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Patho > Neoplasm > Flashcards

Neoplasm Flashcards

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1
Q

Front

A

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2
Q

What age group is commonly affected by Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

Adolescents or young adults. It is more common in children (‘Burkitt’ lymphoma).

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3
Q

What genetic translocation is associated with Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

t(8;14)—translocation of c-myc (8) and heavy-chain Ig (14).

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4
Q

What is a characteristic microscopic finding in Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

‘Starry sky’ appearance due to sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed ‘tingible body’ macrophages.

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5
Q

What infection is often associated with Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV).

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6
Q

What are the common sites of involvement in Burkitt Lymphoma?

A

Jaw lesion in endemic form in Africa; pelvis or abdomen in sporadic form.

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7
Q

What is the common age group for Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL)?

A

Usually older adults, but 20% occur in children.

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8
Q

What genetic mutations are associated with DLBCL?

A

Mutations in BCL-2 and BCL-6.

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9
Q

What is the significance of DLBCL?

A

It is the most common type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in adults.

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10
Q

What is the common age group for Follicular Lymphoma?

A

Adults.

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11
Q

What genetic translocation is associated with Follicular Lymphoma?

A

t(14;18)—translocation of heavy-chain Ig (14) and BCL-2 (18).

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12
Q

What are the clinical features of Follicular Lymphoma?

A

Indolent course with painless ‘waxing and waning’ lymphadenopathy. BCL-2 normally inhibits apoptosis.

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13
Q

What is the typical demographic for Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

A

Adult males are more commonly affected than adult females.

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14
Q

What genetic translocation is associated with Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

A

t(11;14)—translocation of cyclin D1 (11) and heavy-chain Ig (14). CD5+.

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15
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

A

Very aggressive, typically presenting with late-stage disease.

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16
Q

What is Marginal Zone Lymphoma associated with?

A

Chronic inflammation (e.g., Sjögren syndrome, chronic gastritis due to H. pylori).

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17
Q

What genetic translocation is associated with Marginal Zone Lymphoma?

A

t(11;18).

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18
Q

What is the treatment approach for Marginal Zone Lymphoma?

A

May regress with H. pylori eradication.

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19
Q

What infection is associated with Primary CNS Lymphoma?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV).

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20
Q

What conditions are commonly linked with Primary CNS Lymphoma?

A

HIV/AIDS (it is considered an AIDS-defining illness).

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21
Q

What are common symptoms of Primary CNS Lymphoma?

A

Variable: confusion, memory loss, seizures. CNS mass often appears as a single ring-enhancing lesion on MRI in immunocompromised patients.

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22
Q

How is Primary CNS Lymphoma differentiated from Toxoplasmosis?

A

Through CSF analysis or other lab tests.

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23
Q

What causes Adult T-cell Lymphoma?

A

HTLV (associated with IV drug use).

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24
Q

What are the common presentations of Adult T-cell Lymphoma?

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A

Cutaneous lesions; common in Japan, West Africa, and the Caribbean.

25
What are other features of Adult T-cell Lymphoma?
Lytic bone lesions, hypercalcemia.
26
What are the common features of Cutaneous T-cell Lymphoma?
Heterogeneous neoplasms affecting skin ± blood, lymph nodes, or viscera. Most common subtype is mycosis fungoides.
27
What is characteristic of Mycosis Fungoides?
Erythematous patches favoring sun-protected areas that progress to plaques, then tumors.
28
What is Sézary syndrome?
A leukemic form of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.
29
Front
Back
30
What is the overproduced immunoglobulin in Multiple Myeloma?
IgG (most common) > IgA > light chains.
31
What does the M spike represent in Multiple Myeloma?
Overproduction of Monoclonal immunoglobulin.
32
What are the clinical features of Multiple Myeloma?
CRAB: hyperCalcemia, Renal insufficiency, Anemia, Bone lytic lesions ('punched out').
33
What are some complications of Multiple Myeloma?
Increased infection risk, 1° amyloidosis (AL).
34
What is found on bone marrow biopsy in Multiple Myeloma?
>10% monoclonal plasma cells with clock-face chromatin and intracytoplasmic inclusions.
35
What is a characteristic finding on peripheral blood smear in Multiple Myeloma?
Rouleaux formation (RBCs stacked like poker chips).
36
What immunoglobulin is overproduced in Waldenström Macroglobulinemia?
IgM (macroglobulinemia because IgM is the largest Ig).
37
What are the clinical features of Waldenström Macroglobulinemia?
Anemia, 'B' symptoms, lymphadenopathy, hyperviscosity (e.g., blurred vision, headache), peripheral neuropathy.
38
What is seen on fundoscopy in Waldenström Macroglobulinemia?
Dilated, tortuous retinal veins (sausage link appearance).
39
What is found on bone marrow biopsy in Waldenström Macroglobulinemia?
>10% monoclonal lymphoplasmacytic cells with IgM inclusions.
40
What characterizes Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance (MGUS)?
M spike (<3 g/dL) without CRAB findings.
41
What is the risk of progression in MGUS?
1%-2% per year risk of progression to Multiple Myeloma.
42
Front
Back
43
What is the most frequent leukemia in children?
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (ALL) is the most frequent in children.
44
What genetic abnormalities are associated with ALL?
t(12;21) is associated with a better prognosis
45
What are the key features of acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
Peripheral blood and bone marrow show ↑↑↑ lymphoblasts; TdT+ (marker of pre-T and pre-B cells); CD10+ (marker of pre-B cells).
46
Which condition can ALL spread to?
ALL can spread to the CNS and testes.
47
What age group is most affected by chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?
CLL is most common in adults aged ≥60 years.
48
What is a hallmark finding in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) peripheral blood smears?
Smudge cells (Crushed Little Lymphocytes).
49
What condition can Richter transformation lead to?
CLL/SLL can transform into an aggressive lymphoma
50
What mutation is associated with hairy cell leukemia?
Hairy cell leukemia is associated with BRAF mutations.
51
What staining is positive in hairy cell leukemia?
TRAP stain (Tartrate-Resistant Acid Phosphatase) is positive in hairy cell leukemia.
52
What are the clinical findings in hairy cell leukemia?
Massive splenomegaly
53
What are the hallmark features of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)?
AML is associated with Auer rods
54
What is the most common age of onset for AML?
Median onset for AML is 65 years.
55
What is the genetic abnormality in acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)?
t(15;17) translocation is characteristic of APL.
56
What treatment is used for acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)?
All-trans retinoic acid (vitamin A) and arsenic trioxide induce differentiation of promyelocytes.
57
What genetic abnormality defines chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?
CML is defined by the Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)
58
What are the hallmark findings in CML?
Dysregulated production of mature and maturing granulocytes (e.g.
59
What phase can CML progress to?
CML may accelerate to AML or ALL in a "blast crisis."

Patho (2 decks)

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