Flashcards in Navigation Deck (272)
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1
FLIP _____ documents are usually NOT used during flight.
Planning
2
If you need to locate information about the altimeter changeover procedures, but cannot remember where to look, the best place to start your search would be the _____.
Index for Aeronautical Inforamtion in GP
3
If planning a mission in the US, you should reference _____ for information about theater operations and supplementary airfield information.
AP/1
4
It is mandatory to file the Preferred IFR Route if one is established between your departure and destination airfield.
FALSE
5
For inforamtion on special use airspace in the US, consult FLIP _____.
AP/1A
6
Which of the following is NOT a FLIP enroute publication?
AP/1B
7
To find out what an airfield's servicing capabilities are, you should reference _____.
the IFR Supplement
8
Low altitude enroute charts are for operations below _____ feet MSL.
18,000
9
A star next to any item on the low altitude enroute chart indicates _____.
part-time or on request operation
10
Radials and bearings on the low altitude enroute chart are _____.
magnetic
11
(L) and (T) symbols on hgih altitude enroute charts refer to _____.
a NAVAID having a restriction on its usable range
12
Q-routes offer more direct routing than NAVAIDS and are applicable for what altitudes?
18,00 feet MSL to FL 450
13
The primary purpose of the small airfield sketch in the lower portion of each approach plate is to _____.
aid pilots during landing transition by helping to identify the runway environment
14
What area is ALWAYS shown to scale on the published instrument procedure?
only the area inside the solid line circle
15
What equipment would be required to fly the final approach portion of a published instrument procedure titled "VOR or ILS RWY 32L?"
VOR or ILS
16
Military departure procedures are found in _____.
FLIP low altitude termainal books
FLIP high altitude terminal books
17
Relief departure procedures are found in _____.
Contour lines
Shading
Elevation/Gradient tintis
18
Hydrography portrays _____.
bodies of water
19
The CHUM and CHUM Supplement or E-CHUM could be used to update _____.
JOGs
20
D series NOTAMS are those that need wide dissemination and you can call any FSS at 1-800-WX-BRIEF to get the D NOTAMs you are interested in.
TRUE
21
FDC NOTAMs will automatically be provided by the FSS mission briefer.
FALSE
22
If your destination is a civil field that is not listed in the IFR Supplement, you need to reference _____.
the A/FD
23
FLIP planning documents are updated by _____.
US Notice to Airman (NOTAM) system
Planning Change Notices
Urgent Change Notices
24
Information on Military Training Routes (MTRs) can be found in _____.
AP/1B
25
An airport depicted with a brown symbol on the low altitude enroute chart _____.
does not have a published instrument procedure
26
RNAV routes are available for _____ equipped aircraft and are depicted in _____ on Low Altitude and HIgh Altitude Enroute charts.
GPS; blue
27
All airports shown on high altitude enroute charts have at least one hard surfaced runway with a minimum runway length of _____ feet.
5000
28
FLIP terminal books include _____.
All DoD instrument terminal procedures
Civil procedures requested by the military
29
The Terminal Change Notice (TCN) book contains amendments to _____.
both terminal high and low altitude volumes
30
Which chart would be best for a mission, or portion of a mission, requiring a high level of detail?
JOG
31
VFR chart relief symbols are used to depict _____.
differences in the elevation of the land surface
32
The NTAP provides NOTAM information _____.
of a long term nature
33
A good rule of thumb when selecting a cross-country destination is to select a base within _____ NM
300
34
If you were flying a route of 220 miles, what approximate altitude would you plan to use?
22,000
35
Which of the following does NOT meet the published instrument procedures definition of AFI 11-202 Vol 3?
A non DoD/NGA or NACO appraoch chart acceptable to the Pilot in Command (regardless of MAJCOM approval)
36
If filing to a destination outside Class A airspace that requires radar to fly the only available approach, you must be able to positively identify your aircraft's postioin within _____ NMs of the airfield.
25
37
If filing to a destination with a circling approach only, the forecast _____ must be at or above the lowest compatible published instrument procedures mininimums.
ceiling and visibility
38
Since the T-6A is GPS equipped, it is permissible to designate an airfield as an alternate that only has a GPS approach even if forecast weather for +- 1 hour of your ETA DOES NOT permit a VFR descent from the IFR MEA to a VFR appraoch and landing.
FALSE
39
The forecaster tells you that the weather at Corpus Christi International is 1500 broken, 8000 overcast, with 7 miles visibility. Do you need to designate an alternate for this mission?
YES
40
In the T-6A, for STTO entry on the AF Form 70 use _____ minute(s) and _____ pounds of fuel.
1; 50
41
Level off fuel (L/O) is the planned amount of fuel used from departure field elevation to planned cruise altitude
TRUE
42
Using your calculator, determine the distance to level off with a 180 knot average groundspeed and a time to climb of 8 minutes.
24 miles
43
Under IFR rules, make your alternate calculations based on proceeding direct from the missed approach point at your destination to the IAF at your alternate.
FALSE
44
In the T-6A, use a standard P&A fuel of _____ minute(s) and _____ pounds of fuel.
15; 100
45
Using the information shown, what would you enter in the "Total Fuel" block on your Form 70?
2+45
46
Enter the date on the DD 175 based on _____ time
Local
47
Call signs on the DD 175 are limited to a maximum of _____ characters.
Seven
48
If you require service at your destination you would enter the word "Service" in the Remarks section of the DD 175 flight plan.
FALSE
49
Following the circle "R", how would you show an enroute delay at Tyndall AFB (PAM) for 15 minutes with Moody AFB (VAD) as your final destination?
D 0+15 PAM VAD
50
If filing a stopover flight plan and an alternate is required for the second destination, where do you show the alternate airfield's identifier and the ETE to that alternate?
IN parenthesis following the last entry in the "ROUTE OF FLIGHT" section of the second leg
51
If filing to a destination where radar is required to fly the approach and you are operating in Class A airspace, you _____.
may file to the nearest nonradar fix or facility and request radar vector service
52
To designate an airfield as an alternate, forecast weather (+- 1 hour of ETA) must be _____ above lowest compatible published instrument minimum and visibility of _____ or pulished visibility, whichever is _____.
500 feet; 2 SM; higher
53
How much fuel would be used in 40 minutes with a fuel flow of 340 PPH?
74 pounds
54
In the T-6A use _____ PPH fueld flow when calculating reserve fuel. This approximates the fuel consumption using maximum endurance at _____ feet.
300; 10,000
55
How do you indicate a request for a radar departure on the DD Form 175?
Enter 'Request Radar Departure" in the Remarks section
56
On an enroute chart, a flag with an X in it indicates a _____.
MCA
57
Jet route altitudes start at _____ and go up to _____.
18,000 MSL; FL450
58
RNAV routes offer the most dependable routing for GPS equipped aircraft.
FALSE
59
The pilot may use GPS-provided data to ensure terrain clearance for IFR flight.
FALSE
60
Which of the following would NOT require you to change your flight plan in-flight?
Change of ETA by 15 minutes
61
Select the best way to use your in-flight log.
Log the actual times and fuel compare this to your planned data to be sure you can get to your destination.
62
On each leg of your flight, you are increasingly above the planned fuel and are ahead on time. What is the most liekly cause for this?
You have less headwind/more tailwind than forecast
63
You are at FL250 on an IFR flight plan, and you want to increase your TAS from 240 kts to 255 kts. Are you required to report this change to center?
Yes. It is greater than 5% of 10 kts change in true airspeed.
64
If you have lost comm and in VMC conditions, you are required to land at the nearest suitable aiport.
FALSE
65
The MEA is FL 220, and you filed for FL 260. You are assigned FL 240 by Center. Which altitude would you fly if you lost communication?
FL 240
66
Which document lists Center frequencies?
IFR Supplement
67
The weather forecaster did not forecast any significant weather for your rotue of flight. Halfway to your destination, you encounter thunderstorms with heavy rains. What should you do?
Avoid thunderstorms and notify METRO of the unexpected weather.
68
Which cloud has the most hazardous weather associated with it?
Cumulonimbus
69
In order to fly RNAV DPs, CDI sensitivity must be set, either manually or automatically, at terminal sensitivity (+- ______ nm, _____ scale deflection).
1; full
70
TAA area lateral boundaries are identified by magnetic courses _____ the IF (IAF).
TO
71
If using GPS in the terminal area, pilots should not comply with ATC instructions to proceed direct to a point on a STAR/DP.
FALSE
72
IFR flight controlled airspace requires that you have a filed flight plan and have operable _____ prior to takeoff.
communication, navigation, and identification equipment
73
In most cases, _____ airspace begins at 14,500' MSL and includes Victor routes and transition airspace.
Class E
74
The MEA provides _____ obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain and _____ in non-mountainous terrain.
2000 feet; 1000 feet
75
To adjust your flight plan in-flight, you _____.
contact the enroute controlling agency and make your request
76
When a TAA is published, it replaces the _____ for the approach procedure.
MSA
77
What do the highlighted numbers indicate?
7,500 is the MOCA and 10,000 is the MEA.
78
Compulsory reporting points are denoted by a _____.
filled-in triangle
79
You must report a change in airspeed when _____.
changeing your TAS by plus or minus 5% or 10 kts
80
If you go lost comm on an IFR flight plan, you will fly the highest of your _____ altitude.
assigned, MEA, or expected
81
What is the proper way to contact a military weather facility in-flight?
(Name) METRO
82
What is the difference between a full service METRO and a limited service METRO?
A full service METRO has only one radio frequency
83
If you were planning a mission from Laughlin AFB to Randolph AFB, you would consult _____ for Randolph supplementary airfield information.
Ap/1
84
If you wanted to know if your destination has the proper grade fuel avialable for your aircraft, you would consult the _____.
IFR Supplement
85
For information on emergency procedures, you would consult the _____.
Flight Information Handbook Sec A
86
If you are planning your IFR flight to operate at 20,000' MSL, you should use a _____ enroute chart.
high altitude
87
Most Air Force VFR missions commonly use what type charts for VFR navigation?
Most use TPC, ONC, or JOG charts
88
What are the obstacle clearances established by MEA indications?
a. 2000 feet in mountainous terrain
b. 1000 feet in non mountainous terrain
c. When not shown on the high chart, MEA is 18,000 feet MSL
89
What are some reasons you may have to make adjustments to your flight plan?
a. Winds
b. Turbulence
c. Icing
90
Position reports are not required when in radar contact unless requested by controllers. When you are not in radar contact, how will you known when to transmit a position report?
Position reports are required at all compulsory reporting points, indicated by a filled-in triangle.
91
You are IMC and assigned to fly FL 260, your MEA is FL 240, and you requested FL 280. If you experience lost communications, what altitude should you fly?
Fly the highest of:
A. assigned
M. minimum IFR altitude (MEA)
E. expected
(in this case FL 260)
92
Where would you find the formats for flight plan changes and position reports?
The inside back cover of the IFR Supplement
93
If you fly into unexpected hazardous weather, you should transmit a PIREP. Where would you find the PIREP format?
Flight Information Handbook, Section C
94
What are some restrictions on filing GPS-direct routes?
a. Radar monitoring must be available on entire route
b. Route must begin and end at a departure and arrival fix when practical
c. Route must avoid prohibited and restricted airspace by a least three NMs
95
Which class of airspace covers controlled airspace over nontowered airfields?
Class E (Class D becomes Class E when tower closes)
96
Which FLIP chart should you reference for a mission at 16,000'MSL?
low altitude chart
97
NOTAM abbreviation codes would be found in the _____.
Flight Information Handbook
98
RNAV Terminal Area Procedures require that aircraft equipment meet certification standards addressed in what publication?
AFI 11-202V3
99
Where can you find a formatted guide for changing flight plans in-flight?
The inside back cover of the IFR Supplement
100
What condition must be met in order to use GPS for an approach or departure procedure?
Terminal (or better) RAIM must be avaiable
101
When flying VFR, your destination must have a forecast ceiling equal to or greater than ______ feet
and visibility of at least ______.
(1500 AF) (1000 Navy) / 3 miles
102
You are operating at 1500 feet AGL in uncontrolled airspace during daylight hours. What are your
minimum cloud clearance requirements?
500 feet below and 1000 feet above
2000 horizontal
103
The ______ section of the enroute supplement will tell you if a field is OBO or if a PPR is required.
REMARKS
104
The main purpose of any checkpoint is to ______.
provide a verification of the accuracy of your preflight planning
105
As a general rule of thumb, checkpoints should be between ______ and ______ minutes apart.
5; 25
106
When plotting courses on your VFR chart, the course line should extend inside the circle that
highlights each checkpoint
FALSE
107
The objective when creating your map is give yourself points in time to cross-check position and
validate planning. The best way to accomplish that is to plan the flight for a ______.
constant groundspeed
108
Along with your checkpoint, the flight log should include entries for ______.
STTO, climb fuel, pattern and arrival fuel, and fuel reserve
109
The upper portion (protractor) of the plotter is used to measure the ______ on aeronautical charts.
direction of lines in degrees
110
The small inner scales located about a third of the distance from the outer edge of the plotter are used
for measuring a course with a ______.
parallel
111
Aircraft heading systems and aeronautical charts are both based on true north and south.
FALSE
112
To convert your true course to a magnetic course you ______ easterly variation.
subtract
113
Magnetic heading (MH) is magnetic course (MC) adjusted for ______.
winds
114
On a VFR flight at low altitude, since calibration error is negligible, CAS will equal IAS.
FALSE
115
The first step to compute your fuel is to determine the specific range factor using ______.
the Flight Manual
116
Which of the following items is usually NOT plotted on your VFR chart?
Navigaion aid requencies
117
A route study is a detailed examination of the planned flight concentrating on visualizing what you
should see as you navigate the route.
TRUE
118
When checking if an airfield is OBO or requires a PPR, you should consult NOTAMs and ______.
the Enroute Supplement
119
Which of the following is NOT a type of special use airspace?
National Parks and Wildlife Zones
120
When measuring a course, the key first step is ______.
determine the general direction of the course line
121
To convert your true course to magnetic course you ______ westerly variation.
add
122
On a VFR flight above 3000 feet AGL and heading 090, which of the following would be a legal
altitude to maintain?
5500 feet
123
The main objective when completing the VFR map is to present all the essential information while
______.
minimizing clutter and the amount of map detail obscured by the markings
124
If you have any questions or difficulties completing a military VFR flight plan, you should refer to
______ for guidance.
FLIP General Planning
125
Once you have filed your VFR flight plan, clearance delivery ______.
provides nothing becuase yu are not required to call them for a VFR flight plan
126
How is your VFR flight plan activated when departing a military or civilian airfield?
Tower activates your VFR flight plan from a military field; FSS activates your VFR flight plan
from a civilian field when you contact them after you are airborne.
127
When departing from an airfield that has Class D airspace, you should remain on tower frequency until you are clear of their airspace.
TRUE
128
While under flight following you can expect radar vectors to your destination.
FALSE
129
If you do not have flight following and must change your VFR flight plan to IFR, you should first
contact ______.
FSS and file your route
130
If you change your VFR flight plan to an IFR flight plan with ATC, you need to contact FSS because
______.
you need to cancel your VFR flight plan.
131
Which of the following is NOT part of DR navigation?
GPS
132
If you do not see your checkpoint at the time you planned, you would turn to your next checkpoint
based on time.
TRUE
133
One method to use in measuring distance is using cockpit view angles. Another method discussed
was ______.
measuring the distance between two objects for comparison method
134
When navigating on a VFR route you want to look for points ______ and have them identified by
______.
2-5 minutes out; 1 minute out
135
The Standard Closing Angle used for 210 knots groundspeed is 2°.
FALSE
136
How long do you hold your correction using SCA if you are 1 mile left of your course?
1 minute
137
Using the proportional method to correct for time, you add/reduce ______ knot(s) for every ______
second(s) late or early and hold this new airspeed for the number of minutes equal to your
groundspeed in miles per minute.
1; 1
138
You are going 3NM per minute and are 15 seconds early. How would you correct?
Subtract 15 knots for 3 minutes
139
You are doing 4 NM per minute and are 30 seconds late. How would you correct?
Add 30 knots for 4 minutes
140
Your ground speed is 210 knots and you are 15 seconds early. What is your correction (use 10 percent
method to calculate?
Decrease your airspeed by 21 knots for 2 minutes and 30 seconds.
141
Your groundspeed is 210 knots and you are 7 seconds late. What is your correction?
Increase your airspeed by 21 knots for 1 minute and 10 seconds.
142
You are doing 3 miles per minute. What is your correction if you are 30 seconds early (use
Incremental Method to calculate?
Subtract 30 knots for 3 minutes.
143
Your groundspeed is 4 miles per minute and you are 10 seconds late. What is your correction?
Add 40 knots for 1 minute.
144
What items would you record on the in-flight log?
Fuel; time
145
Using your electronic calculator, how long would it take to travel 35 miles at a ground speed of 210
knots?
Ten minutes
146
When departing VFR you should tell tower your ______.
initial altitude and direction of flight
147
When departing VFR in Class D airspace, you are expected to ______.
remain on tower frequency until clear of their airspace
148
When are you required to change your ETA on a VFR flight plan?
If your arrival time is going to change by more than 30 minutes
149
You are navigating at night using DR nav and approaching a checkpoint that you can’t see. When
would you turn to the next checkpoint?
Turn on time.
150
What are the primary scan positions on a VFR/low-level nav route?
10-2 position
151
You are level at 3000 feet AGL and see your checkpoint 45° below the level horizon. How far are
you from the checkpoint?
3000 feet
152
Which one of the following course correction methods involves timing with a heading change?
Standard Closing Angle method
153
What are the five Cs?
Confess, climb, conserve, communicate, comply
154
What is the first thing you should do when you realize you are lost?
Check your clock, fuel, and heading
155
When lost in-flight in overcast conditions, it is best to ______.
climb to increase radio reception, but maintain VMC conditions
156
You are flying along in your training area at 13,000 feet and you become disoriented. Your
instruments are not functioning properly, and there is a cloud deck at 17,000 feet, what should you
do?
Climb in your area to increase visibility and radio reception, but stay below clouds and maintain
VMC (17,000 feet).
157
One way an FSS could help you when lost is by ______.
providing weather information
158
If lost in-flight, set your transponder to ______.
7700
159
When lost in-flight, you should ______.
look for landmarks to help identify you position
160
A distress call should contain ______.
PAN,PAN, PAN, call sign, and type of emergency
161
If Forrest Sherman Field Tower was closed for some reason, then the airspace around the airfield
would become Class D.
FALSE
162
Other than on the Sectional chart, where can you find information on a TRSA?
In the A/FD
163
Before you cancel your IFR flight plan and begin your VFR arrival you must first be ______.
in VFR conditions and outside Class A airspace
164
When arriving VFR at a military airfield in Class C airspace, you should contact ______.
approach control
165
Why is Pensacola categorized as Class C airspace?
It has an operating tower and has a radar approach control
166
At a minimum, what information should you provide at initial radio check-in when entering Class C
airspace VFR?
Callsign, position, altitude, transponder, and intentions
167
Even though you might not use the OLS for your arrival, you should be aware of its presence on the
field because ______.
it could be substituted for the PAPI
168
While maintaining aircraft control and continuing to clear, what is the first thing you should do after
realizing you might have radio failure?
Troubleshoot your radio connection and settings.
169
In a lost comm situation, how should you acknowledge the tower’s instructions?
Rock your wings.
170
How is Class D airspace identified on VFR Sectional Charts?
A dashed blue line
171
If you learn there is a turbine-powered aircraft in the pattern, it is at ______ feet AGL.
1500
172
What are two methods for communicating at an uncontrolled airfield?
FSS and self-announce
173
What is true about the segmented circle?
They are located on the airfield to afford maximum visibility to pilots.
174
The landing strip indicators portray the ______.
runway alignment
175
The ______ is used to display the direction for landings and takeoffs.
landing direction indicator (tetrahedron)
176
If you are landing at a civilian uncontrolled airfield in Class E airspace, you should exercise extra
caution because ______.
there are no two-way communications requirements
177
When landing at an uncontrolled airfield in a comm out situation you should ______.
enter downwind at a 45° angle
178
When operating under VFR during an arrival at a strange airfield, the ______ is responsible for
separation from other aircraft.
pilot
179
For VFR arrivals it is important to note that Class C airspace normally has a radius of ______ NM.
10
180
When approaching a military airfield for a VFR arrival, it is a good practice to monitor the ______
frequency prior to making initial radio contact.
ATIS
181
What information should you provide during initial radio contact when arriving VFR at a military
airfield?
Callsign, position, altitude, transponder code, and intentions
182
The _______ is a Navy-unique visual landing system providing glideslope information
Optical Landing System (OLS)
183
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are normally ______.
10 nautical miles from the active runway
184
What happens if the tower at an airport in Class D airspace closes?
It reverts to Class G and is controlled.
185
What must occur prior to entering any Class D airspace to conduct a VFR arrival?
Determine the traffic pattern flow
186
Two-way radio contact is not required when entering Class ______ airspace described with a shaded
magenta line.
G
187
When should you use self-announce procedures during a VFR arrival to a strange field?
The tower is closed, operating part time, and there is an FSS.
188
The national terminal radar program provides which of the following services?
Mandatory, TRSA, Class A, and Class B
189
When approaching an uncontrolled strange field VFR, who has the right of way for landing?
The aircraft with the lower altitude
190
What is the first thing you do after lost comm has been determined and you have checked your
equipment?
Set the transponder to 7600
191
What are the USAF in-flight VFR required cloud clearances and visibility below 10,000 feet?
a. 500 feet below
b. 1000 feet above
c. 2000 feet horizontal
d. 3 SM
192
What are the USN in-flight VFR required cloud clearances and visibilities below 10,000 feet?
a. 500 feet below
b. 1000 feet above
c. 2000 feet horizontal
d. 3 SM controlled
e. 1 SM uncontrolled
193
8500 feet MSL is a correct VFR cruising altitude when heading _____.
180-359* magnetic above 3000' AGL, but below 18,000; MSL
194
How do you maintain orientation and position awareness while DR navigating?
Use "clock to chart to ground"
195
One method of estimating distance uses angles of ______, ______, and ______ below the level
horizon.
30*, 45*, 60*
196
When operating a T-6A in airport Class D airspace, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least
________ above the airport elevation, unless otherwise required by applicable directives.
1500' AGL
197
What type of separation is provided by Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA)?
Separation between all participating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft within the boundaries of the TRSA
198
What information should you provide when contacting Approach Control on a VFR arrival at a
strange field?
a. Callsign
b. Position
c. Altitude
d. Destination or intentions
199
How do you enter the traffic pattern at a strange field?
You enter through the initial, straight-in, or downwind
200
Generally, what type of glideslope indicator would you expect to find at an Air Force base?
Expect to find a PAPI glideslope indicator
201
What type of visual glideslope indicator would you expect to see at a Navy base?
Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (OLS). You are on glidepath when the ball is in the center between the green datum lights
202
What are the primary communication methods at an uncontrolled airfield?
Contact FSS on CTAF; self-announced on CTAF if no tower of FSS available; use UNICOM
203
At uncontrolled airfields, initiate radio contact by 10 miles and provide what information?
a. Callsign
b. Altitude
c. Aircraft type (optional)
d. Location from field
e. Intentions
f. Request airport advisory
204
How do you determine a destination is suitable?
The field must meet command requirements:
a. Runway length
b. NAVAIDs available
c. compatible instrument approach
At civilian fields, services contracted at government rate, security requirements
205
What are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements for VFR flight below 10,00 feet MSL in
controlled airspace?
Cloud clearance:
a. 500' below
b. 1000' above
c. 2000' horizontal
d. visibility 3 statute miles
206
What are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements for VFR flight above 10,000 feet MSL?
Cloud clearance:
a. 1000' below
b. 1000' above
c. 1 SM horizontal
d. visibility 5 SM
207
What is your VFR cruising alt heading west above 3000' AGL but below 18,000 MSL?
Even thousand plus 500
208
What is the basic procedure for dead reckoning navigation?
Clock to chart to ground
209
What are the VFR arrival comm methods at an uncontrolled airfield?
Contact FSS on CTAF
Self-announcement on CTAF
Use UNICOM
210
What are the basic lost procedures?
Confess
Climb
Conserve
Communicate
Comply
211
When employing lost procedures, how do you conserve fuel?
Fly max endurance AOA
212
When do you execute lost procedures?
Position is unknown
NAVAIDs inoperable or unreliable
213
Define strange field.
Any airfield other than your home field
214
Who is responsible for making sure all postflight inspections are complete when at a strange field?
PIC
215
Engine oil should be checked within _____ minutes of shutdown
30
216
A strange field preflight inspection should be completed _____
Prior to the first flight of the day
217
The fuel filter bypass indicator is located in the _____
Single point refuel bay
218
After pulling the hydraulic manual pressure relief handle you observe a fluid level indication of FULL AD. You should ____.
Consider the system properly serviced
219
A fuel sample test tool can be found _____
in the baggage compartment
220
Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW) of the aircraft includes the weight of the crew and baggage
True
221
The nude weights of a student and instructor are 175 lbs and 210 lbs respectively. If they are equipped with summer gear, what is the total crew weight of this flight?
421 lbs
222
After being serviced at a strange field, you discover that your aircraft has been refuled with JP-8 by the over-the-wing gravity refuleing. What fuel moment would you use to compute aircraft CG?
2036
223
If you need assistance taxiing at a strange field, you could use any of the following:
a follow-me truck
Progressive taxi instructions
Airfield diagrams in your approach plates
224
When refueling the T-6A, make sure _____ is contained in the fuel or added to it.
an icing inhibitor
225
What should you do if you find a maintenance discrepancy while at a strange field?
Call your home field SOF or FDO/ODO for guidance
226
Who is responsible to make sure your flight plan is closed properly?
PIC
227
What is the phone number for FSS?
1-800-WX-BRIEF
228
At a military airfield you will file your flight plan through _____, and at a civilian airfield you will file your flight plan through _____.
Base ops; FSS
229
During the preflight inspection, if the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the green area labeled _____ or _____, the system is fully serviced
FULL AC, FULL AD
230
While performing the preflight inspection you should drain a sample of fuel from each _____
Fuel sump
231
When departing from a civilian field on an IFR flight plan, why should you call FSS after takeoff?
To pass along your departure time
232
Where do you find the a/c's Basic Empty Weight (BEW) for CG computations?
At the squadron operations desk or as locally designated
233
What is the best method to manage aircraft weight in order to keep the aircraft CG within limits?
reduce fuel and/or baggage weight
234
If your flight is not the last flight of the day, how would you perform the postflight inspection?
Complete through flight items including servicing oil and refueling
235
During postflight inspection, what procedure should you follow to check the oil level?
Check within 30 minutes of shutdown. Service oil level to MAX HOT if it is at or below ADD
236
If you are unable to receive a military weather briefing, where can you still get a weather forecast?
Call 1-800-WX-BRIEF
237
How many fuel sumps must be drained during a strange field preflight?
Five sumps to drain and check for possible contaminants
238
What is the purpose of pulling the manual pressure relief handle during preflight inspection?
It relieves pressure on the system so you can get an accurate reading of the hydraulic fluid level
239
After taking off, how is your flight plan activated?
At military airfields, the tower will activate your flight plan. At civilian airfields, you must contact FSS as soon as able after takeoff to advise you are airborne
240
What weight configurations may result in center of gravity problems in the T-6A?
1. Use of over the wing gravity refueling
2. Baggage in the baggage compartment
3. Heavy pilot in rear seat in conjunction with either of the above
241
A comprehensive listing of common FLIP, FAA, and ICAO terms and explanations can be found in FLIP _____
GP
242
To find information on a restricted area located in the US, you need to look in FLIP _____
AP/1A
243
Where can you obtain Class D NOTMAs for a particular airfield?
any FSS or DoD primary or alternate NOTAMs web page
244
What is the proper technique for determining the proper IFR filing altitude?
10% method. use 10% of the direct distance to your destination to approximate enroute alt in thousands of feet
245
When is an alternate required?
1. Forecast wx conditions (ceiling < 2000', vis 1500 feet or 3 SM
3. If radar is required to fly the approach
4. When approaches are based on unmonitored NAVAID
5. When destination airfield lacks weather reporting capability
246
When completing the flight log and computing climb fuel, what should you do if the departure field elevation is 5000' MSL or less?
Base calculations on seal level because the impact will be negligible
247
What is the initial entry made in the ROUTE OF FLIGHT section of the DD175 Military Flight Plan?
Either Standard Departure Procedure (DP) or the first planned NAVAID or fix used to enter the enroute structure
248
Define the flag symbol with an R in it
Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)
249
What three procedures for changing your flight plan are listed in the IFR Sup?
1. Change of route or destination
2. Change from VFR to IFR only
3. Change of ETA by more than 30 minutes
250
How do you determine the proper altitude with lost comm?
AME Technique, the higher of:
A: assigned altitude
M: minimum altitude for IFR (MEA)
E: Expected altitude
251
Which in-flight publication contains the turbulence reporting tables that would be used when giving a PIREP?
FIH
252
Navigation charts are oriented to _____ north and south, while aircraft navigation systems are oriented to _____ north and south
true
magnetic
253
How do you determine the proper hemispheric altitudes for a VFR flight above 3000' AGL?
Heading 000-179: Odd thousands plus 500'
Heading 180-359: Even thousands plus 500'
254
As a general rule of thumb, select checkpoints no closer than _____ minutes apart and no further than _____ minutes apart when planning a VFR mission.
5; 25
255
In planning a Route Abort Altitude, what do you do after determining the obstacle altitudes?
Round up to the next 100' and add 1000' (2000' mountains) to obstacle altitutde
256
You must notify FSS if your estimated arrival time changes by more than _____ minutes
30
Use report format in inside back cover of IFR or VFR Sup
257
To correct your planned ETA along the route, how is the proportional method used?
For every second off planned ETA, change airspeed by one knot and hold this airspeed for the number of minutes equal to groundspeed in miles per minute
258
When lost, how do you conserve fuel?
Max endurance (8.8 AOA)
259
What happens to Class D airspace when the tower closes?
It becomes Class E
260
Name three ways to communication at uncontrolled airfields.
1. FSS through CTAF
2. Self announce through CTAF
3. UNICOM
261
Name four considerations from weather brief when planning an IFR mission.
1. Winds
2. Turbulence
3. Icing
4. Thunderstorms
262
What are your options if your intended destination lacks published instrument procedure?
1. File IFR to a VMC point and proceed VFR
2. File to another field serviced by a suitable published instrument procedure. Fly procedure until VMC then proceed to destination
263
Name three criteria to operate under IFR.
1. file a flight plan
2. Receive appropriate clearnace
3. Have operable communication, nav, and identification equipment
264
When do you commence approach if lost comm?
At the EFC or ETA
265
Where are the rules and specifications for completing the Route of Flight Section on mil, ICAO, and civilian flight plans?
GP
266
What level of METRO services requires the weather observer to refer you to another service facility if you need an up-to-the-minute forecast?
Limited services METRO
Full Service METROs have a forecaster
267
When planning a VFR mission, avoid the following (7)
1. Restricted areas
2. Warning areas
3. Prohibited areas
4. MOAs
5. Victor airways
6. Military training routes
7. Class B, C, and D airspace
268
Appropriate cruising altitudes for IFR or VFR flights can be found in the _____ lengend(s)
High and low alt enroute chart
269
On VFR flight plan, how does the route of flight section differ from an IFR flight plan?
For VFR flights, the section simply states a general course you plan to follow. For IFR< it represents a specific route of flight
270
Define AVE F
Assigned
Vectored
Expected
Filed
*Route you would fly in order of preference when lost comm
271
What is the purpose of the TRSA?
An optional service.
It provides separation between all participating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft within the specific confines of the TRSA
272
