Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pance Prep Pearls > Urology > Flashcards

Urology Flashcards

1
Q

Urge vs overflow vs stress incontinence

A

Urge is suddenly getting intense urge due to detrusor muscle overactivity and individual cannot make it to bathroom in time a lot of time, treated with bladder training primarily or antimuscarinics as first line medical therapy like tolterodine or oxybutynin

Overflow incontinence is due to bladder detrusor muscle underactivity or urinary outlet obstruction and might be seen with neurologic autonomic dysfunction such as DM or spinal injuries also common in BPH will see loss of urine with no warning or dribbling, diagnosed clinically but with a post void residual >200mL and treated with intermittent or indwelling catheter primarily and sometimes cholinergics like bethanechol

Stress incontinence is involuntary leakage of urine that occurs with increased abdominal pressure and can be seen after childbirth or after surgery, treated with pelvic floor muscle exercises primarily but can also use a pessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Peyronie’s disease management of mild <30 degrees vs severe >30 degrees or associated with sexual dysfunction or pain

A

Mild - observation and urologist referral

Severe - Intralesional injections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Imaging test to diagnose vesicoureteral reflux

A

Voiding cystourethrogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Management of mild vesicoureteral reflux vs severe

A

Mild is observation with antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent recurrent UTI’s, severe is surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

2nd most common causative agent of acute cystits

A

Staph saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Diagnosis of acute cystitis

A

Urinaylsis demonstrating pyuria >10wbc/hpf initial, urine culture is definitive diagnosis from a clean catch specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Management of uncomplicated acute cystitis (4)

A

Nitrofurantoin
Bactrim
Amoxicillin or augmentin during pregnancy

Fluroquinolones second line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Adjunctive therapy for acute cystitis symptoms

A

Phenazopyridine (bladder analgesic) that turns urine orange color, not to be used more than 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Interstitial cystitis definition

A

Chronic condition resulting in painful inflamed bladder despite absence of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis

A

Fever, chills, flank or back pain, nausea, vomiting, dysuria, urgency, frequency, costovertebral angle tenderness, tachycardia, WBC casts hallmark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Outpatient vs inpatient vs pregnant management of pyelonephritis

A
  • Fluoroquinolones first line (if no resistance) outpatient
  • 3rd or 4th gen cephalosporins, fluroquinolones, aminoglycosides inpatient
  • IV ceftriaxone first line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common bacterial STI in the US

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most specific test for GC chlamydia

A

NAAT (nucleic acid amplification)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If test results not available, what is treatment of possible GC/chlamydia vs tested confirmed n. gonorroeae vs tested confirmed chlamydia alone

A
  • Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x1 plus azithromycin 1g x 1 dose
  • Same
  • Azithromycin 1g oral OR doxycycline 100 mg orally bid x 10 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most common cause of acute prostatitis in patients >35 years vs below, what is the most common cause of chronic prostatits

A

E coli vs chlamydia and gonorrhea, e coli is most common cause of chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Difference between acute and chronic prostatitis and BPH and prostate cancer on physical exam

A

Acute will be exquisitely tender, while chronic is usually nontender but both are boggy, BPH is symmetric enlarged firm nontender prostate, prostate cancer is a rock hard prostate that is asymmetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Prostatitis diagnosis

A

Urinalysis and culture, transrectal ultrasound or CT if concern for abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Medications used to manage prostatitis in >35 years vs younger

A

Fluoroquinolones or bactrim outpatient vs ceftriaxone plus doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common cause of epididymitis in patients >35 vs younger

A

E coli vs chlamydia and neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Manifestations of epididymitis

A
  • Gradual onset localized testicular pain and swelling, groin pain, flank or abdominal pain, may have fever, chills, or urinary irritative symptoms
  • Scrotal swelling, epididymal tenderness and induration
  • Positive prehn sign - relief of pain with scrotal elevation (classic but not reliable)
  • Normal cremasteric reflex
21
Q

Epididymitis best initial imaging test

A

Scrotal ultrasound, can be done to rule out torsion (testicular doppler ultrasound)

22
Q

Epididymitis treatment in >35 year old patients

A

Fluorquinolones

23
Q

Physical exam signs in testicular torsion

A

Negative prehn sign, absent (negative) cremasteric reflex on affected side

24
Q

Definitive diagnosis and preferred over others in testicular torsion

A

Emergency surgical exploration within 6 hours of pain onset

25
Q

Torsion of appendix testes definition

A

Abrupt testicular pain with blue dot sign (discoloration directly over the appendage), diagnosed clinically or with a doppler ultrasound, managed with ice and nsaids or surgical excision if persistent pain despite management

26
Q

Cryptorchidism diagnostic criteria

A

Testicle that has not descended by 4 months of age, will need orchiopexy if undescended after this point

27
Q

Most common type of testicular cancer, what is the most common manifestation?

A

Germinal cell tumor, testicular painless mass most common and physical exam will show it does NOT transilluminate

28
Q

Diagnosis of testicular cancer

A

Scrotal ultrasound, alpha fetoprotein tumor marker

29
Q

Most common cause of painless scrotal swelling

A

Hydrocele

30
Q

What two testicular conditions see transillumination?

A

Hydrocele and spermatocele (benign epididymal cyst that contains sperm)

31
Q

Most common surgically correctable cause of male infertility

A

Varicocele

32
Q

Unilateral right sided varicoceles are concerning for ____, sudden onset left side in an older man may raise concern for ____

A

abdominal malignancy, renal cell carcinoma

33
Q

Most common type of bladder cancer

A

Urothelial (transitiona cell) carcinoma

34
Q

Risk factors for bladder cancer

A
  • smoking number 1

- Occupational exposure to dyes, leather, rubber

35
Q

Gold standard diagnostic and therapeutic for bladder carcinoma

A

Cystoscopy with biopsy

36
Q

Paraphimosis vs phimosis urologic emergency

A

Paraphymosis is a urological emergency as it can lead to constriction of penile tissues leading to gangrene, phimosis is not a urological emergency

37
Q

Paraphimosis management most common vs definitive management

A

Manual reduction is mainstay

Definitive treatment is incision (dorsal slit) or circumcision

38
Q

Phimosis management msot common vs definitive management

A

Stretching exercises and topical corticosteroids

Definitive is circumcision

39
Q

BPH management options

A

Observation in mild symptoms, alpha blockers best initial symptomatic therapy (tamsulosin, doxazosin) but these doo not impact prostate size, 5 alpha reductase inhibitors reduce size of prostate over time (finasteride), surgical management like TURP option in persistent progressive or refractory

40
Q

Most common cause of microscopic hematuria in men

A

BPH

41
Q

CVA tenderness indicates these 2 pathologies

A

Pyelonoephritis

Nephrolithiasis

42
Q

Imaging test of choice for nephrolithiasis

A

Noncontrast CT abdomen and pelvis

43
Q

Management of stones <5mm in diameter vs 5-10 mm diameter

A

Supportive care, spontaneous passage

Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy with or without stent, percutaneous nephrolithotomy (for vey large stones or if other methods fail)

44
Q

4 types of kidney stones

A
  • Calcium oxylate (most common) decreased fluid intake most common risk factor
  • Uric acid due to high protein foods or gout
  • Struvite staghorn calculi may be complication of uti with certain organisms
  • Cystine congenital defect
45
Q

1st and 2nd most common congenital defects in males

A

Cryptorchidism, hypospadias

46
Q

Hypospadias maangement

A

AVOID circumcision, elective surgical correction

47
Q

Trazodone side effect

A

Priapism

48
Q

Management of priapism

A

Phenylephrine first line medication, needle aspiration

49
Q

First line therapy vs most effective long term therapy vs pharmacologic therapy for enuresis

A

Behavioral management, enuresis alarm, desmopressin (DDAVP)

Pance Prep Pearls (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions