Nephrology Flashcards

1
Q

Loop diuretics/thiazide diuretics adverse side effects

A

Decreased electrolytes such as hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, ototoxicity, sulfa allgery susceptible, hyperuricemia (can precipitate gout), hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

K+ sparing diuretics adverse effects

A

Hyperkalemia due to retention of K+, anti androgen effects like gynecomastia, erectile dysfunction, decreased libido

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nephrotic syndrome definition

A

Kidney disease characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and edema, caused primarily by minimal change disease in children and membranous nephropathy in adults (SLE, viral hepatitis, malaria, medications)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most common secondary etiology of nephrotic syndrome in adults

A

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most definitive accurate test for nephrotic syndrome that is rarely done, best initial test that is often done

A

Renal biopsy, UA is best initial test and microscopy might show fatty casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First line management of minimal change disease

A

Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Management of nephrotic syndrome

A

Glucocorticoids or other immunomodulators, edema reduction with diuretics, proteinuria reduction with ace inhibitors, statin therapy for hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis (nephritic syndrome) characteristics

A

Hypertension, hematuria, azotemia (proteinuria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common causes of acute glomerulonpehritis (nephritic syndrome)

A

IgA nephropathy (Bergerr’s disease) after URI or GI infection
Post streptococcal post infectious
Goodpasture’s disease (glomerulonephritis plus hemoptysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pre renal acute kidney injury diagnosis

A

BUN:Cr ratio >20:1, FENA <1%, concentrated urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most common type of intrinsic acute kidney injury

A

Acute tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Intrinsic acute kidney injury diagnosis

A

BUN:Cr ratio <15:1, FENA >2%, dilute urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of acute tubular necrosis

A

Removal of offending agents and IV fluids first line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
RBC casts indicate \_\_\_
Muddy brown casts indicate \_\_\_
WBC casts indicate \_\_\_
Waxy casts indicate\_\_\_
Fatty casts indicate \_\_\_\_
Hyaline casts indicate \_\_\_
A
Acute glomerulonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
Pyelonephritis
Chronic acute tubular necrosis or glomerulonephritis or end stage renal disease (broad waxy casts is key)
Nephrotic syndrome (hyperlipidemia)
Nonspecific (normal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clinical manifestations of PKD

A

Abdominal and flank pain, nephrolithiasis, UTI, hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most widely used diagnostic imaging test of PKD

A

Ultrasound

17
Q

Normal GFR, Stage 1-5 kidney disease

A
Normal is 120-130,
Stage 1 kidney damage with normal GFR or >90
Stage 2 60-89
Stage 3 30-59
Stage 4 15-29
Stage 5 <15
18
Q

First and second most common causes of end stage renal disease

A

DM, htn

19
Q

Single best predictor of chronic kidney disease progression

A

Spot urine albumin/ucreatinine ratio (ACR), proteinuria

20
Q

HbA1c goal for management in chronic kidney disease patients

A

<7%, regular diabetics without CKD between 7-8%

21
Q

Best initial test in evaluating a horseshoe kidney

A

CT urography

22
Q

Gold standard non invasive and invasive and therapeutic diagnostic studies for renal artery stenosis

A

CT angiography, renal catheter arteriography

23
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in a patient with bilateral renal artery stenosis or in patients with a solitary kidney

A

ACE and ARBs as may lead to AKI

24
Q

Earliest sign of hypokalemia

A

T wave flattening followed by prominent u wave development

25
Q

Management of severe hypermagnesemia (rare)

A

IV calcium gluconate plus IV fluids plus furosemide, dialysis if severe enough

26
Q

Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia can precipitate what cardiac arrhythmia? What is the treatment of this arrhythmia?

A

Torsades de pointes, IV magnesium sulfate

27
Q

Most common initial symptom of hypernatremia

A

Thirst, followed by confusion, lethargy, dry mouth and mucus membranes

28
Q

Rapid over correction of hypernatremia with hypotonic fluids can lead to…

A

…cerebral edema

29
Q

Rapid over correction of hyponatremia with volume replacement can lead to

A

central pontine myelinolysis

30
Q

Most common initial symtpom of hyponatremia

A

Neurologic issues due to cerebral edema

31
Q

Hypomagnesemia presents with similar findings such as increased DTRs and tetany as well as signs of hypo___ because the two are connected as magneisum is needed to make a hormone that controls this

A

hypocalcemia

32
Q

Hypokalemia is associated with metabolic ___ while hyper is associated with ___

A

alkalosis, acidosis

33
Q

Hypokalemia management

A

KCl replacement and if hypomagnesemia present then replace that too

34
Q

MUDPILERS acronym and what does it mean?

A
Methanol
Uremia
DKA
Propylene glycol
Isoniazid
Lactic acidosis
Ethylene glycol
Salicylates

Means anion gap metabolic acidosis, (too much acid or too little bicarb, true regardless if anion gap present or not)

35
Q

Steps to solve an acid base disorder

A

1) pH <7.35 is acidotic, pH >7.45 is alkalotic
2) Is the pCO2 low or high (35-45)
3) In primary respiratory disorders, pCO2 does the OPPOSITE of the pH
4) Is HCO3 low or high (22-26)
5) In primary metabolic disorders, the HCO3 does the same as the pH
6) IF metabolic acidosis is present, calculate anion gap Na - (Cl+HCO3), normal is 10-12

36
Q

A left sided varicocele can be indicative of…

A

…renal cell carcinoma

37
Q

Most common abdominal mass in children, most commonly manifested as a palpable abdominal mass that doesn’t cross midline

A

Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

38
Q

best initial test in suspected wilm’s tumor, how is it treated?

A

Abdominal ultrasound, treated with total nephrectomy followed by chemotherapy