NAVEDTRA 14145, MILITARY REQUIREMENTS FOR PETTY OFFICER FIRST CLASS Flashcards
(248 cards)
1
Q
Deterrence, Forward Defense, along with what else are the three basic pillars that National military strategy rests on?
A
Alliance Solidarity
2
Q
What enables us to deny the enemy any advantage through expansion?
A
Maritime superiority
3
Q
Deterrence of war has been the sole mission and basic reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine since its inception in what year?
A
1960
4
Q
How many Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles (SLBMs) do Trident class submarines carry?
A
24
5
Q
What type of attack is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective?
A
Strike
6
Q
What is the key member of a powerful and mobile naval task force?
A
Aircraft carrier
7
Q
What type of attack on supply lines is an attempt to destroy railroads, bridges, electric power plants, and so forth, and is used to cripple the support of enemy front lines with minimum effort?
A
Interdiction
8
Q
What year did Chief of Naval Operations order the development of a weapons system capable of launching a missile from a submerged submarine?
A
1955
9
Q
What was the United States first fleet ballistic missile (FBM) submarine launched in June of 1959?
A
George Washington (SSBN-598)
10
Q
What type of warfare integrates nearly all types of ships, aircraft, weapons, and landing forces in a concerted military effort against a hostile shore?
A
Amphibious
11
Q
What type of warfare is a conflict in which at least one of the opponents is operating from the sea with surface ships, submarines, or sea-based aircraft?
A
Naval
12
Q
What are the three major areas involved in Naval warfare?
A
Surface, Subsurface, and Air
13
Q
What is the destruction of enemy aircraft and airborne weapons, whether launched from air, surface, subsurface, or land?
A
AAW
14
Q
What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines?
A
ASW
15
Q
What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships?
A
ASUW
16
Q
What type of warfare uses conventional or nuclear weapons in the destruction or neutralization of the enemy targets ashore?
A
Strike
17
Q
What type of naval operations are generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature and, in many cases, conducted with secrecy?
A
Special warfare
18
Q
What is the assessment and management of information obtained via surveillance, reconnaissance, and other means called?
A
Intelligence
19
Q
What provides the means to exercise the authority and direction of naval forces in the accomplishment of their mission?
A
NCCS
20
Q
What ensures the effective use of electromagnetic spectrum by friendly forces while determining, reducing, or preventing its use by an enemy?
A
Electronic warfare
21
Q
What is defined as resupplying combat consumables to combatant forces during operations?
A
Logistics
22
Q
AEGIS can perform search, track, and missile-guidance functions simultaneously with a track capacity of over how many targets?
A
100
23
Q
What is the Navy’s first all-weather, automatic-controlled gun system designed to provide defense against close-in, sea-skimming cruise missiles that penetrate outer defense systems?
A
Phalanx
24
Q
What year was the Phoenix air-to-air missile introduced into the fleet with the F-14 aircraft?
A
1974
25
What is an all-weather submarine-launched or surface combatant-launched antiship or land-attack cruise missile?
Tomahawk
26
What is defined as the ability of a force, a unit, a weapons system, or an equipment to deliver the output for which it was designed?
Readiness
27
What is designed to turn a materially ready and manned ship into a ship that is fully capable of performing its assigned mission?
Refresher training
28
Which instruction outlines the basic bills that all ships base drills on?
OPNAVINST 3120.32B
29
What is the most important type of drill held aboard ships?
General Quarters
30
What type of inspection tests the ability of the crew and ship to operate in battle under wartime conditions?
ORI
31
What type of inspection determines the adequacy of the administrative and operating procedures directly related to the propulsion plant and the capability of assigned personnel to maintain equipment and systems?
PEB
32
Naval ships should be examined by INSURV at least once every how many years if practical?
3
33
Division personnel and material readiness should be assessed daily at a minimum and in more detail at least how often?
Weekly
34
Work habits, knowledge, along with what else will be the three areas looked at while assessing worker performance?
Attitude
35
What does each division or department use to make formal supply inventories?
OPTAR Log
36
Which log describes deficiencies and missing equipment in each space?
Equipment Deficiency Log (EDL)
37
What is the computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate aboard the command?
EDVR
38
What lists the planned operations, assist visits, inspecitons, and ports of call for the fiscal year?
Annual Employment Schedule
39
What is the most effective way to inform subordinates of their standing in the division?
Counseling
40
What are used to note discrepancies, recommend solutions to problems, and provide a follow-up date for reevaluation?
Counseling sheet
41
What identifies a number of discrepancies individually and gives recommended solutions in addition to dates for reevaluation?
Letter of Instruction
42
What is the administrative remarks page of the enlisted service record used to provide a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries not provided on other pages of the record?
Page 13
43
What should be used to prepare written input from yourself to the responsible party in your chain of command via your division officer and department head?
Memorandum
44
How many types of recognition can subordinates be recommended for?
Five
45
What format should subordinates' accomplishments be in to make them stronger?
Bullet
46
What are the two categories of authority?
General and Organizational
47
What should be used when the CO delegates signature authority in writing?
Titles
48
How do subordinates usually sign documents under delegated authority?
By direction
49
What instruction gives specific guidance on signature authority?
SECNAVINST 5216.5C
50
How many different types of naval communications are senior petty officers required to compose?
Two
51
What is used for urgent communication where speed is of primary importance?
Naval message
52
What type of message is sent to one addressee only and may be either for action or information?
Single-address
53
Which type of message is sent to two or more addressees, each of whom is aware of the other addressee(s)?
Multiple-address
54
What type of message is sent to two or more addressees and is of such nature that no addressee needs to know who the others are?
Book
55
What type of message has a wide standard distribution to all commands in an area under one command or to types of commands and activities?
General
56
What is the authority (command or activity) in whose name messages are sent?
Originator
57
Who is responsible for validating message content, affirming message compliance with message-drafting instructions, and for determining whether the draft of the message should be released as a message or as a NAVGRAM?
Releaser
58
What is the title of the message composer?
Drafter
59
How many common precedence categories are messages divided into?
Four
60
Which publication contains message precedence information?
NTP-3
61
Which message precedence is assigned to all types of traffic that justify electrical transmission but are not of sufficient urgency to require a higher precedence?
Routine
62
Which message precedence is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress?
Priority
63
What is the highest message precedence normally authorized for administrative messages?
Priority
64
Which message precedence is reserved for messages relating to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace and require immediate delivery to addressees?
Immediate
65
What prosing identifies Immediate message precedence?
O
66
What message precedence is reserved for initial enemy contact reports or operational combat messages of extreme urgency?
Flash
67
Which prosing identifies messages with Flash precedence?
Z
68
How many digits followed by a time-zone suffix does a DTG consist of?
Six
69
What phrase is used to denote the format and ordinary language spelling of command short titles and geographical locations used in message addresses?
Plain Language Address (PLA)
70
What are single-address, alphabetically sorted, common-interest groups called?
Collective Address Designators (CAD)
71
What are used to represent predetermined lists of specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and information addressees or both?
Address Indicating Groups (AIGs)
72
What are used as alternatives to the repeating of lengthy references within the text of the message?
Reference lines
73
What process is used to transmit a message to an activity that was not an addressee of he message as it was originally drafted?
Message readdressal
74
How many days following the release date, except under certain circumstances, are all message directives automatically cancelled?
90
75
What condition imposed by proper authority is used to reduce and control electrical message and telephone traffic?
Minimize
76
Which instruction contains regulations and guidance for classifying and safeguarding classified information?
OPNAVINST 5510.1H
77
What is a brief form of naval letter on which an official recommends action or makes comments, forwards a letter, redirects a misaddressed letter, or endorses a letter back to the originator for further information?
Endorsement
78
What are used for urgent communications between department of defense (DoD) addressees?
NAVGRAMs
79
What provide a standard system of numbers used throughout the Navy to categorize, subject classify, and identify directives, letters, messages, forms, and reports?
Standard Subject Identification Codes (SSICs)
80
How many major subject groups does the SSIC system consist of?
14
81
What means that when you use a coordinating conjunction (and, but, nor, yet), nouns, adjectives, dependent clauses, and so on, should match in each part of the sentence?
Parallelism
82
Generally, sentences should be restricted to how many words or less?
20
83
"It is" along with what other phrase hurt naval writing more than anything else?
"There are"
84
What program ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory incidents to occur before taking corrective action?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
85
From what two perspectives can equal opportunity be observed?
Personnel and Administration
86
What team evaluates command members knowledge about equal opportunity?
Command Assessment Team (CAT)
87
Which team assesses command compliance with the Navy's equal opportunity objectives as a whole?
Command Training Team (CTT)
88
What means are used for determining what people actually do or how they behave and interact?
Observations
89
How many methods can be used by commands to enforce equal opportunity?
Three
90
Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) grants Commanding Officers the power to award punishment for minor offenses without the intervention of a court-martial?
Article 15
91
What publication contains details concerning required premast advice to an accused?
Judge Advocate General (JAG) Manual
92
Who is responsible for collecting all available facts concerning the offense itself and the background of the accused?
PIO
93
How many types of punishment under Article 15 of the UCMJ, under appropriate circumstances, can be imposed by Commanding Officers?
Nine
94
What is the least severe form of liberty denial?
Restriction
95
What is the physical restraint of persons during duty or nonduty hours, or both called?
Correctional custody
96
How many days is the maximum duration that confinement sentences on bread and water may be imposed on nonrated personnel attached or embarked on vessels?
3
97
What is considered to be the most severe form of NJP?
Reduction in grade
98
What is the maximum number of hours per day that extra duty can be assigned?
2
99
Detention of pay may not exceed how many years and may not extend beyond the expiration of the member's current enlistment?
1 year
100
Up to how many days may Commanders defer confinement on bread and water or correctional custody if the needs of the naval service dictate such deferment
15
101
How many days do members have to appeal NJP punishment to a higher authority?
5
102
What has become the most valuable drug detection and deterrence tool used by the Navy?
Urinalysis
103
Natural and synthetic morphine-like drug that are derived from what source are the most effective relievers known?
Opiates
104
What is a white or brown powder known to the addict as H, horse, caballo, white stuff, white lade, Harry, joy powder, doojee, sugar, stag, or smack?
Heroin
105
How many times more potent than morphine is heroin?
10
106
What year was Methadone invented by German chemists?
1941
107
What type of substances produce excitation, increased activity, and an ability to go without sleep for extended periods?
Stimulants
108
Which drug induces euphoria, excitation, anxiety, a sense of increased muscular strength, and talkativeness?
Cocaine
109
What is street cocaine that is mixed with baking soda and water to remove impurities called?
Crack
110
What type of substance distorts the user's perception of objective reality?
Hallucinogens
111
What is the number one drug problem in the United States today?
Alcohol
112
Which instruction provides the Navy's policy on drug and alcohol abuse?
OPNAVINST 5350.4B
113
The first consistent changes in mood and behavior appear at blood-alcohol levels of approximately what percent?
0.05%
114
Voluntary motor actions-hand and arm movements, walking, and sometimes speech-become clumsy at what blood-alcohol level?
0.10%
115
A blood-alcohol level of what percent measurably impairs the controls of the entire motor area of the brain as well as the part of the brain that guides emotional behavior?
0.20%
116
Drinking large amounts of alcohol for an extended length of time reduces the brain's sensitivity to the alcohol. Therefore, a person must drink greater amounts of alcohol to feel its effects. What is this change in the sensitivity of the brain called?
Tolerance
117
What process do our bodies use to transform drugs into other substances and eventually eliminate them through normal bodily functions?
Metabolic
118
How many times more often among alcoholics as among nonalcoholic does Cirrhosis of the liver occur
Eight
119
People with blood-alcohol levels of what percent have a reduced white blood cell mobilization as great as that in people suffering from severe shock?
0.15 to 0.25
120
How many different levels does the Navy provide alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation programs on?
Three
121
What is the maximum time allotted for members to a Level II alcohol abuse counseling program?
4 weeks
122
Residential rehabilitation for alcohol abuse involves a multidisciplinary therapeutic approach that normally lasts how many weeks?
6
123
How many days do persons remain in an "aftercare" status following a successful completion of a Level II or III alcohol abuse program before they return to their command?
180
124
Who is the command representative responsible to the commanding officer for carrying out the NADAP?
DAPA
125
What is a nonresidential facility providing counseling services, clinical screening/referral, and local outreach programs for commands in the immediate geographic area?
CAAC
126
What are the two distinct types of authority?
General and Organizational
127
Which Standard Organization and Regulations of the United States Navy article contains the general responsibilities and duties of all officers and petty officers in the Navy?
141.4
128
What type of authority held by all officers and petty officers is derived from each person's assigned billet within a particular command?
Organizational
129
Which Navy Regulations article grants petty officers at each level the necessary authority for the performance of their duties?
Article 1037
130
What grants the right to require actions of others?
Authority
131
Withholding of privileges along with what else are two of the most common measures used to correct military duty deficiencies?
Extra Military Instruction (EMI)
132
EMI will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day?
2
133
The authority to assign EMI is normally not delegated below what level?
CPO
134
What is a benefit provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual?
Privilege
135
Depriving an individual of liberty or privileges as a punishment for any offense or substandard performance of duty is illegal, except as specifically authorized under the what?
UCMJ
136
What is defined as something that a person is expected or required to do by moral or legal obligation-an action or task required by one's position?
Duty
137
What is the commanding officer's summary of personnel duty assignments and stations called?
Watch, Quarter, and Station (WQS) bill
138
Who is responsible for maintaining the ships master WQS bill?
Executive Officer
139
What is used for transferring information from the battle bill and ship's bills to the WQS bill?
Division notebook
140
What is probably the most important of all shipboard bills?
Emergency bills
141
Which bill organizes the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency or disaster aboard ship?
General Emergency bill
142
Which PQS section covers the basic knowledge needed to understand the specific equipment or duties and provides an analysis of those fundamentals that broadly apply?
Fundamentals (100 series)
143
Which PQS section breaks down the subject equipment or duties into smaller, more easily understood sections called systems?
Systems (200 series)
144
Which PQS section tests the trainee's readiness to perform a designated task?
Watch Station/Maintenance Action (300 Series)
145
PQS oral examination boards could have as few as two or as many as how many members?
Eight
146
What is normally the minimum paygrade required to be a PQS qualifier?
E-5
147
Who introduces trainee's to the PQS program and recommends and monitors the goals for each individual?
Work Center Supervisor
148
Who qualifies personnel for watch stations and equipment/systems operations?
Department Head
149
Which side of the service record folder is the actual service record on?
Right
150
What are used to verify a members ability to perform tasks required by occupational standards (OCCSTDs)?
PARs
151
What are the primary enlisted-to-officer programs sponsored by the Navy that do not require a college education?
Limited Duty Officer and Chief Warrant Officer
152
CWO candidates must have completed at least 12 years, but not more than how many years, of active service on 16 January of the year in which the application is made?
24
153
LDO candidates must have completed at least 8 years but not more than how many years of active naval service on 16 January of the year in which the application is made?
16
154
CPOs and SCPOs with at least how many years, but not more than 16 years, of naval service may apply for LDO and CWO in the same application year, but only one designator for each program may be requested?
12
155
An active service obligation of how many years will be incurred by ECP selectees?
6
156
To be eligible, ECP applicants must be at least 22 years of age, able to complete degree requirements, and commissioned before reaching what age?
33
157
Which program provides 16 weeks of officer indoctrination training for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher?
OCS
158
OCS applicants must be at least 19 years old and not have reached what age by their commissioning date?
29
159
Who ensures that personnel are trained to operate and maintain their equipment and related systems?
TPO
160
Quarters for muster and inspection are held each workday before what time depending upon the type of ship and its operating schedule?
0800
161
Who is the most important person aboard the ship while in port next to the Captain and the Executive Officer?
OOD
162
What publication should be used by all watch standers as a general guide for standards that should be met?
SORN
163
What occurs when watch conditions change within the ship?
Setting the watch
164
Who supervises the quarterdeck watch, anchor watch, fog look-outs, brow and dock sentries?
POOW
165
What is the term for taking a person into custody?
Apprehension
166
What is the term for the moral or physical restraint of a person's liberty?
Restraint
167
What is the term for restraining a person by an oral or written order which directs the person to remain within specified limits of an area?
Restriction in lieu of arrest
168
What is the term for retraining a person by oral or written order that is not imposed as punishment and directs the person to remain within the specified limits of an area?
Arrest
169
What is the term for depriving a person of his or her freedom pending the disposition of offenses by means of physical restraint that is imposed by order of competent authority?
Confinement
170
What is the official daily record of a ship maintained by watches?
Deck log
171
How many months are deck log copies retained onboard prior to being destroyed?
12
172
Who is responsible for examining the ship's deck log daily to ensure it is properly kept?
Navigator
173
What type of visit refers to visits on board by individuals or specific groups as differentiated from the general public?
casual visiting
174
What are the normal shipboard general visiting hours?
1300-1600
175
What is the maximum visitor group size that departmental personnel should be responsible for when they are detailed to act as shipboard tour guards?
15
176
How long before the scheduled commencement of general visiting should the chief master-at-arms muster sentries and guides for inspection and instruction?
30 minutes
177
What hours are officers normally permitted to have personal guests come onboard?
1600-2200
178
After what time and until the expiration of visiting hours on Sundays and during general visiting are Chief petty officers permitted to entertain guests in their messroom and lounge?
1100
179
Who is directly responsible to the commanding officer for the posting of all security watches and sentries?
OOD
180
What name is given to the 1600-1800 and the 1800-2000 watches aboard the ship?
Dog watch
181
What instruction encompasses all safety disciplines?
OPNAVINST 5100.23
182
What instruction provides general shipboard safety precautions?
OPNAVINST 5100.19
183
What instruction outlines the safety program and the safety organization?
OPNAVINST 3120.32
184
What instruction provides motor vehicle safety policy and guidance?
OPNAVINST 5100.12
185
How many types of safety observations can be used?
Three
186
Which type of safety observation occurs when safety hazards are noticed without deliberately taking time to look for them?
Incidental
187
Which type of safety observation do observers intentionally pause in whatever they are doing to see if a person does some part of the job safely?
Deliberate
188
Which type of safety observation is deliberately scheduled to watch for safety violations by a person performing a specific job?
Planned
189
What makes command safety program recommendations?
Enlisted Safety Committee
190
What acts as a roving inspector for hazards and risks (unsafe work practices) that could result in injury to personnel or damage to equipment?
MAA/Safety Force
191
Which program specifically addresses the maintenance of safe and healthful conditions in the work place?
NAVOSH
192
Personnel working in hazardous noise areas must be entered in a hearing test program when they are exposed to sound levels greater than 84 dB or peak sound pressure levels exceeding what level?
140 dB
193
What type of strain is placed on the body as it attempts to regulate its temperature as a result of any combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity, air flow, and work load?
Heat stress
194
Heat stress surveys must be conducted in work areas when the watch or work station's dry-bulb temperature exceeds what temperature?
100 degrees F
195
Any person found to have vision in one eye of what level or worse to be visually impaired by Naval standards?
20/200
196
How often should tag-out system audits be performed?
Every 2 weeks
197
Navy Regulations along with which Code of Conduct article give the senior person in a survival situation the authority to take charge?
Article IV
198
What permits personnel to see without being seen?
Camouflage
199
How many yards can enemy observers see under favorable conditions in open woods?
100
200
Who made the defiant reply "I have not yet begun to fight"?
John Paul Jones
201
Prevention, minimization, along with what else make up the three basic objectives of shipboard damage control?
Restoration
202
Who is responsible for carrying out command damage control requirements including training?
Executive Officer
203
Who is the senior member of the underway watch team and is the primary assistant to the commanding officer on the bridge?
Officer Of the Deck
204
How many months do DCPOs normally serve?
6
205
Who maintains a list of all personnel assigned to repair parties?
DCA
206
What material condition is used for maximum protection in battle?
Zebra
207
What coordinates setting material condition Zebra for X-ray and Yoke fittings that were previously logged as open in the damage control closure log?
DCC
208
What provides personnel immediately to fight fires during action?
Repair parties
209
How many battle dressing stations at a minimum do most ships have that are equipped for emergency handling of battle casualties?
Two
210
Who takes charge of damage repair at the immediate scene and is directly in charge of the fire-fighting party?
On-scene leader
211
Who is responsible for training and organizing the at-sea fire party?
DCA
212
How many principles of investigation should be considered during damage investigation?
Four
213
What is the nominal distance from the point of impact that damage should spread if the underwater protective system is initially intact?
Fifty feet
214
CO2 flooded compartments should not be opened for at least how many minutes after they have been flooded except in case of emergencies?
15
215
What temperatures cause the decomposition of Halon 1301?
900+ degrees F
216
How many gallons per minute (gpm) of water will a hole in the hull, with an area of only 1 square foot, 15 feet below the surface admit?
13,900
217
What refers to a compartment that is completely filled with water from deck to overhead?
Solid flooding
218
What are the bulkheads and decks called that restrict the partially flooded area from the flooding boundary?
Flooding boundaries
219
What are used as the primary means of communications during battle or while combating damage?
Sound-powered telephones
220
Which circuit is the main damage control circuit that is common to the damage control station and all repair parties?
2JZ
221
Which circuit connects the conn, pilot house, interior communications (IC) room, combat information center (CIC), and damage control central (DCC)?
JA (Captain's battle circuit)
222
Which circuit connects the pilot house, bridge wings, main engine control, forecastle, fantail, steering gear room, IC room, and DCC?
JV (Maneuvering circuit)
223
Which circuit connects all the machinery spaces, engineer log room, IC room, emergency diesel generator space, main distribution switchboards, smoke watch, fueling station, and DCC?
2JV (Engineer's circuit)
224
Which circuit provides a means of rigging communication lines between vital stations during an emergency condition?
X-40J
225
What is the damage control intercom system circuit?
4MC
226
What is emergency treatment of the sick or injured before regular medical or surgical attention can be obtained called?
First aid
227
Up to how many miles from the burst can an air blast from a nuclear detonation can general damage?
10
228
What name is given to the pressure pulse created in water as a result of an explosion on or below the water surface?
Underwater shock
229
Over how many feet in height can waves from a surface or underwater burst be?
100
230
Up to how many minutes can flash blindness from a nuclear attack last?
30
231
Over what distance is the casualty range of from the initial radiation of a normal kiloton burst?
1 mile
232
Alpha, Beta, along with what else are the three types of ionizing nuclear radiation that can be emitted from radioactive contamination?
Gamma
233
What type of radiation has a range in the air of only a few feet and has limited penetrating power?
Beta
234
Which type of radiation has an effective range in the air of many hundreds of feet and is highly penetrating?
Gamma
235
Which type of warfare intentionally uses living infectious microorganisms (germs) to reduce or destroy the military effectiveness of personnel?
Biological
236
Up to how many hours can it take for results to show from BW agents?
72
237
Which agents are intended for use in military operations to kill, injure seriously, or incapacitate people through physiological effects?
Chemical warfare (CW)
238
Which type of agents produce temporary physiological or mental effects that render individuals incapable of performing their assigned duties?
Incapacitating
239
Which type of agents produce temporary irritating or incapacitating effects when contact is made with the eyes or when inhaled?
Riot control
240
Which type of aents are considered to be the most dangerous because of their ability, even in small amounts, to cause casualties?
Nerve
241
Unless under the direct supervision of medical personnel, what is the maximum number of 2-PAM chloride injections that can be given?
Three
242
Which type of agents smell of garlic, fish, or geraniums and may appear as colorless to dark brown oily liquid or droplets?
Blister
243
How many minutes after exposure to blister agents do personnel have to perform effective treatment?
2
244
Which type of agents smell like freshly mown hay or grass?
Choking
245
Which type of agents are colorless but may have a slight odor of bitter almonds?
Blood
246
What is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents that is used in chemical warfare defense?
MOPP
247
How many phases are disaster relief operations normally conducted in?
Five
248
Who is responsible for authorizing classified ship visits?
CNO
