NAVMED P-5010 Flashcards
(451 cards)
1
Q
Which term refers to any substance that results or may reasonably be expected to result, directly or indirectly,
in its becoming a component or otherwise affecting the characteristics of any food?
A
Food additive
2
Q
Which term refers to the condition of a food if it bears or contains any poisonous or deleterious substance in a
quantity which may render it injurious to health?
A
Adulterated
3
Q
Which term defines food that is prepared for future service beyond a specific meal?
A
Advance preparation
4
Q
Advance preparation foods must be immediately cooled after cooking to 41°F or below within how many
hours?
A
4
5
Q
What is a unique combination of letters and numbers assigned to a shellfish control authority to a molluscan
shellfish dealer according to the provisions of the National Shellfish Sanitation Program?
A
Certification Number
6
Q
How often is the Code of Federal Regulations published by the U.S. Government Printing Office?
A
Annually
7
Q
Which term means reduced in size by methods including chopping, flaking, grinding, or mincing?
A
Comminuted
8
Q
What is a food borne disease outbreak in which laboratory analysis of appropriate specimens identifies a
causative organism and epidemiological analysis implicates the food as the source of the illness?
A
Confirmed Disease Outbreak
9
Q
What is a point or procedure in a specific food system where loss of control may result in an unacceptable
health risk?
A
Critical Control Point
10
Q
What is the maximum or minimum value to which a physical, biological, or chemical parameter must be
controlled at a critical control point to minimize the risk that the identified food safety hazard may occur?
A
Critical Limit
11
Q
What is drinking water traditionally known as?
A
Potable water
12
Q
How many pounds or less must an item weigh to be classified as “Easily movable”?
A
30
13
Q
What is an article that is used in the operation of a food establishment?
A
Equipment
14
Q
How many or more persons must experience a similar illness after ingestion of a common food for it to be
considered a food borne disease outbreak?
A
2
15
Q
Which term means an operation that stores, prepares, packages, serves, vends, or otherwise provides food for
human consumption?
A
Food establishment
16
Q
Which term refers to a commercial operation that manufactures, packages, labels, or stores food for human
consumption and does not provide food directly to a consumer?
A
Food processing plant
17
Q
Which term means a biological, chemical, or physical property that may cause an unacceptable consumer
health risk?
A
Hazard
18
Q
Which type of container is designed and intended to be secured against the entry of microorganisms and, in
the case of low acid foods, to maintain the commercial sterility of its contents after processing?
A
Hermetically sealed
19
Q
Which term means any unserved food remaining at the end of the meal period for which it is prepared?
A
Leftover
20
Q
Which term means a disease causing agent or microorganism?
A
Pathogen
21
Q
What is the document issued by the regulatory authority that authorizes a person to operate a food
establishment?
A
Permit
22
Q
What is the symbol for the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration?
A
pH
23
Q
Poisonous or Toxic Materials are substances that are not intended for ingestion and included in how many
different categories?
A
4
24
Q
Food is not considered to be a “potentially hazardous food” if when measured at 75°F it has a pH level at or
below what level?
A
4.6
25
Who is the medical department representative responsible for public health (preventive medicine)?
Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA)
26
Which type of cut is a basic major cut into which carcasses and sides of meat are separated?
Primal cut
27
Who is a commercial vendor designated by the Supply Department as an approved direct delivery vendor?
Prime vendor
28
What percentage of the surrounding atmosphere is oxygen?
21%
29
Which term is defined as solid waste not carried by water through the sewage system?
Refuse
30
Sanitize or Sanitization is the application of cumulative heat or chemicals on cleaned food surfaces that,
when evaluated for efficacy, yield a reduction of 5 logs, which is equal to a reduction of what percentage, of
representative microorganisms of public health importance?
99.999%
31
What is the process of moderating food temperature by allowing a food to gradually increase from a
temperature of -10°F to 25°F in preparation for deep-fat frying or to facilitate even heat penetration during the
cooking of previously block frozen food?
Slacking
32
What is a method of packaging raw or partially cooked food, where the product is placed in a sealed pouch
with the air removed?
Sous Vide
33
What is the maximum number of consecutive days that a temporary food establishment operates for in
conjunction with a single event or celebration?
14
34
Who establishes the sanitary standards for food procurement, inspection on delivery, fitness for human
consumption, storage and refrigeration, preparation and serving, and disposal of food residues?
Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (CHBUMED)
35
What provide environmental health services intended to reduce the risk of food borne disease outbreaks
including regular food service sanitation inspections and training?
Naval Medical Treatment Facilities (MTFs)
36
What provide specialized consultation, advice, and recommendations in matters of preventive medicine and
environmental health to Navy and Marine Corps activities, ashore and afloat?
Navy Environmental and Preventive Medicine Units (NAVENPVNTMEDUs)
37
Who is responsible for the planning, design, and construction of public works at all shore activities, including
messing and supporting facilities?
Commander, Naval Facilities Engineering Command (COMNAVFACENGCOM)
38
Who is responsible for the design, construction and maintenance of messing facilities afloat?
Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command
39
Who administers the Navy Food Service Program?
Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command (COMNAVSUPSYSCOM)
40
Which publication gives line of authority and direction for general mess operation?
NAVSUP P-486
41
Who administers the food service program for the Marine Corps?
Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)
42
Which publication contains information concerning the Food Service and Subsistence Management Programs
within the Marine Corps?
MCO P10110.14
43
Which branch is the DoD executive agent for veterinary services?
Army
44
Who is responsible for the procurement, receipt, inspection, storage, and issue of food items?
Supply Officer (SUPPO)
45
Who is in direct charge of the food service division in a command and is responsible for the preparation,
serving, and storage of food?
Food Service Officer (FSO)
46
Who is responsible for sanitization surveillance of food service spaces and cleaning of equipment and
utensils?
Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA)
47
A person in charge must be present at the food establishment during all hours of operation for food facilities in
which risk type categories?
3 or 4
48
How many hours is the supervisor/manager food service sanitation/food safety training course required for all
personnel designated as a person in charge?
18
49
A refresher supervisor/manager food service sanitation/food safety training course is required every how many
years?
3
50
How many hours at a minimum of initial food safety training must all food service employees receive?
4
51
Within how many days must new food service employees receive their initial food safety training?
30
52
How many additional hours of food service training must all food service employees receive per year?
4
53
How many hours at a minimum of initial food safety training and orientation must all temporary food service
personnel assigned for 30 days or less receive?
2
54
How many hours at a minimum of initial food safety training must all bartenders who aren’t required to
prepare food receive?
1
55
How often must independent duty Corpsmen requalify to train on food sanitation and safety?
Every 3 years
56
Navy and Marine Corps food management teams may conduct food service sanitation training during official
visits to commands provided the instructors are certified as required by which series?
SECNAVINST 4061.1
57
What is the Food Safety Training Certificate form number?
NAVMED 4061/1
58
Authority to teach the supervisor/manager food service sanitation training/refresher course resides with
whom?
Environmental Health Officer (EHO)
59
Which locally prepared special form will be used to document food employee medical screening?
SF 600
60
The local medical authority shall exclude a food employee who has traveled out of the country within the last
how many calendar days?
50
61
Who must the person in charge refer all food employees or applicants to for a physical examination prior to
employment?
Local medical authority
62
How many seconds at a minimum must food employees vigorously rub together the surface of their lathered
hands and arms when washing their hands?
20
63
Which program was a major re-engineering effort within the Department of Defense (Food Purchasing
Procedures) whereby a single distributor serves as the major provider of product to various Federal customers
within a geographical region or zone?
Subsistence Prime Vendor (SPV)
64
NAVMED P-5010
MANUAL OF NAVAL PREVENTIVE MEDICINE
65
The Subsistence Prime Vendor (SPV) selected for each geographical region or zone will deliver directly to
dining facilities or a chosen location within how many hours after ordering?
48
66
Who is the final authority on acceptance or rejection of product?
Receiving official
67
Which publications contain guidelines for receipt of meats and poultry?
NAVSUP P-421 and NAVSUP P-486
68
Which standards are inspections of fresh fruits and vegetables based on?
USDA
69
What is the only grade of pasteurized fluid milk or fluid milk products from approved plants that will be used
or served?
Grade A
70
Inspectors must ensure that milk and milk products being delivered are at or below which temperature?
45°F
71
Shell eggs must be received at or below what temperature?
45°F
72
Shell eggs must be cooled and maintained at or below what temperature?
41°F
73
How many types of product compliance evaluations are performed by U.S. Army Veterinary Inspectors
(AVIs) under the prime vendor?
3
74
Which type of product compliance evaluations are performed to ensure food items comply with packaging
and marking, best value for their intended use, customer satisfaction, wholesomeness and at a minimum, count,
condition and identity?
Routine
75
Which type of product compliance evaluations are performed to ensure items meet all requirements in the
specifications under which they were procured and that they are wholesome?
Special
76
Potentially Hazardous Food (PHF) should be received at or below which temperature?
41°F
77
What is the maximum number of times that a food employee may use a utensil to taste food that is to be sold
or served?
1
78
Vegetables of uncertain origin and those purchased in foreign countries, as well as those suspected of being
contaminated with pathogenic organisms, must be chemically disinfected by immersion for at least how many
minutes in a 100 ppm Free Available Chlorine (FAC) solution?
15
79
Who is responsible for determining an items “fitness for human consumption”?
Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA)
80
How many inches at a minimum above the floor should containers or bulk lots of food be stored?
6
81
How many inches at a minimum away from walls should containers or bulk lots of food be stored?
4
82
Which types of pallets must not be used for food storage?
Wood
83
What should not be used for storage of wet foods or beverages?
Galvanized metal cans
84
What is the most effective means of minimizing the risk of food borne illness and reducing the loss through
spoilage?
Temperature control
85
Thermometers or air measuring devices must be accurate to ± how many degrees?
+-3 degrees F
86
What is the required temperature range for refrigeration?
32-41 degrees F
87
What is the maximum allowable frost or glaze ice thickness allowed to accumulate on the interior surfaces or
on the refrigeration coils?
0.25"
88
How many times per day must bulk cold storage temperature log entries be made?
2
89
How long must bulk cold storage temperature logs be maintained in the facility?
1 year
90
Potentially Hazardous Food (PHF) requiring refrigeration after preparation will be cooled to an internal
product temperature of 41°F or below within how many hours?
4
91
Frozen food will be kept frozen and stored at a product temperature at or below what?
0°F
92
Which temperature range may ice cream being dispensed by a scoop be held between to facilitate serving?
6°F-10°F
93
Potentially Hazardous Food (PHF) that is cooked, cooled an reheated for hot food holding or transport shall
be rapidly reheated, within 2 hours, so all parts of the food reach an internal product temperature of at least
165°F for at least how many seconds?
15
94
How many minutes must food that has been heated in a microwave to 165°F be covered to obtain
temperature equilibrium?
2
95
What is the minimum temperature that ready to eat food from a commercially processed, hermetically sealed
container or packaging must be heated to for hot holding?
141°F
96
What is the minimum temperature that hot food holding containers must be preheated to prior to placing hot
food in the containers?
145°F
97
Which term refers to food items that are canned, dried, dehydrated, or otherwise processed to the extent that
such items, under normal circumstances, may be stored in non-refrigerated spaces?
Semi-perishable
98
How many or more living or dead insects per pound must food have to be considered heavily infested?
7
99
How many hours should lightly infested food be placed in the freezer so that the dead insects can be removed
and the food can be used?
72
100
How many insects per pound within the inspected packages will be justification to condemn the lot when the
infestation is found to involve living or dead insect species belonging to the genus Tribolium?
3
101
How many weeks at a minimum must infested products be kept at 0°F to kill all insects in all stages?
2
102
How many inches at a minimum of clearance must be maintained between the top of the stacks and the
openings of the air ducts?
6
103
How often at a minimum must ice machines be cleaned?
Monthly
104
Which minimum internal temperature must poultry be heated to for at least 15 seconds?
165°F
105
Which minimum internal temperature must ground beef be heated to for at least 15 seconds or until the juices
run clear?
155°F
106
Which minimum internal temperature must shell eggs that are broken and prepared to order and for
immediate service be heated to for at least 15 seconds or until the white is firm, not running, and the yolk is set?
145°F
107
No more than how many quarts of scrambled eggs per batch should be cooked at the same time?
3
108
Which minimum internal temperature must scrambled eggs be heated to for at least 15 seconds and until
there is no visible liquid egg?
155°F
109
Growth of harmful bacteria and the development of toxins (poisons) formed by bacteria occur rapidly in
protein foods when held in which temperature range?
41°F-140°F
110
A reconstituted or fortified potentially hazardous food that is held between 41°F-140°F for longer than how
many hours must be discarded?
4
111
Which term defines food that is prepared for future service beyond a specific meal?
Advance preparation
| 
112
“Advance Preparation” foods that are prepared from ingredients at ambient temperature, such as reconstituted
foods or canned food ingredients, must be cooled to 41°F or below within how many hours?
4
113
How many hours from the original time of preparation can advance preparation food items that are
considered to be potentially hazardous food be retained for use or sale?
72
114
How many hours can chilled leftover foods be retained at or below 41°F?
24
115
How many hours can hot leftover foods be retained at or above 140°F?
5
116
Potentially hazardous food that has been cooked and then refrigerated and which is reheated for hot holding
must be reheated so that all parts of the food reach 165°F for a minimum of 15 seconds and then held at or above
what temperature until served?
140°F
117
Which system is recommended for commands donating excess food to follow?
Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP)
118
Frozen foods at shore based facilities may be thawed by completely submerging under running water that is
at or below what temperature?
70°F
119
The temperature of hot and cold foods on the serving line must be checked frequently to ensure that no food
is held between what temperatures?
41°F-140°F
120
Which temperature should all salad bar items remain under?
41°F
121
Which type of meals have the potential of providing ideal temperatures for rapid growth and multiplication of
pathogens?
Buffet
122
All salads, including the contents of a master container, must be used within how many hours after opening?
72
123
How many calendar days after opening must all meats and cheeses be consumed?
7
124
All meats and cheeses must be maintained at or below what temperature?
41°F
125
Which instruction contains procedures to establish and operate Auxiliary Resale Outlets (AROs)?
OPNAVINST 4060.4
126
How often must the Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA) ensure by inspection that vending machines are
maintained in a sanitary manner?
Quarterly
127
How often must the Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA) inspect non-government operated food vendors
operating mobile food service or canteen trucks?
Quarterly
128
Which personnel will normally inspect commissaries?
U.S. Army veterinary
129
Care may be provided for up to how many children by a private individual in a Navy family housing unit?

6
130
How often at a minimum must the Preventive Medicine Service conduct inspections of family home care
units?
Annually
131
How many days prior to opening a temporary food establishment must the individual or agency responsible
for the establishment contact the Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA) to obtain a permit to operate the facility?
30
132
How many general classes are food service operations divided into?
2
133
Which material grade must hoses be made of that are used to carry water for food preparation, drinking
water, ware washing and hand washing?
Food grade
134
Who can approve field expedient hand washing facilities?
Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA)
135
Which food safety system was developed to prevent the occurrence of potential food safety and sanitation
problems?
Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP)
136
How many principles is a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) plan divided into?
7
137
What is defined as a point, step, procedure in which a food safety hazard can be prevented, eliminated, or
reduced?
Critical Control Point (CCP)
138
What are defined as the criteria that must be met for each preventive measure associated with a Critical
Control Point (CCP)?
```
Critical Limits (CLs)

```
139
Which publication must shipboard food service equipment comply with?
NAVSUP PUB 533
| 
140
How many inches of clearance at a minimum must there be between the floor and floor-mounted equipment at
shore based facilities?
6"
141
How many inches of clearance at a minimum must there be between the floor and floor-mounted equipment
aboard ships?
8"
142
How many steps are there in the ware washing process?
6
143
If hot water is used for sanitization in manual ware washing operations, the sanitizing compartment of the sink
shall be designed with an integral heating device that is capable of maintaining water at or below which
temperature?
171°F
144
Every how many hours at a minimum must ware washing machines, sink compartments, basins, or other
receptacles used for washing and rinsing equipment and utensils be cleaned?
24
145
What is the minimum temperature which must be maintained by the wash solution in manual ware washing
equipment unless of course a different temperature is specified on the cleaning agent manufacturer’s label
instructions?
110°F
146
What is the minimum temperature that must be maintained for a single tank, stationary rack, single
temperature spray type ware washer machine which uses hot water to sanitize?
165°F
147
What is the minimum temperature that must be maintained for a single tank, conveyor, dual temperature spray
type ware washer machine which uses hot water to sanitize?
160°F
148
What is the minimum temperature that must be maintained for a stationary rack, dual temperature spray type
ware washer machine which uses hot water to sanitize?
150°F
149
What is the minimum temperature that must be maintained for a multi-tank, conveyor, multi-temperature
spray type ware washer machine which uses hot water to sanitize?
150°F
150
What is the minimum wash solution temperature that must be maintained for a spray type ware washer that
uses chemicals to sanitize?
120°F
151
What is the minimum water temperature that must be maintained if immersion in hot water is used for
sanitizing in a manual operation?
171°F
152
What is the minimum allowable PSI of the flow pressure of the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse in a ware
washing machine?
PSI
153
What is the maximum allowable PSI of the flow pressure of the fresh hot water sanitizing rinse in a ware
washing machine?
PSI
154
A sink with how many compartments is basic for proper manual ware washing procedures?
3
155
What affects detergent efficiency?
Water hardness
156
After washing, equipment food contact surfaces and utensils shall be sanitized in hot water manual operations
for at least how many seconds?
30
157
How often at a minimum must tableware be inspected by supervisory personnel?
Daily
158
Which method will be used to clean tables and seating areas during the meal period and prior to closing each
day?
Two pan
159
How often at a minimum must cutting boards be cleaned and sanitized?
After each use
160
How often at a minimum must microwave ovens be cleaned?
Daily
161
Which standard or its equivalent must be met by materials used in the construction of food service utensils
and equipment?
NSF Standard No. 2
162
Which type of material must not be installed as floor covering in food preparation areas, food storage areas,
ware washing areas, hand washing areas and toiled room areas where urinals and toilets are located?
Carpeting
163
How many foot candles of lighting must be available at any time in all food service areas and rooms to include
walk-in units?
10
164
How many foot candles at a minimum must the lighting on food preparation and ware washing work surfaces
be?
50
165
The lighting in packaged food and fresh produce sales areas, hand washing areas, ware washing areas,
equipment and utensil storage areas, and toilet areas must be at least 20 foot candles at a distance of how many
inches from the floor?
30
166
How often at a minimum must ventilation hoods and grease filters be cleaned of grease and dirt to avoid the
danger of fire?
Weekly
167
Temperatures in shipboard spaces exceeding which temperature must be immediately reported to the Medical
Department?
100°F
168
Any self-closing, slow closing or metering faucet installed in hand washing facilities must provide a flow of
water for a minimum of how many seconds without the need to reactivate the faucet?
15
169
Which series should be referenced for guidance on disposal of plastic materials at sea?
OPNAVINST 5090
170
Outside garbage storage areas or enclosures must not be located within how many feet of the food
establishment when possible?
100
171
How many times per week is it recommended that dumpsters and other containers used to store garbage be
thoroughly cleaned with high pressure water or steam whenever flies are present?
2
172
How often at a minimum should garbage produced in large volume be removed from the premises?
Daily
173
How often at a minimum must the Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA) inspect all food establishments
unless specifically exempted by the installation regulatory authority?
Monthly
174
How often at a minimum regardless of exemptions must all Navy and Marine Corps food establishments be
inspected?
Quarterly
175
What is the Food Establishment Inspection Report form number?
NAVMED 6240/1
176
Who is required to set a fixed risk category for each food establishment operating in their area of
responsibility?
Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA)
177
Which type of inspection shall be conducted to ensure establishments are built or remodeled per the approved
plans and specifications?
Pre-operational
178
Preventive Medicine Authority (PMA) personnel shall verify that critical violations found during food
establishment inspections have been corrected at the time of inspection or within how many days of the initial
routine inspection?
10
179
The Food Establishment Inspection Report is based on citing violations in how many different categories?
2
180
Which command is responsible for the design, construction, and maintenance of shipboard potable water
systems?
Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEASYSCOM)
181
Which command is responsible for promulgating instructions for ship-to-shore potable water connections and
for providing potable water from an approved source when the ship is berthed at a naval facility?
Naval Facilities Engineering Command (NAVFACENGCOM)
182
Who is responsible for establishing and promulgating health standards for water quality afloat?
Chief, BUMED
183
Who is responsible for the chloride and hydrogen ion (pH) testing of the ship’s potable water?
Engineering Officer
184
Which type of water tends to be mineral free and can be highly corrosive to metal piping and storage tanks?
Distilled
185
If unusual conditions require drastic restrictions in the use of potable water, the allowances should not be less
than how many gallons per man per day to be used for drinking and cooking purposes?
2
186
How many gallons of potable water are specified per day per man by NAVSEA for design considerations?

50
187
Shipboard potable risers shall be at least how many inches above the deck and turned down?
18"
188
Potable water riser valve or valve handles must be properly color coded in accordance with which publication?

STM Chapter 505
| 
189
How many general types of distillation plants are installed on naval vessels depending on the source of heat
used to evaporate seawater?
3
190
Which type of distilling plants are submerged tube type and use heat derived from diesel engine jacket water?
Waste heat
191
Which type of distilling plants primarily require only electrical energy for operations?
Vapor compression
192
Filling connection hose valves must have the potable water receiving connection at least how many inches
above the deck?
18"
193
To avoid scald injuries, the temperature setting for the hot water heaters serving habitability space showers and
lavatories must be set not to exceed which temperature at the water tap?
120°F
194
Only sealants and lubricants certified to which standard may be used for potable water piping repairs?
NSF/ANSI Standard 61
195
Which color code will be used for potable water sounding tube caps?
Dark blue
196
Potable water hoses must be labeled “POTABLE WATER ONLY” with 1-inch high letters approximately
ever how many feet?
10'
197
Maintenance of what is the usual method of guarding against contamination or accidents that may occur
during the production, handling, storage, and distribution of potable water?
Halogen residual
198
EPA has established a maximum contaminant level (MCL) for all disinfectants used in drinking water at how
many parts per million (PPM)?
4
199
Shipboard water is disinfected by the addition of sufficient chlorine or bromine to produce not less than how
many parts per million (PPM) Free Available Chlorine (FAC) or total bromine residual (TBR) after 30 minutes
contact time measure at the potable water tank?
0.2
200
Chlorine along with what else are approved methods for disinfecting shipboard potable water?
Bromine
201
How many feet at a minimum must calcium hypochlorite (HTH) lockers or bins be located away from any
heat source or surface which could exceed 140°F?
5
202
What is the maximum amount of 6-oz calcium hypochlorite (HTH) bottles that may be stored in a locker or
bin?
48
203
What is the shelf life of Bromine cartridges from the date of manufacture?
2 years
204
How many types of brominators are used in Bromine treatment installations?
2
205
Water received from an unapproved source, a source of doubtful quality, or an area where amebiasis or
infectious hepatitis is endemic, must be chlorinated or brominated to provide at least a halogen residual
(FAC/TBR) of how many parts per million (PPM) at the potable water tanks at the end of a 30-minute contact
time?
2.0
206
Which publication provides guidance for neutralizing highly chlorinated water?
ANSI/AWWA C652-02
207
Potable water hoses are disinfected by filling them with a solution containing how many parts per million
(PPM) Free Available Chlorine (FAC) which must remain in contact with the entire hose interior for at least 2
minutes?
100
208
Water can be made safe for drinking and cooking purposes by holding it at a rolling boil for at least how
many minutes?
2
209
Which type of vessels are generally exempt from routinely halogenating potable water?
Submarines
210
What must the submarine atmosphere be monitored for when using calcium hypochlorite (HTH)?
Chlorine gas
211
How many 6 oz. bottles at a minimum of calcium hypochlorite (HTH) will be carried on board SSN submarines?
9
212
How many 6 oz. bottles at a minimum of calcium hypochlorite (HTH) will be carried on board SSBN submarines?
12
213
How often at a minimum must each calcium hypochlorite (HTH) bottle be inspected?
Every 3 months
214
How often at a minimum must bacteriological examination of potable water be performed on a minimum of four samples representative of the distribution system?
Weekly
215
Water vessels shall deliver potable water to receiving ships with a halogen residual of at least how many parts per million (PPM) when the source is an approved watering point?
0.2
216
Water transferred from the ship for human consumption will contain how many parts per million FAC?
2.0
217
A bacteriological analysis must be conducted no later than how many weeks prior to transferring water from the ship for human consumption?
1
218
How often must all emergency potable water storage tanks be drained and refilled with potable water containing a minimum trace halogen residual?
Quarterly
219
What should the water temperature range be when manually washing potable water containers?
10-125°F
220
All interior surfaces of potable water containers must be disinfected by exposure to a chemical disinfectant solution for at least how many minutes?
2
221
Who is responsible for surveillance of the potable water system?
Medical Department Representative (MDR)
| 
222
Which type of bacteria is the indicator organism for bacteriological drinking water quality?
Coliform
223
Ships that can’t identify a source of the bad water taste or odor should add sufficient chlorine to provide a
dosage of how many parts per million (PPM) in the potable water tanks?
5.0
224
What has been successfully used to treat taste and odor problems associated with improperly applied potable
water tank coatings?
Steam application
225
Which personnel will provide consultative assistance for shipboard taste and odor problems upon request?
NAVENPVNTMEDU
226
What is defined as any connection between two separate piping systems, one of which contains potable water,
and the other contains water of unknown or questionable quality or some other substance?
Cross-connection
227
What is defined as the actual vertical separation between a potable water supply outlet and the highest possible
level of liquid in the sink, container, tank, etc., receiving the water?
Air Gap
228
What is the most common type of backflow or back-siphonage prevention devices?
Vacuum breaker
229
What must all ice be prepared from?
Potable water
230
Samples of ice shall be collected from what percentage of ice machines every week for bacteriological testing?
25%
231
What has established Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) for specific contaminants in water?
EPA
232
What should be contacted by afloat commands which require assistance for a water quality complaint or
problem?
Navy Environmental and Preventive Medicine Unit
233
High pH levels at or above what level will adversely affect the disinfectant properties of chlorine or bromine?
8.5
234
Which department is responsible for salinity testing on ship-produced water?
Engineering
235
What represent the amount of halogen present in potable water following adequate disinfection?
FAC and TBR
236
How many parts per million FAC or TBR must be maintained by surface ships in the potable water distribution system after initial treatment?
0.2
237
How often should the Medical Department Representative (MDR) be testing for halogen residuals from sampling points that are varied and representative of the ship’s distribution system?
Daily
238
How often must bacteriological testing be completed on samples collected at representative points throughout
the distribution system?
Weekly
239
Microorganisms of which group are indicators of water contamination?
Coliform
240
What is defined as the growth of non-pathogenic microorganisms within the ship’s potable water system?
Biofilm
241
What are the bacteria that make up biofilms collectively referred to as?
Heterotrophic Plate Count (HPC) organisms
242
In general, Heterotrophic Plate Count (HPC) levels greater than how many bacterial colonies per milliliter are an indication of a loss of microbial control within the potable water piping as well as an indication of potential interference with the coliform measurements?
500
243
The Medical Department Representative will maintain a how many year chronological record of potable water surveillance?
2
244
Which form should accompany water samples submitted for bacteriological analysis to shore facilities?
DD 686
245
Which term refers to organisms, primarily arthropods and rodents, which play a significant role in the
transmission of disease to man, act as intermediate hosts or reservoirs of disease, present problems of sanitary or
hygienic significance, or otherwise affect the health and efficiency of personnel?
Vector
246
What are organisms which are destructive to structures, stored products, grounds, and other material properties
classified as?
Economic pests
247
Which reference provides basic standards and policies governing the Navy’s pest control programs?
DoD Directive 4150.7
248
Which department is required to plan and recommend vector control measures?
Medical
249
Who provide basic, advanced, and refresher training for military and civilian personnel in vector and economic
pest prevention and control measures?
Disease Vector Ecology and Control Centers (DVECC) medical entomologists
250
Which series delineates specific responsibilities of applied biologists assigned to engineering field divisions of
the Naval Facilities Engineering Command?
OPNAVINST 6250.4
251
How often at a minimum must the senior enlisted medical department representative and the Corpsman
responsible for pest control attend shipboard pest control training?
Annually
252
What is any substance or mixture of substances intending for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating
any pest?
Pesticide
253
Which type of pesticide is used to control mites, scorpions, ticks, and related organisms?
Acaricide
254
Which type of insecticide is used against the egg stage of an insect?
Ovicide
255
What are pesticides of plant origin?
Botanicals
256
What are defined as chemicals that enter in the gaseous or vapor form via the respiratory system and/or
through body surfaces?
Fumigants
257
Which type of pesticide formulations contain parasitic microorganisms or their metabolic by-products that
control pests?
Biologicals
258
What are defined as absorptive dusts, which scratch, absorb, or abrade the waxy surface of the exoskeleton
causing death by dehydration?
Desiccants
259
Soil sterilants are normally thought of as an herbicide treatment to control unwanted vegetation in a given area
for how many or more months?
6
260
What are defined as compounds absorbed by and translocated throughout the host plant or animal to kill
parasites sucking juice or body fluids?
Systemics
261
What may be used where dampness or water cause problems or where there is a need to apply insecticides in
cold weather?
Oil solutions
262
What consists of droplets of an emulsifiable pesticide dispersed in a diluent in such a way as to prevent
separation of the two components?
Emulsion
263
What are employed as foliage/grass sprays for application against turf pests as residuals against some stored
products pests and for interior residuals in malaria control programs?
Suspensions
264
What is the most useful size of granules and pellets?
15-40 mesh
265
Which type of materials enhance the effectiveness of basic toxicant chemicals by altering their physical or
chemical characteristics?
Additives
266
Which type of material is used to dissolve a pesticide for the preparation of a liquid formulation?
Solvent
267
Which type of material which, when added to a pesticide, increases the effectiveness of that pesticide?
Synergist
268
Aerosols are defined as a suspension of liquid or solid particles in air where the particle size generally ranges
from 0.1 to 50 microns in diameter with what percentage of the particles in the 0.1 to 30 micron range?
80%
269
What are defined as dispersed particles in which the particles are intermediate in size between those of
aerosols and fine sprays?
Mists
270
How many microns in diameter are fine spray droplets?
100-400
271
How many microns in diameter are coarse spray droplets at a minimum?
400
272
What is the most expensive yet least permanent of the various methods of pest control?
Chemical control
273
Pesticide resistance has been reported for more than how many species of arthropods?
225
274
How often at a minimum should bait stations be checked?
Monthly
275
How often at a minimum should bait stations be checked if rodent activity is noticed?
Weekly
276
Which signal word should be on Highly Toxic pesticides?
Danger
277
Which signal word should be on Moderately Toxic pesticides?
Warning
278
Which signal word should be on Slightly Toxic pesticides?
Caution
279
What is the approximate amount of a highly toxic (0-50 mg/kg) pesticide needed to kill the average person?
Taste-teaspoonful
280
Which type of approved respiratory device is necessary any time inhalation of pesticides can occur?
National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
| 
281
Respirator cartridges should be changed out every how many hours of use at a minimum?
8
282
Respirator cartridges should be changed out every how many hours of use at a minimum during heavy pesticide spraying?
4
283
How many minutes or less does it take for the body to absorb pesticides?
15
284
Pesticide storage areas should be insulated to prevent exposure to temperatures in excess of what?
100°F
285
Combustible liquids are those with flash points greater than what temperature?
100°F
286
Flammable liquids are those with flash points less than what temperature?
100°F
287
What is the maximum allowable distance permitted for travel to an accessible fire extinguisher for flammable
liquids?
50'
288
What is defined as the removal of the toxicant to a disposal area?
Decontamination
289
What keeps the patient alive until specific antidotes can be given and take effect, or until the body has
sufficient time to metabolize and detoxify the poison?
Supportive therapy
| 
290
How many minutes at a minimum must the eye be washed with a gentle stream of water if they are
contaminated with a pesticide?
5
291
Which type of pesticides cause irreversible cholinesterase inhibition?
Organophosphorus
| 
292
Which fly species is capable of transmitting disease-producing organisms via its vomitus and excrement, and
on its contaminated feet, body hairs, and mouth parts?
House fly
293
Blowfly larvae sometimes develop in wounds or natural body openings causing which condition?
Myiasis
294
Which type of fly transmit the protozoan trypanosomes that cause human African sleeping sickness?
Tsetse
295
What is transmitted by horse and deer flies?
Tularemia
296
Which type of non-biting flies are attracted to wounds, pus, and secretions around the eyes and nose?
Eye gnats
297
How many major developmental stages do all flies have?
4
298
Which type of fly is possibly the most widely distributed insect pest of importance to mankind?
House fly
299
Up to how many batches of eggs at 3 to 4 day intervals can be laid by the female house fly?
20
300
How many hours does it take under favorable conditions for house fly eggs to hatch?
8-12
301
Which type of flies are identifiable by their large metallic shining blue, green, or black abdomens?
Blowflies
302
How many days is the average lifecycle of the blowfly?
9-25
303
Which color in appearance are flesh flies?
Medium gray
304
Which type of flies cause obligate myiasis?
Bot and Warble
305
Bot and Warble flies larval development requires how many months?
10-11
306
How many days does stable fly development take?
21-25
307
Which type of flies are easily recognizable by the way in which they fold their wings scissor-like above the
abdomen when resting, the characteristic discal cell (cleaver shaped) in the wing, and the prominent biting
mouthparts?
Tsetse
308
Sand flies rarely exceed how many mm in length?
5
309
Which type of bloodsucking flies are often called no-see-ums, or punkies?
Biting Midges
310
Which type of flies inflict exceedingly painful bites and, when numerous, seriously interfere with outdoor
operations or recreation?
Horse and Deer
311
Larvicides should be applied until the breeding medium is saturated to a depth of how many inches?
2-3"
312
Which type of formulas should not be used on tents because they will break down the waterproofing and
cause them to leak during subsequent rains?
Emulsion
313
Which insects rank first in importance among the insects that transmit diseases to man?
Mosquitoes
314
Aedes, Anopheles, along with which other mosquito genera are the most frequently associated with disease
transmission?
Culex
315
What are recommended for interior control of mosquitoes when immediate eradication is required?
Space sprays
316
Which size of mesh should be used to protect living quarters in permanent or semi-permanent camps?
18
317
What is the infestation of lice on a human host termed?
Pediculosis
318
How many species of lice infect man?
3
319
What is the size of the average bedbug?
6 mm
320
What is the only thing bedbugs feed on?
Blood
321
What are probably the most common and persistently troublesome arthropod pest encountered indoors?
Cockroaches
322
Which phobia is the fear of insects?
Entomophobia
323
What is the life span of the German cockroach?
6-10 months
324
What is the most common indoor species of cockroaches especially in and around food service spaces and
facilities?
German
325
Which type of cockroach prefers living rooms, dining rooms, bedrooms, and is a common pest in hotels and
motels and is often found in hospital wards?
Brown-banded
326
How often should cockroach surveys be conducted aboard ships by the Medical Department Representative
(MDR)?
Every 2 weeks
327
What is an effective, environmentally sound method of cockroach control?
Bait application
328
Which series requires all locally procured pesticides and equipment be technically reviewed and approved
before procurement?
OPNAVINST 6250.4
329
Stored products pests include over how many different species of insects?
100
330
How often must infestible products near or past the inspection test date be checked to find insects before they
destroy the product and contaminate other products on the ship or in the storage facility?
Monthly
331
What are defined as chemicals secreted by an organism that cause a specific reaction by the other members of
the same species?
Pheromones
332
Which form must be submitted to the nearest entomologist, along with the insects to correctly identify the
infesting insects and to document the occurrence of a product infestation?
DD 12222
333
Freezing an infested product that is still consumable for how many weeks will kill all life stages of the insects
except for the eggs?
2
334
Which series outlines allowable levels of product infestation?
MIL-STD 904
335
Mites of medical importance may be classified into how many different groups based upon their habitats?
4
336
How many developmental stages do mites go through after hatching from their eggs?
3
337
Where is the only place Chiggers customarily live?
Damp shaded soil
338
How many stages are there in the development of a tick?
4
339
Which type of flea does the fertilized female burrow into the skin of its host, particularly between the toes,
under the toenails, and in the tender part of the feet?
Chigoe
340
Approximately how many ounces does the Norway rat weigh?
10-17
341
Which type of rats prefer seeds, cereals, vegetables, fruit and grass, but may subsist on leather goods,
chocolate, and even weaker members of its own kind?
Roof
342
How many days on average does it take rodents to accept traps as part of the environment?
2-3
343
How many inches in diameter at a minimum should rat guards be?
36
344
How many feet from the closest point to the shore should rat guards be mounted?
6
345
How many feet at a minimum should gangways and other means of access to the vessel be separated from the
shore unless guarded to prevent rodent movement?
6
346
What are the method of choice for rodent infestations aboard ship?
Glue boards and snap traps
347
Which series details the requirements for a de-radiation certification?
BUMEDINST 6250.14
348
Residual insecticide application is only authorized when in port and when outboard ventilation is possible for
a minimum of how many hours?
24
349
Up to how many combat bait stations may be onboard submarines?
144
350
Approximately how many deaths per year result from venomous arthropods?
30
351
How often should the Medical Department Representative (MDR) conduct a stored product pest survey?
Monthly
352
Approximately how many deaths per year result from poisonous reptiles?
14
353
Venoms produced by arthropods are mixtures of how many toxic types?
4
354
Which spider has venom which is strongly hemolytic and vesicating causing progressive tissue necrosis?
Loxosceles reclusa
355
Which fluid exuded by blister beetles causes formation of serious blisters that eventually break causing
satellite blisters?
Cantharidin
356
Anaphylactic shock is treated by the use of a tourniquet and subcutaneous injections of what?
Epinephrine
357
How often may supplementary applications of DEET be necessary after initial application depending on loss
through sweating, wading, contact, or similar activities?
Every 6-10 hours
358
How many wash cycles does permethrin remain effective on clothing?
6
359
Which series defines disinsection on vessels and aircraft?
SECNAVINST 6210.2
360
Which procedures include measures designed to prevent dissemination of disease organisms infective to
plants, animals, and/or man?
Quarantine
361
How many gallons of pesticide can most backpack sprayers hold?
2.5
362
Up to how many acres can be sprayed depending on the pesticide application rate by the Navy Pesticide Aerial
Cargo Unit Number 9 (PACU-9) with its 60 gallon tank?
7,500
363
```
Up to how many acres can be sprayed depending on the pesticide application rate by the Army Pesticide
Dispersal Unit (PDU) with its 150 gallon tank?
```
19,000
364
What is the only authorized fixed wing aerial spray system in the Department of Defense?
Air Force Modular Aerial Spray System (MASS)
365
Up to how many acres can be sprayed depending on the pesticide application rate by the Air Force Modular
Aerial Spray System (MASS) with its 2,000 gallon tank?
250,000
366
Which personnel have the primary mission of preserving unit combat effectiveness by providing informed
technical information to the Commanding Officer or Officer in Charge concerning preventive medicine and
environmental health?
Preventive Medicine (PREVMED)
367
What is one of the most important functions of any military medical service?
Disease prevention
368
Over how many hospital admissions in World War II were caused by cold injuries?
90,000
369
Over how many man-days were lost during World War II due to arthropod born diseases?
16.5 million
370
Which centers prepare in-depth Disease Vector Risk Assessment Profiles?
Navy Disease Vector Ecology and Control Centers (NAVDISVECTECOLCONCENs)
371
Which report provides information to the Commanding Officer (CO) about the course of events during the
deployment and presents problems as they occurred?
After Action Report (AAR)
372
How many phases should the After Action Report (AAR) be separated into?
3
373
Within how many days after mission completion must personnel deployed for less than 6 months submit their
After Action Report (AAR)?
15
374
Within how many days after mission completion must personnel deployed for 6 or more months submit their
After Action Report (AAR)?
30
375
Who are responsible for providing sufficient potable water for the population to be served?
Engineers
376
Which type of water includes lakes, rivers, streams, and ponds?
Surface
377
How many feet at a minimum must ground water sources be located from all existing sources of contamination
as well as being situated so that the drainage is away from the well or spring?
100'
378
What is usually used to accomplish desalinization of salt water?
Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit (ROWPU)
379
What is the most common field water purification system in use?
Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit (ROWPU)
380
What is a transportable quick-response water purification system capable of aerating, clarifying, filtering and
disinfecting contaminated water?
ERDLATOR
381
What is the most common method of disinfecting potable water?
Chlorination
382
What is the preferred type of chlorine agent because it comes in granular form, has a long shelf-life, and is
readily available from the Navy stock system?
Calcium hypochlorite
383
What is the most common type of chlorine agent used by municipal water treatment plants?
Chlorine gas
384
Which process is used to disinfect water containers and distribution systems initially (before they are used) or
when they have become contaminated?
Superchlorination
385
Superchlorination is accomplished by chlorinating the water in a container or distribution system to at least
100 ppm FAC and holding it in the container for how many hours?
4
386
A rule of thumb for the minimum amount of water required for advanced base medical facilities is how many
gallons per medical treatment bed per day?
65
387
How often at a minimum must the FAC residual of all water supplies be determined?
Daily
388
How often at a minimum must field water supplies be bacteriologically tested?
Weekly
389
Who is responsible for inspecting all food items at the time of receipt?
Food Service Officer (FSO)
390
How often per day at a minimum must all bulk storage refrigerators/freezer temperatures be read?
3
391
How often at a minimum should refrigerated space be emptied and thoroughly cleaned?
Weekly
392
Field reefers, as a general rule, will be maintained at or below what temperature?
40 degrees F
393
Room temperature must not exceed which temperature when thawing frozen foods at room temperature?
80 degrees F
394
Potentially Hazardous Foods (PHFs) which have been held between 40°F and 140°F for more than how many
cumulative hours must be disposed of as garbage?
4
395
How many metal GI cans are used to set up a field dishwashing unit?
5
396
In emergency situations where hot water is not available, messing utensils can be sanitized by immersion in a
50 ppm FAC solution for how many seconds?
60
397
What must be constructed to dispose of waste water from the food service area in the field?
Soakage pits
398
What is the current Meal Ready to Eat (MRE) shelf life?
48 months
399
What are the main components of T-Rations?
Tray packs
400
Up to how many servings of food can be provided by tray packs?
36
401
Which personnel should provide technical assistance in the fabrication, location, and maintenance of field
waste disposal facilities?
Medical department
402
How often at a minimum must Preventive Medicine (PREVMED) personnel inspect field waste disposal
facilities to ensure they are being run in a sanitary manner?
Daily
403
How many inches deep are cat holes?
6-12"
404
How deep are straddle trenches?
2.5'
405
How many feet away should latrines be from the nearest natural water source?
100'
406
How many feet away should latrines be from the nearest berthing area?
50'
407
How many yards away should latrines be from the nearest food service area?
100
408
How many people are straddle trench latrines designed to accommodate?
25
409
How deep should the pit for a deep pit latrine be at a maximum?
6'
410
Which type of latrine is desirable where the soil conditions are hard, rocky or frozen?
Burn-Barrel
411
How many feet deep is an 18 inch diameter hole bored down for bored hole latrines?
15-20'
412
How many men are served by one urinoil?
100
413
Up to how many people can be served by one soakage pit?
200
414
What is the most effective device for removing grease between the field mess and each soakage pit?
Baffle grease trap
415
Burials for garbage must be at least how many feet away from any natural water source and from the field
mess?
100'
416
How many people will pits service for one day for garbage needs?
100
417
What is constructed to dispose of garbage when staying for 2 or more days in one location?
Continous trench
418
Which garbage disposal method is often used in camps that will be used for a week or more?
Incineration
419
How many feet at a minimum must incinerators be located away from the camp area and flammables?
50'
420
What is defined as dry, disposable waste resulting from almost all of man’s activities?
Rubbish
421
What dictates the direction of heat flow from (or to) the body?
Ambient air temperature
422
Which type of heat is produced by the reflective energy of the sun or equipment in close proximity to a human
body?
Radiant
423
Alcohol should not be consumed for how many hours prior to heat stress?
24
424
Heat cramps primarily result from the excessive loss of which substance through sweating?
Salt
425
Which condition occurs when there is excessive pooling of the blood in the extremities making it so the brain
does not receive enough blood?
Heat Syncope
426
Which condition results from peripheral vascular collapse due to excessive water and salt depletion?
Heat exhaustion
427
What should not be used to treat heat exhaustion?
Aspirin
428
Which condition results from the collapse of the thermal regulatory mechanism?
Heatstroke
429
What is the optimal period for heat acclimatization?
3 weeks
430
What is the single most important factor in avoidance of heat injury?
Adequate water intake
431
How many minute intervals should personnel exposed to heat consume water?
10-20
432
What is the optimum temperature range for drinking water?
50-60°F
433
What is the most effective means of assessing the effect of heat stress on the human body?
Wet Bulb, Globe Temperature (WBGT) Index
434
Which color flag is flown when the Wet Bulb, Globe Temperature (WBGT) Index is less than 80?
White
435
Which color flag is flown when the Wet Bulb, Globe Temperature (WBGT) Index is between 80 and 84.9?
Green
436
Which color flag is flown when the Wet Bulb, Globe Temperature (WBGT) Index is between 85 and 87.9?
Yellow
437
Which color flag is flown when the Wet Bulb, Globe Temperature (WBGT) Index is between 88 and 89.9?
Red
438
Which color flag is flown when the Wet Bulb, Globe Temperature (WBGT) Index is at or above 90?
Black
439
How many points are added to the measured WBGT when wearing body armor or NBC protective uniforms?
10
440
Cold injuries are more likely to occur in “front line” troops and predominately those below which rank?
E-4
441
Imersion syndrome is a serious condition which may occur in as little as 24 hours in environments where the
water is below what temperature?
50°F
442
Which condition occurs from exposure to ambient or wind-chill temperature below freezing?
Frostbite
443
Which condition is the general cooling of the body’s core temperature?
Hypothermia
444
How many minutes can hypothermia happen under extreme conditions?
5
445
What percentage of body heat loss can be through the head?
75%
446
Which type of diseases are transmitted from a carrier to a susceptible host?
Communicable
447
What is the key to a successful disease control program?
Prevention
448
Which type of diseases are transmitted under natural conditions from vertebrate animals to man either directly
or indirectly by vector borne means?
Zoonotic
449
What is an infestation of lice on various parts of the body?
Pediculosis
450
What is an infectious disease of the skin caused by a mite?
Scabies
451
Which series contains regulations pertaining to communicable disease reporting?
NAVMECOMINST 6220.2
