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0
Q

When is station passage for an RMI/BDHI?

A

When the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course

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1
Q

When is station passage for a VOR

A

When the TO/FROM indicator makes the first positive indication to FROM

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2
Q

When is station passage for a TACAN?

A

When the range indicator stops decreasing

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3
Q

When is station passage for an ADF?

A

On initial passage when the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course

subsequent passes are at the first definite passage of the bearing pointer through the 45 degree index

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4
Q

What would require an IFR flight plan?

A

Weather conditions do not permit VFR flight
Operating in excess of 180 KTAS within federal airways
Operating at night, unless the mission can not be flown under IFR
A airspace

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5
Q

Destination requirements for filing IFR

A

Must have a compatible IFR approach

May file to point along route where WX +- 1hr allows continued flight to destination under VFR

May file to an airport along route with a compatible instrument approach then continue to destination under VFR

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6
Q

What weather is required at destination in order to file IFR

A

+- 1hr at or above lowest compatible mins

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7
Q

For a circling approaches does the forecast weather need to meet CEILING, VISIBILITY, or both requirements?

A

both ceiling and visibility to circle

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8
Q

For a straight-in or side step approaches does the weather have to meet CEILING, VISIBILITY, or requirements for both?

A

only published visibility

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9
Q

What weather would require an IFR alternate to be filed?

A

worst weather (tempo or prevailing) at destination +-1 hr does not permit VFR descent from MEA and is less than:

2000’ vis 3 SM

(AETC always when less than 2000 and 3

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10
Q

Besides weather why else must an alternate be filed?

A

WX +-1 hr less than 2000 and 3 and unable to make VFR descent from MEA to landing and destination is:

All compatible approaches require radar
Required NAVAIDS unmonitored
No wx reporting capability
Lowest compatible approach mins greater than or equal to 1500/3
(AETC) +- 1 hr forecast winds exceed aircraft limits
(AETC) Denial of RVSM would prevent from reaching destination

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11
Q

What disqualifies an airport from being an alternate?

A

except IAW with 202V3 8.8.2

Radar required for all approaches
A-with "NA' on all compatible approaches
GPS is the only available navaid
Winds out of limits +- 1 hr (AETC)
A-with applicable note on all compatible approaches
RVSM required to reach alternate(AETC)
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12
Q

What is considered a “HEAVY” aircraft?
LARGE?
SMALL?

A

HEAVY > 255,000 lbs
LARGE 41,000 - 255,000 lbs
SMALL 12,500 - 41,000 lbs

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13
Q

What weight category does the T-1 fall under?

A

Small

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14
Q

How long should a T-1 wait before taking off or landing behind a “HEAVY” or “LARGE” aircraft

A

3 minutes

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15
Q

What are the max holding airspeeds and altitudes?

A

0-6,000 MSL 200 KTS
6,000-14,000 MSL 230 KTS
above 14,000 MSL 260 KTS

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16
Q

What are the airspeeds for the approach categories A,B,C,D,E

A 
Category A       < 91 KTS
Category B          91- less than 121 kts
Category C       121- less than 141 kts
Category D       141- less than 166kts
Category E    > 166 kts
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17
Q

What are approach categories based on?

A

1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration

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18
Q

What approach category does the T-1 fall in to?

A

Normal approaches - B

Circling - C

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19
Q

On a DD175 at least one waypoint or NAVAID should be filed within the first _____NM of each ARTCC along the route of flight

A

200

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20
Q

What is the protected airspace for each category while circling?

A 
A  1.3
B  1.5
C  1.7
D  2.3
E  4.5
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21
Q

What is the minimum landing distance available (LDA) for all student flown touch and goes or full stops? (3 FTS OI 4.2.2.5)

A

7,000’

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22
Q

Why might a VDP not be published on an approach plate?

217V1 12.1.1.3.1

A

1) an obstacle might penetrate the 20:1 glide slop
2) period of time FAA did not publish VDPs

*no way of knowing if the VDP is not published due to 20:1 glide slop, use caution when descending out of MDA at unfamiliar airport without ALS

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23
Q

What four items are included in delcared distances?

A

TORA
TODA
ASDA
LDA

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24
What is TORA
Take-off run available- The length of runway available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane takeoff
25
What is TODA?
Takeoff distance available- the length of the takeoff run plus the length of the clearway if available
26
What is ASDA?
Accelerate Stop Distance Available- the runway plus stopway length declared available and suitable for acceleration and deceleration of an airplane aborting a takeoff
27
What is LDA
Landing Distance Available- the length of the runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane landing
28
T/F when computing a refusal speed the shortest of ASDA and TORA will be used?
True
29
While being vectored to final for an ASR or PAR you should attempt radio contact with ATC after _____ of silence
1 minute
30
While on final for an ASR you should attempt radio contact with ATC after _______of radio silence
15 seconds
31
When can you go to | Non-towered airfields
``` Left hand traffic IP (certified) Day VMC Single ship LOA Low approach only CTAF 0-tac/overheads 2-aircraft max 200-kts max 3000' ceiling 3 SM vis ```
32
Can I file to a destination? (RATPAWTT)
``` Runway requirements Approach to be flown Towered airfield P-field Alternate requirements Weather TOLD Trouble T ```
33
When can you land at a P-coded airfield (JAMIECW)
``` Joint-Use Alternate Majcom Interceptor Emergency C-coded aircraft Wing/cc ```
34
Class A airspace
Vis-NA | Cloud clearance-NA
35
Class B
Vis - 3 sm | Cloud clearance - clear of clouds
36
Class C and D
vis - 3 sm cloud clearance 1,000 above - 500' below - 2,000 horizontal 152-3
37
Class E and G above 10,000'
vis - 5 sm | cloud clearance - 1,000' below - 1,000' above - 1 sm horizontal
38
What is crew rest period?
Normally a minimum 12hr non duty period before the flight duty period begins includes: - free time - time for meals - time for transportation - and rest
39
When does the flight duty period begin and end?
Begins: when a crew member reports for the mission brief or other official duty Ends: At engine shutdown at the end of the mission
40
What are the maximum flying times during the flight duty period for T-1 crews?
8 hrs total, 6.5 hrs instructional
41
What are crew rest requirements?
at least 10 continuous hours of restful activities including an opportunity for 8 consecutive hours of sleep during the 12 hours immediately prior to the Flight Duty Period
42
Aircrew members will not fly within ____ hrs of ______? | multiple answers
72 hrs after donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow 48 hrs of transiting more than 4 time zones (AETC) 24 hrs of compressed gas diving exceeding 10 minutes in duration 12 hrs of altitude chamber (above 25,000') 12 hrs of consuming alcohol or impaired by its after effects
43
What is the standard length of the inbound leg of a holding pattern?
1 minutes at or below 14,000' 1.5 minutes above 14,000' 217v1 8.1.1
44
What information will ATC provide if they clear you to a non charted holding pattern?
``` Direction of holding from the fix Holding fix Holding course Leg length Direction of turn ```
45
ATC should issue holding instruction _____before reaching a clearance limit
5 minutes
46
What are the maximum holding speeds?
surface - 6,000' MSL --- 200 KIAS 6,001 - 14,000' MSL --- 230 KIAS Above 14,000' MSL --- 265 KIAS USAF 310 KIAS USN 230 KIAS
47
When are you considered established in holding?
Upon initial passage of the holding fix
48
During holding all turns should be made at ________ unless correcting for known winds
- 3 degrees per second - 30 degrees of bank - Bank angle commanded by flight director system ** whichever is the least
49
When do you begin outbound timing during a holding pattern?
When over or abeam the fix. | If unable to determine abeam position, start timing when wings level
50
In holding pattern when do you start timing for the inbound leg?
When wings level on the inbound course
51
who has authority to authorize a 48'/NM reduction from published climb gradient from the TERPS climb gradient?
Operations supervisor or equivalent 11-217v1 7.3
52
what are the load limits for single generator ops?
280 amps - between 32,500 and 41,000' 400 amps - below 32,500
53
While operating on standby or emergency power what hydraulic powered systems will not be functional?
Normal landing gear extension Flaps Speed brakes Anti-skid system
54
What happens if the #1 inverter fails?
#2 inverter transfers power to the primary buses leaving the secondary buses powerless
55
When the AC BUS SHED illuminates what do you lose?
loss of flap position indicator loss of both oil pressure indicators
56
What are the VOR service volumes?
Terminal -- 1,000 - 12,000 AGL --25nm Low -- 1,000 - 18,000 AGL -- 40 nm High -- 1,000 - 14,500 AGL -- 40nm - - 14,500 - 60,000 AGL -- 100nm - - 18,000 - 45,000 AGL -- 130 nm 217v3 1.2.4.1.1
57
What are VOR/DME tolerances when testing on the ground?
+-4 degrees 1/2 mile or 3% whichever is higher 217V1 6.6.13.6
58
What are required fuel reserves?
Must be able to increase total flight time between refueling points by 10% up to a max of 45 minutes or 20 minutes whichever is greater assuming max endurance at 10,000'
59
What is the minimum ceiling and visibility for a visual approach?
1,000' and 3 miles
60
What are runway requirements?
6,000 X 100
61
What is the priority for receiving weather?
``` Local military wx unit OWS Another military wx unit FAA wx briefer FSS ```

T-1A (9 decks)

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