Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Kat's Pathology > Neonatal and Childhood Infections > Flashcards

Neonatal and Childhood Infections Flashcards

(80 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are congenital infections

A

Babies are born with congenital infections i.e. transmitted vertically from mother to baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When during pregnancy can congenital infections occur

A

At any time during pregnancy - between the first trimester and birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What infections are pregnant mothers screened for (6)

A 
Rubella 
Syphilis
Hepatitis B (+/- Hepatitis C) 
HIV
\+/- toxoplasmosis 
\+/- varicella zoster virus (VZV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What must always be considered in a sick neonate

A

Congenital infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the TORCH infections that are important to screen for (5)

A 
Toxoplasmosis 
Other - syphilis, HIV, hepatitis B/C, etc....
Rubella
CMV (cytomegalovirus) 
HSV (herpes simplex virus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some common features of congenital infections (5)

A 
Mild/no apparent maternal infection
Wide range of severity in the baby
Similar clinical presentation
Serological diagnosis
Long term sequelae if untreated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some general clinical features of congenital infections (5)

A 
Thrombocytopenia
Other:ears/ eyes
Rash
Cerebral abnormalities/ microcephaly / meningoencephalitis 
Hepatosplenomegaly/ hepatitis/ jaundice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two presentations of toxoplasmosis

A

Asymptomatic at birth - 60% but may still go on to suffer long-term sequelae (deafness, low IQ, microcephaly)
Symptomatic at birth - 40% choroidoretinitis, microcephaly/hydrocephalus, intracranial calcification, seizures, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is toxoplasmosis transmitted to humans

A

Cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What effects does congenital rubella syndrome have on the foetus

A

Depends on the time of the infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the mechanism of action of congenital rubella syndrome (3)

A

Mitotic arrest of cells
Angiopathy
Growth inhibitor effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What effect does congenital rubella syndrome have on the eyes (4)

A

Cararacts
Microphthalmia
Glaucoma
Retonopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of congenital rubella syndrome (3)

A

PDA
PAS
ASD/VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the effects of congenital rubella syndrome of the ears

A

Deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the effects of congenital rubella syndrome on the brain (3)

A

Microcephaly
Meningoencephalitis
Developmental Delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What misc effects can congenital rubella syndrome have (5)

A 
Growth retardation 
Bone disease
Hepatosplenomegaly 
Thrombocytopenia 
Rash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some important congenital infections to be aware of (8)

A 
Hepatitis B/C
HIV
Syphilis
Listeria monocytogenes
GBS
Chlamydia trachomatis 
Mycoplasma 
Parvovirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is chlamydia transmitter to the newborn

A

During delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does neonatal chlamydia cause (2)

A

Neonatal conjunctivitis

Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is neonatal chlamydia treated

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Is the mother always symptomatic with chlamydia infections

A

Mother may be asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is the neonatal period

A

1st 6 weeks of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In a preterm baby, what is the neonatal period

A

If born early (premature infant) the neonatal period is longer and is adjusted for expected birth date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What differs from adults in neonatal infections (3)

A

Higher incidence of infections
Can become ill very quickly and seriously
Unlike adults - need to treat with antibiotics at first suspicion of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Why are neonates at risk of infections (2)
Immature host defences | Increased risk with prematurity
26
Why does prematurity increase susceptibility to infections (3)
Less maternal IgG NICU care Exposure to microorganisms - colonisation and infection
27
What is early onset neonatal infection
Usually within 48hours of birth
28
What organisms are associated with early onset neonatal infection (4)
Group B Streptococci E.coli Listeria Others: other streptococci, haemophilus species, anaerobes
29
What do group B streptococci look like
Gram positive cocci
30
What are the features of group B steptococci (4)
Gram positive cocci Catalase negative Beta-haemolytic Lacefield group B
31
What does group B streptococci cause in neonates (3)
Bacteraemia Meningitis Disseminated infection (e.g. joint infections)
32
What does e.coli look like
Gram negative rod
33
What does E.coli cause in neonates (3)
Bacteraemia Meningitis UTI
34
What are some maternal risk factors for early onset sepsis of the neonate (5)
``` PROM/pre-term labour Fever Foetal distress meconium staining Previous history ```
35
What are some baby risk factors for neonatal sepsis (9)
``` Birth asphyxia Respiratory distress Low BP Acidosis Hypoglycaemia neutropenia Rash Hepatosplenomegaly Jaundice ```
36
What are the first-line investigations for early onset neonatal sepsis (7)
``` FBC CRP Blood cultures Deep ear swab CSF Surface swabs CXR ```
37
What is the treatment for early onset neonatal sepsis
Supportive management
38
What is involved in the supportive management for early onset neonatal sepsis (4)
Ventilation Circulation Nutrition Antibiotics (e.g. benzylpenicillin and gentamicin)
39
What organisms are likely in early onset neonatal sepsis (3)
Group B streptococci E.coli Listeria monocytogenes
40
What organisms are likely in late onset neonatal sepsis (4)
``` CNS involvement!!!! S.aureus Enterococci Gram negatives - Klebsiella, enterobacter, pseudomonas aeruginosa Candida species ```
41
What are the clinical features of late onset neonatal sepsis (10)
Bradycardia Apnoea Poor feeding/biliois aspirates/abdominal distension Irritability Convulsions Jaundice Respiratory distress Increased CRP, sudden changes in WCC/platelets Focal inflammation - umbilicus, drip sites, etc...
42
What investigations are carried out in late onset neonatal sepsis (6)
``` FBC CRP Blood cultures Urine ET secretions if ventilated Swabs from any infected sites ```
43
What is the treatment for late onset neonatal sepsis (3)
Treat early - lower threshold for starting therapy Review and stop antibiotics if cultures negative and clinically stable NICU treatment
44
What are the first-line antibiotics used for neonatal sepsis (2)
Flucloxacillin and gentamicin
45
What are the second line antibiotics for late onset neonatal sepsis (2)
Pipericillin/tazobactam and vancomycin
46
What are the antibiotics used to treat community acquired late onset neonatal infections (3)
Cefotaxime, amoxicillin +/- gentamicin
47
What are the most common causative organisms in childhood
Viral infections (e.g. chickenpox (VZV), herpes simplex (cold sores/stomatitis), HHV6, EBV, CMV, RSV, enteroviruses,
48
What may viral infections in childhood predispose to
Secondary infection with bacteria
49
What are the most common symptoms of infection in childhood (2)
Non-specific symptoms (fever, abdominal pain)
50
What investigations are useful in childhood infections (5)
``` FBC CRP Blood cultures Urine +/- sputum, throat swabs, etc... ```
51
What is the most important bacterial cause of paediatric morbidity and mortality
Meningitis
52
How is bacterial meningitis diagnosed in childhood (2)
Clinical features | Lab tests
53
What lab tests are used to diagnose bacterial meningitis (6)
``` Blood cultures Throat swab LP for CSF if possible Rapid antigen screen EDTA blood for PCR Clotted serum for serology if needed alter ```
54
What are the CSF features of bacterial meningitis (7)
Raised WCC (mainly polymorphs) Raised protein Low glucose Gram stain - may see organisms (e.g. meningococci, pneumococci) Rapid antigen test on CSF may be positive Culture may grow the organism - yields sensitivity data If it doesn't grow, PCR may be positive
55
What is the glass test
Tests for a non-blanching rash in bacterial meningitis
56
What is streptococcus pneumoniae a dangerous cause of (3)
Bacterial meningitis Pneumonia Bacteraemia
57
How does strep pneumoniae appear
Gram positive diplococci | Alpha haemolytic streptococci
58
What is the pneumococcal conjugative vaccine
Prevenar introduced in UK in 2006. Vaccine serotypes almost eradicated since introduction. However, still seeing invasive pneumococcal disease in children
59
What may cause the continuing invasive pneumococcal disease in children despite vaccination
Perhaps due to serotype replacement
60
What is haemophilus influenza cultured on
Chocolate agar plate
61
What are the most common causes of meningitis in children < 3 months old (6)
``` N. meningitidis. S. pneumoniae. (H. influenzae if unvaccinated) Group B Strep. E. coli. Listeria. ```
62
What are the most common causes of meningitis in children < 3 months old (3)
N. meningitidis. S. pneumoniae. H. influenza if unvaccinated.
63
What are the most common causes of meningitis in children > 6 years old (2)
N. meningitidis. | S. pneumoniae.
64
Accounts for 1/3rd of all childhood illnesses
Respiratory tract infections
65
What are the most common causes of respiratory tract infections in children (2)
S. pneumoniae is the most important bacterial cause. - most UK strains remain sensitive to penicillin or amoxicillin. Mycoplasma pneumoniae tends to affect older children (>4 years) - macrolides are the treatment fo choice e.g. azithromycin.
66
What must be considered if treatment for s.pneumonia and mycoplasma ineffective (2)
Whooping cough - bordetella pertussis - especially if unvaccinated. TB, including MDRTB and XDRTB
67
What is the prevalence of UTIs
Up to 3% of girls and 1% boys by age 11
68
What is important in UTIs before commencing treatment
Get samples before starting treatment
69
What are the most common causes of UTIs in children (3)
E.coli Other coliforms e.g. proteus species, klebsiella Enterococcus
70
What are the NICE guidelines on UTIs in children
Antibiotic prophylaxis after treatment of the infection
71
What may recurrent or persistent infections indicate
May be a sign of immunodeficiency (e.g. HIV, SCID) Warrants investigation by paediatric infectious diseases doctors
72
What is the UK vaccination schedule (8)
8 weeks Diphtheria, Tetanus, Acellular Pertussis (whooping cough), Inactivated Polio Vaccine, Hib (DTaP / IPV / Hib) and Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) 12 weeks DTaP / IPV / Hib and Meningococcal C Vaccine (Men C) 16 weeks DTaP / IPV / Hib, PCV and Men C 12 months Hib/Men C booster 13 months Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) and PCV 3 years 4 months MMR - second dose (may be given earlier)Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis and IPV 13+ years Tetanus, Diphtheria and IPV 13+ years (girls) HPV 16&18
73
Vaccinations at 8 weeks (6)
Diphtheria, Tetanus, Acellular Pertussis (whooping cough), Inactivated Polio Vaccine, Hib (DTaP / IPV / Hib) Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)
74
Vaccinations at 12 weeks (4)
DTaP/IPV / Hib | Meningococcal C Vaccine (Men C)
75
Vaccinations at 16 weeks (5)
DTaP / IPV / Hib PCV Men C
76
Vaccinations at 12 months (2)
Hib/Men C booster
77
Vaccinations at 13 months (4)
Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) | PCV
78
Vaccinations at 3 years 4 months (7)
MMR second dose Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis IPV
79
Vaccinations 13 + years (3)
Tetanus, Diphtheria | IPV
80
Vaccinations 13+ years (girls)
HPV 6, 11, 16, 18

Kat's Pathology (105 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions