set on the MCP course window?
FMC track (3.1.59 Flight Plan And FMC Legs Page Check)
70
What is the maximum permissible difference between the F/O or CAPT altimeter and the nominated elevation?
With the correct QNH, individual altimeters should indicate the nominated elevation to within �60 ft of the airport elevation. (One altimeter may indicate within 75ft to depart, but both must read to within 60ft of the elevation at the destination airport.)
Maximum difference between the Captain�s and First Officer�s altimeter and field
elevation is 75 ft.
(3.1.60 Pre-flight Altimeter Check)
71
When should the take off briefing be completed?
After the airways clearance has been received. (3.1.63.4 Take-off Briefing)
72
What pertinent items are to be included in a normal departure briefing?
1. Intended RWY
2. Flaps
3. Aircondition
4. Roll mode to be used
5. Direction of turn after take off
6. Initial altitude
(3.1.63.4 Take-off Briefing)
73
What is the non-normal briefing for before V1?
BELOW 80 kts
During the take off roll if we have any abnormalities* BELOW 80 kts we will reject the take off.
ABOVE 80 kts BELOW V1
Above 80 kts & below V1 we will ONLY reject for:
fire or fire warning
engine failure
predictive wind-shear warning
if the airplane is unsafe or unable to fly. (Cargo warning lights in freighter A/C)
I�ll expect you to call �REJECT� � I�ll confirm by verifying you�ve simultaneously disengaged the A/T and closed the thrust levers. Applying manual breaking, the speed brakes are UP and applying MAXIMUM REVERSERS.
I�ll call out any omissions and call �STOPPING� through 60kts.
(3.1.63.4 Take-off Briefing)
74
What must the non-normal briefing for after V1 include?
1. Special procedure
2. Acceleration altitude
3. MSA
(3.1.63.4 Take-off Briefing)
75
When are the non normal procedure prior to V1 required to be briefed?
On the first sector only (3.1.63.4 Take-off Briefing)
76
What is the window for Calculated off-blocks time (COBT). What must be done outside this window?
5 minutes before, 15 min after. OCC must be consulted. If the departure is subject to a COBT, then the window becomes -5 to +15 minutes. (perth = -5 +10) See also CTOT for NZ ops.
(3.1.65 Scheduled Departures & Jepppesen 7.3.2 Calculated Off Blocks Time (COBT))
77
What must be done if any doubt exists during taxi on the ground in respect to clearance?
Stop the aircraft and seek immediate clarification. (3.1.68 Manoeuvring on the Ground)
78
What is the minimum en-route weather avoidance policy?
All thunderstorms should be avoided by a minimum of 10 nm at or below FL200
and a minimum of 20 nm above FL200 . (3.1.69 Weather Avoidance Policy)
79
What is the minimum distance away where a thunderstorm is approaching a field, the crew may attempt an approach and landing?
Approach and landing are not to be conducted at an aerodrome where a thunderstorm is approaching the field at a distance of less than 5 nm. (3.1.69 Weather Avoidance Policy)
80
In case of weather radar failure en route, what restrictions apply?
a flight is only permitted to continue to an aerodrome if weather forecasts indicate no likelihood of thunderstorms, lightning, turbulence or icing. (Hazardous weather)
(3.1.69 Weather Avoidance Policy)
81
When should reduced thrust be used for take off and what is the preferred method?
Company policy is to use reduced thrust for all take-offs when conditions permit. The Assumed Temperature method is the preferred method. (3.1.71.1 Reduced Thrust Take-Off)
82
When is using reduced thrust prohibited?
1. If the runway is contaminated
2. Suspected wind-shear exists.
3. Anti ice fluids are required for departure.
4. Any condition that is deemed to enhance the safety of the flight by the captain.
5. Prohibited by an MEL or CDL.
(3.1.71.1 Reduced Thrust Take-Off)
83
Who can be PF during an RTO manoeuvre?
The captain always conducts the RTO. (3.1.71.2 Take-Offs and Landings by First Officer)
84
What steps can be taken to improve take off performance and in what order should this be executed?
1. ATM method (Use actual temperature)
2. No bleeds take off (Where assumed temperature is 10 degrees or less than above ambient temperature, then use bleeds off.)
3. Optimum flaps (Flap 1 is the least preferred flap setting for take-off)
4. Improved climb (RWY>2000m)
B.A.F.I
(3.1.71.1 Reduced Thrust Take-Off)
85
When must the PF conduct a pre-departure review and what should it include? What will trigger the preceding step?
Once the cabin informs the crew 'CABIN SECURE' , the crew can commence the before takeoff checklist (After completion of the Before Take-off checklist):
1. Any changes to initial normal take off briefing
2. Flaps
3. Bleeds
4. Direction of turn
5. Altitude
(3.1.75 Pre-Departure Review)
86
What is the lowest altitude crew may commence a turn after take off?
500 ft unless required for special engine failure procedures. (3.1.80 Turns After Take-Off and RNP Departures)
87
What is Nauru Airlines standard noise abatement procedure?
1. Maintain Vref +10-20kts to 800ft AGL
2. Thrust reduction at 1000ft AGL
3. First flap retraction commenced at 1000 ft
4. Maintain Vzf until passing 3000ft
5. Accelerate to enroute climb speed.
(3.1.82 Noise Abatement Departure)
88
What is Nauru Airlines standard acceleration altitude? How is this set up?
1000ft. Set on both pilots reference altitude markers (3.1.83 Acceleration Altitude)
89
What items are included in the company callback?
1. OFF blocks time
2. Departure time
3. Arrival time
4. Delay code
5. Delay time
�[Ground Handling Agent], [aircraft call sign], OFFBLOCKS [time],
AIRBORNE [time], [destination] [time], DELAY CODE [code], DELAY TIME [time]�
Note: All times in UTC.
(3.1.85 Company Call-Back)
90
What items does the Cruise cross check include?
1. The aircraft is cruising at the correct cruising altitude by checking MCP.
2. The correct altimeter setting is set.
3. The FMA pitch indicates VNAV PATH.
(3.1.86 Cruise Cross Checks)
91
What is NA policy for minimum permissible cruise speed?
Min manoeuvre speed PLUS 10 kts. (Vref flap 40 PLUS 100kts will give an accurate min speed)
(3.1.91 Minimum Cruise Speed)
92
What is the maximum safe bank angle above FL300?
15� in modes other than LNAV (3.1.92 Maximum Bank Angle)
93
When is it permissible to descend below the MSA or LSAT?
1. When conducting a DGA (Don't)
2. When being vectored to a MVA by ATC. (Vector)
3. After passing the IAF on a IAP (In)
4. Within 30nm when cleared for a visual approach (Very)
5. Climbing after take off. (Close)
Jeppsen Pacific
94
Is it permissible to commence an approach if the RVR is reported below the minimum visibility for landing?
No (3.1.100 Instrument Approach - Approach Ban)
95
When conducting a IAP, descending below what altitude is prohibited if ATC report the RVR to have reduced below minimum for landing? What must happen if you are already below this altitude when ATC reports a reduction in RVR?
1000ft AFE. The approach may continue to the MDA/DA. (3.1.100 Instrument Approach - Approach Ban)
96
What is the correct procedure for changing aids? How and when should aids be identified?
In the departure and approach phases both pilots must identify the primary departure and approach aids aurally. Changes are to be announced clearly to the other pilot.
When identifying an aid selection, it should be done independently to ensure that a continuous listening watch is maintained.
(3.1.102 Radio Aid Identification)
97
Prior to commencing an ILS approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?
DH (Height)
(3.1.103 Radio Altimeter Setting)
98
Prior to commencing an RNAV approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?
MDH (Height)
(3.1.103 Radio Altimeter Setting)
99
Prior to commencing an NDB/VOR approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?
MDH (Height)
(3.1.103 Radio Altimeter Setting)
100
Prior to commencing an VISUAL approach, what should the Radio Altimeter decision height reference indicator be set to?
(-) 20 ft (3.1.103 Radio Altimeter Setting)
101
How long is a reported QNH valid for?
15 minutes (3.1.104 Altimeter Setting)
102
What margin above stalling speed does Vref give?
30% (1.3 x Vs) (3.1.107.1 Speeds and Airspeed Marker Settings)
103
During an instrument approach, who is responsible for maintaining a visual lookout?
PM, however either pilot may call "*VISUAL*" when visual contact is made with the runway environment. (3.1.107.2 Visual Contact During Instrument Approaches)
Note: Once the visual call has been made and acknowledged by the other pilot responding *"VISUAL*", visual procedures are to be used for the remainder of the approach.
104
If either pilot calls visual, what is the response call and what procedures are to be used for the remainder ?
VISUAL', visual procedures.
(3.1.107.2 Visual Contact During Instrument Approaches)
105
If a runway aligned 2D approach plate has an MDA of 500ft, what is the actual MDA that must be used and how is this set up?
550ft, set on both pilot's reference Altitude markers and is treated as a DA. Markers must be crosschecked. (3.1.107.3 Minimum Descent Altitude)
106
If pilots add 50ft to change an MDA to a DA, are pilots allowed to descend below this MDA + 50ft?
Yes, however descending below the MDA on the approach plate is prohibited. (3.1.107.3 Minimum Descent Altitude)
107
If a runway aligned 2D approach plate has an MDA of 1030ft for circling, what is the actual MDA that must be used and how is this set up?
1030 ft (1100 ft on MCP) set on both pilot's reference Altitude markers and is treated as a MDA. Markers must be crosschecked. (A8.2.1.14 - Approach Stabilization Criteria)
108
The minimum altitude for a Circling Approach in Nauru Airline�s ?
500� AAL. (A8.2.1.14 - Approach Stabilization Criteria)
109
What weather conditions may allow pilots to plan for a visual approach? What condition is required?
If the weather condition are greater than the following:
1. No more than FEW clouds below the LSALT+500ft.
2. At least 10km of vis.
3. No weather in the area.
An IAP must still be briefed and prepared for.
(3.1.107.4 Visual Approaches)
110
What is the minimum distance from threshold, final approach may be join when conducting a visual approach? What approach path angel is recommended?
All visual approaches should be flown at a 3� approach angle and the visual aiming point for landing is the touch down zone aiming point. Straight-in visual approaches shall join the final approach course at a point no less than 5nm from the runway threshold.
(3.1.107.4 Visual Approaches)
111
How should the Auto-throttle be disengaged during an ILS or V/S pitch mode approach (pitch modes other than VNAV)?
Deselecting speed. (3.1.108 Autopilot and Autothrottle Usage)
112
How should the Auto-throttle be disengaged during a VNAV pitch mode approach?
Disengaging the A/T (3.1.108 Autopilot and Autothrottle Usage)
113
What is the stabilised approach criteria?
1. RoD <1000ft/pm unless briefed to be in excess.
2. IAS: Vref +10 kts/-5 kts
3. Minimal changes to track, profile and path required to land.
4. Correct configuration
5. Checklist done
(3.1.109 Stabilised Final Approach)
114
What is the recommended approach profile of a 3D app?
1. 3000� AGL or intercepting the final decent path: Flaps 5 and reducing to Flap 5 manoeuvring speed.
2. 2500� AGL: Select gear down, Flap 15 and reduce to Flaps 15 manoeuvring speed.
3. 1500� AGL: Select landing flap and reduce to VAPP.
(3.1.110 Recommended Approach Profiles)
115
What is the recommended approach profile of a 2D app?
1. IAF: Flaps 5 and reducing to Flap 5 Manoeuvring Speed.
2. For runway aligned approaches
3. FAF: Gear down, select landing flap and reduce to VAPP.
4. For circling approaches
5. FAF: Gear down and Flap 15. Remain in this configuration until turning base.
(3.1.110 Recommended Approach Profiles)
116
When is it likely that crew will miss the G/S or FAF height check?
When the the check is around 2500ft AGL.
117
When should auto brake be used & how is its use calculated?
Using OPT.
1. Adverse weather conditions, or
2. Crosswind greater than 10kts, or
3. Wet runway operations, or
4. Narrow runway operations, or
5. Landing runway length is less than 2000m.
(3.1.111 Autobrake Usage and Setting for Landing)
118
When is reverse thrust be used?
On all landings unless the airport restricts the use of reverse thrust or a roll through is offered by ATC, then minimum idle reverse thrust shall be used.
NOTE:
A full stop landing must be completed after reverse thrust has been selected after touch down. A minimum of idle reverse shall be used for all landings.
(3.1.112 Reverse Thrust Usage During Landing)
119
Who is responsible for stowing the reverse thrust levers (FULL DOWN) after landing and by when must the reverse thrust be stowed?
The PF shall commence thrust lever stowage PRIOR to the 60 kts.
NOTE: Commencing the stowage doesnt mean, it must be stowed by 60 knots. FCTM indicates the levers should be positioned to reverse idle by taxi speed which is 30 kts on normal taxiways or 50 kts for high speed taxi ways. Then to full down once the engines are at idle (+/- 25% N1)
(3.1.112 Reverse Thrust Usage During Landing)
120
When is reverse thrust must effective and when should it be activated?
At high speeds. Reverse thrust should be engaged as soon as the main wheel touchdown but NO EARLIER.
(3.1.112 Reverse Thrust Usage During Landing)
121
Who is responsible for making the decision to go around?
Captain (3.1.113 Missed Approach)
122
When should a missed approach be executed?
1. Minimum visibillity not met at MDA/DA or lost after descending below MDA/DA
3. Passing 1000� AFE, RVR is reported by ATC as continually less than the specified minimum for the approach
5. The aircraft is not stabilised below 1000 feet in IMC or 500 feet in VMC.
(3.1.113 Missed Approach)
123
What is the PF call after passing acceleration altitude?
BUG UP (3.2.3 Standard Callouts & 3.3.6.3 Engine Failure/Fire Procedure Calls)
124
What is the response call to "BUG UP" from the PF
speed' SET eg. 210/220/230 kts SET (3.3.6.3 Engine Failure/Fire Procedure Calls)
125
What is the call the PF should make when approaching transition altitude during a climb?
TRANSITION, SET STANDARD (3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
126
What is the PM's call when the localiser or course-bar leaves full scale deflection?
LOCALISER ALIVE (3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
127
What is the PM's call when the glide slope leaves full scale deflection?
GLIDESLOPE ALIVE (3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
128
What is the PM's role when approaching minimums?
Call '100 FT' when 100ft above the minimums, at which point the PM looks outside to call acquire visual reference. If NOT VISUAL, the PM will say nothing and call "MINIMUM, VISUAL or NIL SIGHTING"
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
129
What is the PF's role when approaching minimums?
Maintain a scan of instruments until the PM calls, "MINIMUMS, VISUAL or NIL SIGHTING" at which point the PF either calls: "LANDING or GOING AROUND"
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
130
What call must the PM make at the FAF?
"GLIDESLOPE HEIGHT CHECKED" (ILS) or "FAF HEIGHT CHECKED"(RNAV)
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
131
What is the PM call for one reverser not operating normally?
"NO REVERSER NO__"
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
132
What is the PM call for reverser operating normally?
"REVERSERS NORMAL"
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
133
What is the PM call for speed brake not in the up detent?
"SPEEDBRAKE NOT UP"
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
134
What is the PM's call if the rate of descent exceeds 1000fpm below 1000ft ?
"SINKRATE"
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
135
When must the "AIRSPEED" exceedance call be made by the PM?
When the IAS exceeds either 5 kts below Vref or 10kts above Vref.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
136
When must the PM call "LOCALISER" ?
When the ILS/LOC reaches full scale deflection on the expanded scale.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
137
When must the PM call "GLIDESLOPE" ?
When the G/S reaches one dot high/low
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
138
What is tolerances for an NDB approach, and what is the exceedance call?
5º deflection. "TRACK" if using Azimuth guidance, "COURSE BAR" if using a CDI.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
139
What is tolerances for an RNAV approach, and what is the exceedance call?
1. Half scale. "CROSS TRACK"
2. Full scale. "CROSS TRACK LIMIT"
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
140
When should the PM call PAPI/VASI?
During a VISUAL approach ONLY if the PAPI/VASI is indicating a sustained ONE DOT HIGH/LOW indication.
(3.2.3 Standard Callouts)
141
What actions are required prior to engine start when using an EFB?
1. On airplane mode
2. Bluetooth is OFF
3. Secured in the approved mount
4. Wifi is OFF
(3.4.5 Electronic Flight Bag - 3.4.5.3 Operational Responsibilities and Procedures)
142
What actions are required if the iPad start overheating or catches fire?
1. Remove all power from the device.
2. If possible, place the iPad in a fire proof bag or place in an empty waste bin and place the bin in the lavatory.
3. Fill the bin with non alcoholic liquid.
4. Monitor.
(3.4.5 Electronic Flight Bag- 3.4.6.1 Emergency Procedures)
143
How many GNSS's is Nauru Aeroplanes fitted with?
Two (3.4.2 Performance Based Navigation (PBN - 3.4.2.1 Operational Approval)
144
What is the F/O’s actions when cleared to line up?
1. Turn on RWY TURN OFF AND INBOARD LANDING lights.
2. Turn off taxi light
3. Double chime
4. Turn on strobe lights
5. Ensure TA/RA is selected on transponder
6. Turn on Wx radar and select wx & terrain on
(A5.2 - Take-off Procedure)
145
What critical items need to be checked when conducting an RNP procedure?
1. DME updating is off.
2. RNP is correct and ANP < RNP.
3. PM is on Prog pg.4
4. PF is on legs pg, map 10
5. Correct QNH & Temperature set in forecast page.
(3.4.2.7 RNP/PBN Approach Guide & 3.5.6 RNP/PBN Approach Guide)
146
What is the PF’s call when declaring a go around? What is the PM’s actions?
*GO AROUND*, flaps 15!
The PM must select flap 15, monitor the flap retraction and check go around thrust is set. Then call “POSITIVE RATE” after verifying positive increase on altimeter.
(A5.8 - Go-Around and Missed Approach Procedure)
147
After V1, if an engine failure occurred, when can crew call ‘FAILURE’ ?
Once the gear’s retracted. (3.3.6.2 Engine Failure/Fire after V1)
148
How is an engine, cargo hold or APU FIRE identified?
Engine FIRE is solely confirmed by an ENGINE FIRE WARNING (Light and bell). Any fire warning MUST be treated as genuine.
149
What is the call after an engine failure has been confirmed?
"ENGINE Failure" (3.3.6.2 Engine Failure/Fire after V1)
150
What is the max crosswind penalty for a wet runway compared to dry?
10 kts (3.1.45 Crosswind Limitations)
151
What is the minimum amount of Cabin Crew required for revenue services?
Minimum 3. (Note: Maximum six Cabin Crew may be rostered if needed)
152
When is a landing performance calculation mandatory?
1. RWY is below 2600m.
2. Above 1% slope
3. Airport Elevation above 1000ft
4. Above ISA + 15°
5. RWY Wet or Contaminated
6. Tail wind
(A8.2.1.11 - Descent Preparation)
153
When LDA permits, what is the best combination to reduce fuel cost and brake wear?
FLAP 30 + REV IDLE + Autobrake 1 (A8.2.1.11 - Descent Preparation)
This can be planned for every landing at Brisbane airport and manual can be then used for rapid exit.
154
What does NITS stand for?
Nature of the situation or emergency
Intentions of the crew
Time related information
Special Instructions
(A8.5.2 � Decision Making)
155
What must the captain check Prior to receiving a pushback clearance?
1. Confirm all doors closed and Steering bypass pin installed.
2. Confirm cleared to pressurised hydraulcs.
Note: The doors are frst checked on the overhead panel, and then confrimed with the dispatcher via interphone.
(3.1.66 Pushback Procedures)
156
Is RFFS required for operations inside Australian territory?
No. (3.1.3.1 RFFS requirements)
157
Are operations to an International NON-EDTO withiout RFFS allowed?
Yes, subject to aerodrom and applicable assessment. (3.1.3.2 RFFS Requirements)
Note: If RFFS are unavailablr, the operation may continue to the destination for up 72 hrs.
(3.1.3.1 RFFS requirements)
158
Are Rescue firefighting services (RFFS ) required at the Destinatinno Alternate?
Yes. Standard requirements is RFFS CAT 6, however one category lower is acceptable. (3.1.4 RFFS requirements)
159
Is RFFS required for a EDTO Enroute alternate?
Yes. Standard requirements is RFFS 4.
Note: 30 min callout is acceptable.
(Vol6A 3.1.5.2 'Adequate Airports' RFFS requirements & Part 121 4.19 EDTO En-route alternate aerodromes)
160
Are IFR pickup procedures permissible?
No. Company policy is to plan fights within controlled airspace wherever possible.
Note: For operations to non-controlled airports, flight is permitted through Class G airspace.
161
Are flights allowed to be planned trough TIBA airspace?
Flights *SHOULD* be planned to avoid the deactivated airspace and remain within controlled airspace. The HOFO may approve flight in the deactivated airspace if no other alternatives such as erscheduling the flight is a feasible option.
NOTE: TIBA airspace procedures should be reviewed on a regular basis in case of short notice airspace
deactivation.
(3.1.7 Airspace Deactivation (TIBA or equivalent)
162
Which phases of flight are two pilot MANDATORY?
1. Engine start procedure
2. Engine shutdown procedure
3. Taxiing
4. Inflight below FL100
(3.1.10.1 Occupation of Control Seat During Flight)
163
Who has permission to occupy the observer seat?
Personnel who are operationally required, such as engineers and pilot or someone who has prior approval from the HOFO.
(3.1.10.1 Occupation of Control Seat During Flight
164
When must seat belt and shoulder restraint harness be worn by BOTH crew members? (Inlcudes observer deat if occupied)
1. Take-off and landing,
2. Instrument approaches,
3. Turbulence penetration and whilst
4. Engaging in training exercises or test flights.
(3.1.12 Use of Seat Belts)
165
If an incident or accident is classified as an IRM or Routinely Reportable Matter (RRM), who will be responsible for lodging the ATSB report?
The Safety Systems department will act as the Responsible Person and lodge an ATSB report.
Note: If Flight Crew do not receive a confirmation of submission within 72 hours, they are to contact the Safety Systems department and confirm ATSB report lodgement.
(3.1.14 Accident and Incident Reporting)
166
What is Nauru Airlines policy on keeping their EFB's up to date?
EFB software applications are not to be updated without a Notice to Pilots. Prior to each flight, crew members must ensure the correct software version is being used.
(3.1.16 Electronic Flight Bag Updating Procedures)
167
When is using headsets MANDATORY?
1. Receiving airways clearances
2. From push back or engine start where no pushback is required
3. During taxi, take-off and landing
4. All operations below 10,000ft or Transition level/altitude whichever
is the higher.
4. When 1 Pilot is out of the Flight Deck
(3.1.18 Use of Headsets)
168
When MUST the HF radio be checked during the preflight ?
Whenever the HF will be required for any portion of the flight. (3.1.21 Radio Checks and Listening Watch)
169
What is Nauru Airlines policy with regards to maintaining a listening watch?
A listening watch should also be maintained on company frequency when within range. Other times,
listening watch should be maintained on 121.5 (generally VHF 2) and 123.45 (VHF 1) when ATS is not available on VHF.
(3.1.21 Radio Checks and Listening Watch)
170
Are crew ever allowed to depart without a Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC)?
No, The Pilot-in-Command must ensure the ARC is onboard the aircraft and is current.
Note: The Deferred Defect and MEL Log also records the Airworthiness Review Certificate and expiry date
(3.1.42 Airworthiness Review Certificate)
171
Whats the purpose of the Deferred Defect Log?
It serves as a quick reference to defects. (3.1.42.1 Deferred Defect Log)
172
How should all aircraft defects or operating limit exceedances are to be reported?
1. Entering details into the Tech Log
2. Inform Engineering Staff *verbally*
3. Inform Maintenance Watch
4. If the defect will potentially remove the aircraft from service or affect the airlines schedule, inform the
Operational Control Centre via phone or email, and
Note: If the aircraft defect is a RRM, IRM, or results in an event requiring a safety report, the event/defect is to
be reported in accordance with the procedures prescribed for Accident and Incident Reporting.
(3.1.43 Reporting of Defects)
173
What is included in the Pre-Flight Security Checks?
Prior to the first sector of the day, the Captain is to perform a security inspection of the flight deck, wheel
and cargo compartments to ensure they are empty.
Note: These inspections are confirmed by completing the Pre-flight Security Check Declaration.
(3.1.48 Pre-Flight Security Checks)
174
Is all company APU's is certified for operational use during refuelling?
Yes. (3.1.49 Fuelling Procedures)
175
Is it permisible to refuel the aircraft without the PIC present?
Yes however an appropriately Licensed Pilot or Licensed Aircraft Maintenance Engineer should be in CLOSE PROXIMITY. (3.1.49 Fuelling Procedures))
176
Is it permisible to use HF Radio equipment during refuelling operations?
No (3.1.49 Fuelling Procedures & FCOM Vol2 Limitations)
177
When might refuelling with engines running be required?
In the event of APU unserviceability and no ground air available for engine starting (3.1.49.3 Refuelling with Engines Running. Also see: CASR 91.495, 91.500. 91.505, CASR 121.240)
178
If a fuel discrepancy is discovered post refuelling before dispatch, what cross check methods are acceptable?
1. Check stick gauge (drip sight) readings against fuel gauge readings and previous flight fuel burns.
(3.1.49.5 Cross Checks)
179
Is it permissible to refuell with passengers embarking, disembarking or on board the aircraft ?
Yes, provided all flight crew procedures are followed and ready to act incase of emergency.
(Vol6A 3.1.49.8 Fuelling with Passengers Onboard)
180
On which flights is the PIC required to sign the cover sheet of the OFP agreeing to planned fuel load?
International. (3.1.50 Nauru Airlines Computer Flight Planning)
181
What does CAR233(1) AND CAR235 require the PIC to agree to?
182
What does "**ETP ADD*" indicate?
Additional fuel added to ensure EDTO
critical fuel scenarios are meet (3.1.50.3 Document Headings)
183
What does "**RDSP ADD*" indicate?
Redispatch additional fuel to meet redispatch
requirements (3.1.50.3 Document Headings)
184
What does "**MINDEST ADD*" indicate?
Additional fuel to ensure minimum of
60 minutes of holding fuel exist at the
destination. (3.1.50.3 Document Headings)
185
What does "**MINFW ADD*" indicate?
Additional fuel added to VH-ONU/VHYNU
to ensure minimum flight weight is
assured at all times. (3.1.50.3 Document Headings)
186
What does "*PDA%*" indicate?
Performance Degradation Allowance (3.1.50.3 Document Headings)
187
Who is responsible for ensuring the information entered into FMC from OPT is correct?
Both pilots. (3.1.51 OPT Performance Calculations)
188
Whats the function of the Take-off - Dispatch function on the OPT software app?
It calculate the maximum permissible Take-off Weight and the take-off performance data. It takes into consideration the Accelerate Stop Distance, the All-Engines Take-off Distance, the Engine-Out Take-off Distance and the Take-off Climb Gradient requirements to provide performance data for a given weight and configuration.
(3.1.51 OPT Performance Calculations)
189
What factor must be considered when calculating the LDR before deparure?
The LDR must not be more than 60% of the LDA for DRY runways and if the runway is wet, the LDA must be atleast 115% of the LDR.
Note:For ease of calculations, the following formulas may be utilised
1. For Dry runway calculations, the LDR multiplied by 1.67% must be less that the
Landing Distance Available
2. For a Wet or Contaminated runways, the LDR multiplied by 1.92% must be less
that the Landing Distance Available
(Vol6A 3.1.53.1 Landing � Dispatch :Pre-Flight Landing Requirements & Part 121 9.10(dry)/9.11(wet) Pre-flight landing requirements)
190
How much time is allowed before a delay must be noted onn the Trip record?
Any delay must be noted down with a discription as to why it occurred. (Any delay of one minute or greater must be entered on the Trip Record with a relevant letter and
number delay code with a brief explanation.)
(3.1.56 Instructions for Use)
191
Where can crew check to see if a spares kit has been loaded?
Tech log and actual hold, and it should be noted on the loadsheet. (3.1.58 Technical Log)
192
What is the company window for shceduled departures? What needs to be done if departures are not within this window?
No more than 15 minutes early, or 30 minutes late. PIC must inform OCC and seek approval to depart earlier than 15 minutes. (3.1.65 Scheduled Departures)
Note: If the departure is subject to a Calculated Off Blocks Time (COBT) requirement, the standard window of minus five minutes to plus 15 minutes is to be adhered to.
193
When conducting a push back, what is the first check that the dispatcher must confirm?
Park break released. Once pushback is complete the park break must be set again. (3.1.66 Pushback Procedures
194
For en route operations how far away from thunderstorms should crew deviate around?
10NM < FL200 < 20NM .
(3.1.69 Weather Avoidance Policy)
195
During an approach a storm is approaching the airfield, what is the policy on avoiding TS's during an approach?
Approach and landing are not to be conducted at an aerodrome where a thunderstorm is approaching
the field at a distance of LESS THAN 5 nm.
196
During an approach there seems to be a thrunderstorm 5NM away, can you continue the approach and land?
Yes, Approaches are not to be conducted where a thunderstorm is approaching
the field at a distance of LESS THAN 5 nm.
197
Crew has MEL'd the weather radar, however the ATIS states there is a TS in the area at 5NM, can crew conduct an approach?
No, the MEL prohibits any opreation into known areas of thunderstorm activity.
(Vol6A 3.1.69 Weather Avoidance Policy & DDG 34-15-01)
198
When the ATM is calculated to be within 10�C of the OAT, what take off procedure is required?
Bleeds off take off (aka No Engine bleed take off)
(3.1.72 No Engine Bleed Take-Off)
199
What is the preffered flao setting for take off and least preffered settting?
Flap 5 is the preferred flap setting for take-off. Flap 1 is the least preferred flap setting for take-off
(3.1.73 Take-Off Flap Policy)
200
When does 'IMPROVED CLIMB' become effective?
Runway lengths greater than 2000m as a rule (3.1.74 Improved Climb)
201
Other than reported by ATC or ATIS, how can creew determine RVR?
Visibillity can be determined by observing the visible runway edge lights from the flight deck. Lights are typically spaced 60 m apart for runways with IAP's. RVR can ALSO be assessed by counting the visible centreline markings from the flight deck.These markings include a stripe and a gap with a combined length ranging from 50 m to 75 m. 50m spacing should be used to account for one spacing.
(3.1.77 Visibility Assessment)
202
What is required BEFORE reporting 'READY' on tower at controlled towers?
1. All checklist complete
2. Received "CABIN SECURE" clearence.
(3.1.78 Cleared For Take-Off)
203
What trigger can crew use to do the before take off checklist?
"CABIN SECURE" call. (3.1.78 Cleared For Take-Off)
204
When flying an RNP SID, when should the autopilot be engaged?
As soon as practicable, however no earlier than 1000ft AGL in the CL & 400ft AGL in the NG. (3.1.80 Turns After Take-Off and RNP Departures)
205
Can the weather radar detect a volcanic cloud?
No. (3.1.95 Operations in the Vicinity of Volcanic Ash)
206
When may crew descend below the LSALT?
1. DGA approach
2. Being vectored by ATC
3.Flying an IAP
4. VMC
5. Climbing after take off
(3.1.96 Minimum Route Altitudes)
207
Are crew permitted to program a STAR into the FMC prior to receiving a clearance from ATC?
No. (3.1.99 Arrival and Approach Clearances)
208
* Reserved for section: 3.1.99.2 Approach Slope Guidance
209
What must an approach briefing include?
1. Runway planned for LANDING.
2. Approach brief
3. Transition Altitude
4. Limits
5. Flaps
6. Autobrake
7. Threats
8. Fuel
210
How should rates of descent be managed at lower levels?
Rates of Descent should be limited reference to the height above ground level i.e. 3000agl <3000 fpm, 2000agl <2000fpm and in line with stabilised approach criteria. (3.1.106 Rates of Descent and Low AG Operations and Manoeuvring)
211
At what alitide must the aircraft be stabilised in order to land?
1000ft off an IAP & 500ft in VMC (3.1.109 Stabilised Final Approach)
212
When must a missed approach be executed?
1. Not visual at the DA/MDA
2. Lost minimum visibillity after passing DA/MDA
3. RVR is reported to be less than required for the approach prior to reaching 1000ft AGL
4. Not stabilised
5. Failure (Ground and on A/C)
213
What ICAO wake turbulence category is the B737?
Medium (3.1.117 Wake Turbulence)
214
What is the standard wake seperation standards?
� MEDIUM following a SUPER � 7 nm or 3 min
� MEDIUM following a HEAVY � 5 nm or 2 min
Note: 1 Minute penalty applies to intersection departures. (Vol6A 3.1.117 Wake Turbulence & Jeppesen Pacific 5.2 WAKE TURBULENCE SEPARATION STANDARDS)
215
* Reserved for section: 3.1.123 APU Inflight Start Program (B737-NG only)
216
Be fore departure, when can the seatbelt signs be turned on?
Once fuelling is completed (3.2 Nauru Airlines Standard Operating Procedures (SOP�s))
217
Who should callout Fl150 on descent?
PM (3.2 Nauru Airlines Standard Operating Procedures (SOP�s)
218
What are the call when approaching the DA/MDA?
at 100ft above MDA/DA:
PM: "100 ft"
@DA/MDA: PM: "Minimum, Visual/Nil Sighting"
(3.2 Nauru Airlines Standard Operating Procedures (SOP�s)
219
After an RTO, when shold the NNC be actioned?
As soon as thhe aircraft has come to a complete stop and the park brake has been set. At this time, the Captain will make the �Alert PA� to assengers and crew, followed by the �Cancel Alert PA� once the situation is considered safe, or other as required. (3.3.6.1 Engine Failure/Fire before V1)
220
After V1, if an engine failure occurred, when can the PF ask the PM to identify the failure?
After passing 400ft. (3.3.6.2 Engine Failure/Fire after V1)
221
After V1, if an engine failure occurred and the nature of the failure is in doubt, what should th PM callout (After passing 400ft the PF will ask the PM to indentify the failure)
The abnormal engine indications and both pilots
will identify the failure together before proceeding with any Non-Normal Checklist actions.
(3.3.6.2 Engine Failure/Fire after V1)
222
*Reserved for 3.3.6.2 Engine Failure/Fire after V1 - Actual procedure and calls followed:
223
During an emergency that occurs during take off, when would the non-normal checklist be completed?
Once the after take off checklist has been completed. (3.3.6.2 Engine Failure/Fire after V1)
224
After an engine failure during take off, what must the PF call once the flaps are fully retracted? (PM will call "Flaps UP, no Lights"
"Level Change, set max continuous
thrust"
Note: In normal ops, the PF will call vertical mode (VNAV)
(3.3.6.3 Engine Failure/Fire Procedure Calls)
225
*Reserved for section 3.3.7 Dangerous Object (Bomb) Search Checklists
226
What could be a potential reason for a crew member not acknowledging calls or responding to requests?
Crew Incapacitation (3.3.9 Crew Incapacitation)
227
What does RNP mean?
Navigation performance accuracy must to be maintained within that airspace with a percentage of certanty. Usually within a certain distance for a certain time. (RNP requires the aircraft to remain within 10nm of its planned track 95% of the time ( the aircraft has lateral and longitudinal navigation accuracy of 10 nm with statistical containment value of 95%.)
(3.4.2.2 Required Navigation Performance Operating Practices and Procedures)
228
Whats the benefit of operating under RNP?
ATC will apply reduced lateral separation standards between RNP approved aircraft. ((3.4.2.2 Required Navigation Performance Operating Practices and Procedures)
229
Are crew required to monitor raw data during a non-precision approach?
Yes, even though NA aircraft are fitted with DUAL GPS functionality, this is not required, however Nauru Airlines requires the monitoring of raw data when available. (3.4.2.3 GNSS Primary Means Navigation & 3.4.2.8 RNAV Overlay Approval & Aappendix 5 - 5.7 - Landing Procedure � Instrument Approach Using VNAV)
230
Are crew allowed to ammend IAP's?
Only if the change is more conservative than the restrictions on the approach plate.
231
How is the IRS Drift Rate Checked and when should this be done?
Determine the allowable drift rate per hour of flight ("NAV TIME"), and check to see if the IRS's are both withint this area. This check must be done at the end of each flight and prior to selecting the IRS�s to OFF.
Note: A secondary safety check can be done by checking the residual groundspeed. 21 kts is the limit for a single flight or 15 kts for two consecutive flights.
(3.4.2.13 Post Flight: RNAV operations)
232
What must be done if an IRS check is completed post flight and the "NAV TIME" is more than the allowed drift rate?
The IRS will need to be replaced. (3.4.2.13 Post Flight: RNAV operations)
233
Are any Nauru Airlines aircraft approved for RNP 0.3 operations?
No. (3.4.3 Navigation Authorisations)
234
Whats the difference between RNP APCH and a RNAV(GNSS) approach?
No difference: RNP APCH may be described as RNAV(GNSS) (3.4.3 Navigation Authorisations)
235
What is RNAV/RNP 10 used for?
Oceanic airspace supports a 50 NM lateral and distance-based longitudinal separation. (3.4.3.1 RNP 10)
236
What is required on flights over 6.2 hours?
RAIM prediction (3.4.3.1 RNP 10)
237
What is RNAV/RNP 2 used for?
Continental airspace (3.4.3.2 RNP 2)
238
What is RNAV/RNP 1 used for?
Terminal Airspace (3.4.3.3 RNP 1)
239
How many EFB's are required on board the A/C before departure? Is there any other requirements?
One. In case of second ipad failure, Flight Crew are to print out relevant instrument approach charts before departure. (3.4.4.6 Backup Procedures & 3.4.5.3 Operational Responsibilities and Procedures)
240
What class and functionality is Nauru Airline's EFB's approved for?
Class 2 with functionality
2. (3.4.5 Electronic Flight Bag
241
Who is reposnible for updating and revising ipdates Jeppesen Pro FD software?
Jeppesen is responsible for providing all updates FOR the FD Pro X application. Airlines are responsible for reviewing and updating the Company Operational Manual suite. (Tech crew need t activate the update at the appropriate time)
(3.4.5.3 EFB: Operational Responsibilities and Procedures)
242
Where can the EFB be stored before comencing taxi?
Secured in the approved pivot mount (3.4.5.3 EFB: Operational Responsibilities and Procedures)
243
What actions are required incase there is any issues such as battery fire risk to an EFB?
1. Remove all power from the iPad (unplug and or turn off)
2. Contact Cabin Crew and request removal of the iPad (remind of the possibility of using a BCF Fire
Extinguisher and DG spill kit)
3. If safe to remove the device, place in an empty lavatory waste bin (Remove rubbish bag prior to using)
and block lavatory for use or place in Fire Containment Bag.
4. Pour non-alcoholic liquid over device to cool
5. Monitor for re-ignition.
Note: Do not cover a device with a Lithium battery with anything including ice as this can increase the heating by
causing an insulation effect and possibly cause a fire.
(3.4.6.1 EFB: Emergency Procedures)
244
What is the minimum navigation equipment required to satisfy the necessary level of accuracy, integrity, continuity and availability for Nauru Airline's operation?
Nauru Airlines Boeing 737 with dual (2) FMC installations meet the requirements for GNSS Primary Means Navigation and is the only navigation equipment necessary. (3.5.2 GNSS Primary Means Navigation)
245
If there is a RAIM outage at the destination, is this taken into consideration on the fligh planned fuel? (Found on flight plan)
(3.5.3 Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
Flight plan fuel calculations will take into consideration any RAIM outages and the appropriate holding fuel will be applied.
Note: Crew are to use the Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) value as the primary indication for monitoring
the system accuracy and integrity.
246
If the Navigation database is out of date, what should be done?
1. Update on the ground. If unable follow DDG steps.
2. If in flight, follow QRH.
Note: Database must be updated BEFORE departing, if the update needs to occur in flight.
(3.5.4 Database Validity � FMC and EGPWS)
247
When are the electric hydraulic pumps supposed to be switched ON?
Prior to tcommencing the exterior inspection. (APPENDIX 5 - NA SOPS - VARIATIONS TO BOEING 737 FCOM NORMAL
PROCEDURES)
248
What is the minimum acceptable hydraulic PSI (System A & B each, and accumaltor brake pressure)?
2800 psi (APPENDIX 5 - NA SOPS - VARIATIONS TO BOEING 737 FCOM NORMAL PROCEDURES)
249
What should be confirmed after the flaps have been selected after the captain calls "Flaps 5"?
Verify that the LE FLAPS EXT green light is illuminated.
Note: Recommended to check 3 items during before take off, FLAPS check:
1. Flap selector on 5
2. Flaps indicator on FMC
3. Flaps indicator: symetrical, LE FLAPS EXT green light is illuminated and pointing towards '5'.
(APPENDIX 5 - NA SOPS - VARIATIONS TO BOEING 737 FCOM NORMAL PROCEDURES)
250
What checks MUST be comleted when lighing up with the runway before taking off?
Verify that the airplane heading agrees with the assigned runway heading. (APPENDIX 5 - NA SOPS - VARIATIONS TO BOEING 737 FCOM NORMAL PROCEDURES)
251
When on localizer intercept heading, whar MUST be confirmed prior to arming APPROACH mode (ILS)?
� Verify that the ILS is tuned and identified
� Verify that LOC and G/S pointers are shown in the correct sense.
(APPENDIX 5 - NA SOPS - VARIATIONS TO BOEING 737 FCOM NORMAL PROCEDURES)
252
When flying an approach, what is the lowest altitude landing flaps must be selected in normal operations?
Prior to 1500 feet AFE. (APPENDIX 5 - NA SOPS - VARIATIONS TO BOEING 737 FCOM NORMAL PROCEDURES)
253
Why is it better to fly an ILS or LOC approach in APP or VOR/LOC mode rather than LNAV?
When using LNAV to intercept the localizer, LNAV might parallel the localizer
without capturing it. The airplane can then descend on the VNAV path with the localizer not captured.
(APPENDIX 5 - NA SOPS - VARIATIONS TO BOEING 737 FCOM NORMAL PROCEDURES)
254
What must the PF do and call when the PM calls �FAF HEIGHT CHECKED�?
Set the TDZE on the MCP and respond,
�ZERO FEET SET�
(APPENDIX 5 - NA SOPS - VARIATIONS TO BOEING 737 FCOM NORMAL PROCEDURES)
255
When passing 100ft above the DA/MDA what is the call you can expect to hear from the PM?
100 feet, Nill sighting/Visual. (VOl6A Standard calls)
256
Are crew allowed to perform the reading of checklist by memory?
No. it is mandatory to physically retrieve
the appropriate checklist, or look at the checklist for reading. (APPENDIX 8 � VOLUME 6A POLICY ANNEX)
257
Are you allowed to depart without the most up to date TAF ? Which airports are required to be inlcuded?
No. It is mandatory to gain an updated TAF for departure, destination, and alternate(s)
at each turn-around.
(Appendix 8 - A8.2.1.2 � Crew Duties)
258
What is the taxi speed limit?
If taxiing in a straight line, 30kts and 10kts during a 90� turn. (Appendix 8 A8.2.1.6 � Taxi)
Note: If it seems that this speed is about to be exceeded, the First Officer shall utilize the callout �SPEED�.
259
What should the take off review briefing inlcude?
Only changes that may have occurred since the full TAKEOFF BRIEFING done at the gate. (Appendix 8 A8.2.1.6 � Taxi)
260
When entering the runway, what must the Captain confirm and call, and what is the crew required to do an call after this?
1. The Captain checks runway designation signs on ground versus CDU RWY and states �RUNWAY XX
IDENTIFIED�
2. Both pilot�s are to confirm and announce �APPROACH PATH IS CLEAR OF TRAFFIC� (visually and using
TCAS display on ND).
(Appendix 8 - A8.2.1.7 � Before Takeoff)
261
When lined up waiting for a take off clearence, may the captain set the park break?
No (Appendix 8 - A8.2.1.7 � Before Takeoff)
262
When is the PF allowed to conduct paperwork?
After leveling out at creuising altitude and A/P is set with cruise checks completed. (Appendix 8 - A8.2.1.9 � After Takeoff)
263
The Captains and First Officer�s altimeters must indicate less than what discreapncy difference in-flight? Failure to meet
this condition requires that the altimeter system must be reported as defective in the tech log and declare to
ATC
200 ft.
�FOR INFORMATION, OPERATING ON ONE PRIMARY ALTIMETER ONLY�
Note: Any altitude exceedance of 300ft or more is required to be reported to ATC. Flight Crew achieve this
though submitting a SERA report to Safety Systems.
(Appendix 8 A8.2.1.10 � Cruise & Jeppesen pacific Australia)
264
What options are available to minimise LDR?
Deceleration devices in the following order:
1. Consider flaps 40
Carbon brakes:
Higher Autobrake, then increase auto brake.
Steel brakes:
Max reverse thrust, then increase autobrake.
(Appendix 8 A8.2.1.11 - Descent Preparation)
265
For aircraft fitted with CARBON brakes, how should the options for braking be shared between reverse thrust and auto brakes?
LESS reverse thrust. Higher aurobrake recommended.
(Appendix 8 A8.2.1.11 - Descent Preparation)
266
For aircraft fitted with STEEL brakes, how should the options for braking be shared between reverse thrust and auto brakes?
MAX reverse thrust. Lower autobrake recommended.
(Appendix 8 A8.2.1.11 - Descent Preparation)
267
What is the maximum crosswind for inexperienced crew?
15 kts (Appendix 8 A8.2.1.11 - Descent Preparation)
268
After using max reverse, for landing, after how many minutes may the
engines may be shut down?
3 minutes (A8.2.1.17 - Landing)
269
After using idle reverse, for landing, after how many minutes may the
engines be shut down?
2 minutes (A8.2.1.17 - Landing)
270
In what mode should the weatehr radar be used for departure?
WX+T and CAL mode (A8.4.7 � Weather Radar)
271
How oftne is a daily checked required?
o 24 Hours for the classic Aircraft
o 48 hours for the NG Aircraft.
(A8.4.8 - B737 Maintenance Inspection Philosophy)
272
When the MASTER CAUTION displays several failures, how should this be handled?
Priority is generally given to events that have related MEMORY ITEMS. The Captain has final say as to which actions to prioritise. (A8.5.4 � Abnormal Operations)
273
What does Three chimes indicate to the cabin crew?
Purser must report to cockpit. (A8.5.6 - Cockpit to / From Cabin Callouts)
274
What does a series of chimes indicate to the cabin crew?
EMERGENCY CALL: The nearest cabin crew must report to the cockpit immediately.(A8.5.6 - Cockpit to / From Cabin Callouts)
275
What is the PA call for light turbulence?
Passenger please be seated with your seatbelts fastened. (A8.5.6 - Cockpit to / From Cabin Callouts)
276
What is the PA call for medium turbulence?
Passenger and crew please be seated with your seatbelts fastened. (A8.5.6 - Cockpit to / From Cabin Callouts)
277
What is the PA call for severe turbulence?
Passenger and crew be seated with your seatbelts fastened immediately. (A8.5.6 - Cockpit to / From Cabin Callouts)
278
What is the emergency PA from the captain?
�Attention. This is the Captain �(A8.5.6 - Cockpit to / From Cabin Callouts)
279
What is the impact PA from the captain?
�Attention. This is the Captain, BRACE, BRACE, BRACE � (A8.5.6 - Cockpit to / From Cabin Callouts)
280
What is the post RTO PA from the captain?
�ATTENTION. THIS IS THE CAPTAIN, PASSENGERS REAMIN SEATED,
CABIN CREW TO YOUR STATIONS� (A8.5.6 - Cockpit to / From Cabin Callouts)
281
What is the PA from the captain to inform passengers of safe situation?
�LADIES AND GENTLEMAN OUR CONDITION IS SAFE, PASSENGERS REMAIN
SEATED CABIN CREW RESUME NORMAL DUTIES� (A8.5.6 - Cockpit to / From Cabin Callouts)
282
During RNP approaches, what will require a missed approach?
1. Outside lateral NPS limits, below charted altitude requirements;
2. Loss of integrity (UNABLE REQD NAV PERF- RNP, FMC DISAGREE or VERIFY POSITION message);
3. Less than one Navigation System Display.
(A8.8.2 - Missed Approach Requirements)
